The argument is that kemet means 'black people' although euros maintain it means 'black land', however ancient kemetans used determinatives to indicate the exact meaning of words, and the word 'kemet' has no determinative of land,a drawing of a man and a woman is idicated.
For those who have a deeper knowledge of medu neter,where did euros get the land issue?
Is there any word in medu neter with indicating determinatives of land and people on the same word to indicate 'black people of the black land'.Hence euros clinging to this definition?
I will appreciate your input.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
no egyptologist that I have ever read maintains it means "black people." Perhaps you can point one out to us that does.
Posted by Brada-Anansi (Member # 16371) on :
Diop^^
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
IF he said that he is in the minority.
Posted by Brada-Anansi (Member # 16371) on :
Minority or not he was an Egyptologist.Also in Hebrew Kham means black,in medu-ntr kem means black. Ask Any of the language expert on campus and see what they say....ps don't try to lead them just ask them.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Shedden and the guys at the University of memphis say it is 'Black land." Also, just finished Tutankhamun's Armies (a good book, it's cheap on Amazon) and they say "Black Land" as well. Frankly I have always seen it referred to as black land until a few years ago when the radical afrocentrics came along.
Posted by Whatbox (Member # 10819) on :
Everyone knows "kem" = "black". A "kem" cat would be a "black" one.
The contention today's mainstream European 'egyptomania' has is what the name of the state Km.t "signified".
Km = black
Km.t = black
.t denotes femininity and/or plurality
Km.t [nwt] (the name for the state of Dynastic Keme) = black community/city
Rm = man
yw = people
Rm.t = men
When
Km.t rm.tyw is written it means "ancient egyptians" or black men of men
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
really does not whatbox. If the egyptians would have been black they would have had no real awareness of it. It is not impossible for a black man in 2009 to think in the same terms as a man living 3000 years ago. Modern blacks are obsessed with their blackness. No other race of people today sees their personal identity wrapped up in their pigment the way modern blacks are inclined to do. It is very unlikely that the Egyptians, Persians, Nubians etc gave much thought at all to pigment.
Most accounts say the reference is to black soil.
Posted by Ebony Allen (Member # 12771) on :
Yet you clearly give much though to race yourself or you wouldn't be on here arguing with facts.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I do not argue with facts when I am presented with them. Ebony, if you were objective you would look at the subject from both sides. Why do people say it means "black soil?"
Posted by Serpent Wizdom (Member # 7652) on :
why would the ancient kemite use the words meaning "black" to indicate soil? was the soil actually black or what? why would they put people in the same reference to "black" in their hieroglypics? people who think they were talkin about black land, what are your sources to prove this?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Serpent, why? maybe you are not asking the right questions? the point is this, most egyptologist say they meant black soil. If you email top egyptologists that is what they will tell you. Perhaps you should do so.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Mentu, to answer your question, the word for land is 'Ta' which I believe is indicated by a symbol for terrain. 'Kemet' of course has no determinative and instead shows people. As Whatbox correctly shows, the suffix 'et' is a feminine used for plurality of a people. Hence 'Rmt' means people in general but RtnaRmt means something like 'Men of men' (interestingly a title used by many African groups including in nearby Sudan) or 'Kmt' which means 'blacks' (black people).
People like the professor can talk about "land" or "soil" all they want but the Mdu-Neter is clear on the issue.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
well genius, black soil it will be. You and I both know that egyptologists see it that way.
You know Djehuti there is a reason why we have only a handful of scholars cited on this board. The top historians do not agree with you guys and these trips you take to Neptune and back.
We have thread after thread on ancinet greece but never have I heard the name of Donald Kagan mentioned? Why is that? I'll tell you why. You know that the top historians are not going to agree with this pseudo-political history you folks try to practice.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Obviously you either have poor reading comprehension OR as usual you ignored the valid linguisitic and scholarly FACT I just pointed out. There are actually many Egyptologists from like Shaw, Lesko, etc. etc. who acknowledge this basic FACT-- NO soil or land determinative used at all the symbols for Kmt are black coal for Kem and the symbol for people. Thus Kmt means black people or literally blacks. You or these vague Egyptologists you speak of cannot escape from the fact that there is no symbol or word for "soil" or land in the word Kmt. So really there is nothing for you to SPIN, 'professor'
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
Catechism: "The Egyptians called their country Kemet or Black after the color of the soil."
Western Egyptology contrived this deception from Herodotus, “Egypt is a land of black soil…We know that Libya is a redder earth.” (Herodotus, The History, book 2:12); conveniently ignoring the fact that he also mentioned that the Egyptian people were black as well. So, to anyone not familiar with the Ancient Egyptian language, this "Kemet = black soil" may seem plausible. It is not.
Here's the Mdu Ntr - Understanding Kmt
Km (to be black) used as an adjective km;kmem;kmom - black kemu - black (m) keme.t - black (f) > hime.t keme.t - "black woman" > himu.t keme.t - "black women"
Km used as a noun keme.t - any black person, place, or thing A determinative is used in order to be more specific keme.t (woman) - "the Black woman"; ie, 'divine woman' keme.t (cow) - "a Black cow" - ie, a 'sacred cow' kem - a black one (m) keme.t - a black one (f) kemu - black ones (m) kemu.t - black ones (f) kemeti - two black ones
Used as Nationality (literally): Sa Kemet - a man of Black (an Egyptian male) Sa.t Kemet - a woman of Black (an Egyptian female) Rome.t Kemet - the people of Black (Egyptians) Kemetou - Blacks (ie, 'citizens') Kememou - Black people of Black
Noun/Adjectives of Nationality Kemetu - Black's peoples (Egyptian citizens) Kmemu - Black people (the Egyptian people) Resu - Southern people (Upper Egyptians) Ret - The Men [Rot - men] - a shorthand writing - pronounced 'Rome' Ret na Rome - We Men above mankind [Rome - men;mankind] Rome n Keme - Men of Black ("Egyptians") TaMeru - Land of the Inundation people (Egyptians) Tawiu - The Two Lands people (Egyptian) [Ta;to - land]
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
Wally
All these facts you post will go over the Head of Patriot who refuses to shake away his wrong views on Ancient Egypt.
Peace
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
quote:Originally posted by KING: Wally
All these facts you post will go over the Head of Patriot who refuses to shake away his wrong views on Ancient Egypt.
Peace
Oh I know this I was responding to mentu's question and to newcomers to this forum who might find this information helpfull...Peace to you...
Posted by mentu (Member # 14537) on :
Whenever Kemet is written in mdu neter no determinative for land is given,a drawing for a man and a woman is always presented. I have also seen an expression for 'black cow' in which a determinitive for cow is drawn after the words,no euro has ever interprented this as 'black land'.
It seems that one has to bend over backwards for an interpretation of black land rather than black people.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Djehuti, After reading your post I did a quick run around the net. It appears that the reference to black land is correct. In fact one reference site noted that "black people" was an afrcentric view not shared by mainline scholars. When you get sucked into these radical groups this is the kind of distortion that takes place. You guys are wrong about almost everything. One faulty conclusion leads you two another.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
^AP.. Instead of relying on false authority in Egyptologists (whatever primary qualifications that's supposed to bring you) who have nil training in linguistic analysis, why not actually present an argument that alludes to the use of the word land in Km.t. Simply tell us why people expound that view. Meanwhile, please tell what does Ta-seti and Ta netjer mean, what the significance of "Ta" is and why isn't such in the word Km't to determine what it signifies. Afrocentrism/Eurocentrism aside, do you ACTUALLY have evidence on your side? If so, where is it? If you are content with simply google searches then fine, at least present their evidence. If you can't, I'll just assume that there is none and that this is simply another case of Eurocentric dogma. I'd suggest people stop responding to your denials (denials, not rebuttals) until you can actually provide arguments to coincide with them.
I'm sure you haven't the faintest knowledge of linguistics given your consultation with google search engine instead of books.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
It is more then a simple google search. I just read YET another book about the Egyptian military in which the Egyptologist that wrote it refered to "Kemet-black land." You see it everywhere. I think the reference article is correct. radical afrocentrics have added this to their collection of historical myths. Trust me Sundjata, there are no linguistics experts on this board.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
^I'm not appealing to authority. You're just telling me what some random historian writes with out telling me why he writes it. Try to understand AP. Why do you think a lot of "radical afrocentrists" exist? Probably because they'd been force fed lies, many of which go against common sense, for decades. Now you're asking a board full of critical thinkers (whether you refer to the lot sweepingly as "Afrocentrists" or not) to just accept a view that obviously goes against basic linguistic understanding (hence, you need not be a linguist expert, as also stated by Ehret in reference to the application as a whole). You have no evidence at all.
I don't think it's as simplistic as km.t merely meaning "Black people". See Wally's post above. It is clear that km means Black so what's important is context and what comes after or before. Where is there any mention of land in Km.t? If you can't answer, then fine. I'd rather go against the grain and be labeled "Afrocentric" for my non-acceptance of your views on this, rather than be a blind follower who is force fed mainstream garbage that makes no sense and simply belongs to the ad nauseum fallacy of argumentation, where if you repeat a lie long enough it becomes true.
Though at the end of the day, I'm confident that Eurocentrists such as yourself (not intended as a pejorative) will continue to be far behind the Afrocentrists in a debate format given the fallacious errors that commonly occur in Eurocentric discourse. Numbers are on their sides so they simply repeat lies in unison. That is neither proof nor science, it's dogma.
Posted by AryanEgypt (Member # 16469) on :
Israel was part of the Kushite empire. The Ethiopian kings hail directly from the ethnic Jews royal lines and whilst the two cultures are distantly linked, Arabnised east Africans aren't Semites. The Semites are a very ancient Afro-Asiatic people and they are not originally from Arabia or Mesopotamia but North Africa. The Ethiopians kings where Jews and Ethiopia acculturated a lot of Semitic elements. Nubia was situated in Sudan with about a quarter of its territory in what is now southern Egypt. The Nubian's where the Egyptians neighbours and they had their own kingdom. The Nubian's Pyramids small in size and sloppy build quality is archaeological evidence of ancient Negro workmanship.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
quote:Originally posted by AryanEgypt: [QB] Israel was part of the Kushite empire. The Ethiopian kings hail directly from the ethnic Jews royal lines and whilst the two cultures are distantly linked
Prime example AP. As long as this type of loon bin, racist Eurocentric fringe nonsense exists, so will the Afrocentrists or merely those who seek to challenge it.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I am not saying that some random historian believes it is "black land" but rather that "black land" is the mainline view held by Egyptologists. Radical afrocentrics exist because of modern racial politics and for no other reason. Back in the 1970's on the wave of the civil rights movement we created African Studies and black studies programs in most of our universities. It seems like a good idea at the time but most of us know today it was a big mistake. Instead of expanding knowledge in these fields they were taken over by radical blacks who had a totally political agenda. this subject has been written on extensively. Since that time the academic community has responded and for the most part marginalized their impact BUT they literally RUIN the minds of young blacks who otherwise might have a good career in academics.
the guys on egyptsearch are lost in an academic wilderness and will never be accepted in mainstream academics. In fact, at some point the political climate will change, as it always does, and their positions in these marginalized academic departments will be eliminated.
Posted by AryanEgypt (Member # 16469) on :
quote:Originally posted by Sundjata:
quote:Originally posted by AryanEgypt: [QB] Israel was part of the Kushite empire. The Ethiopian kings hail directly from the ethnic Jews royal lines and whilst the two cultures are distantly linked
Prime example AP. As long as this type of loon bin, racist Eurocentric fringe nonsense exists, so will the Afrocentrists or merely those who seek to challenge it.
What are you talking about ? I did my research !
Posted by AryanEgypt (Member # 16469) on :
quote:Originally posted by Sundjata:
quote:Originally posted by AryanEgypt: [QB] Israel was part of the Kushite empire. The Ethiopian kings hail directly from the ethnic Jews royal lines and whilst the two cultures are distantly linked
Prime example AP. As long as this type of loon bin, racist Eurocentric fringe nonsense exists, so will the Afrocentrists or merely those who seek to challenge it.
Egyptianization.
Kush acculturated Egyptian forms only after it conquered Egypt. Show me early Egyptian Nubian artefacts i.e. 2000BC. I bet you can't because Egyptian civilisation developed independently from and did not evolve from Kush culture.
The Assyrian Mesopotamian (Semitic) conquest of Egypt did not alter it's ethnic make up any more than Kush empire.
England ruled over India for four hundred years. Which is longer than the three hundred years that Assyrian empire stood for. Are the Indians English? Do the English maintain that India was once a white country?
Posted by lamin (Member # 5777) on :
AryanEgypt,
You say that the pyramids in Kush are small and sloppily built.
Well, they are relatively small comapred to those of the AEs--but they are more in number. It often happens that 2 very closely related peoples may just do things a bit differently. Also, the relative smallness could just be a more economical way of building tombs.
Sloppily built? That's a joke. They are still standing after millenia and they outdo by a huge margin anything original ever done in Europe. Stone Henge? LOL. And after Stone Henge? Zero! Until the copy-cat Greeks began adopting Egyptian architecture. LOL
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Ignoring the Arthur Kemp pseudohistorical nonsense posted by the idiot troll above and getting back to the topic at hand...
It still stands that the word Kmt has NO etymology or root word for 'land' or 'soil' at all. Non, nada! The root word in the term is Km meaning 'black' and the suffix indicating plurality, thus 'blacks'. The word for land or soil is Ta. The word Ta is either represented with a hieroglyph for terrain or a throwing stick if referring to a foreign land. Kmt is represented with neither, but is instead represented with burnt coal for 'black' and then a man and woman for 'people'. The script is quite clear and Pat is free to question his 'fellow' Egyptologists with this finding.
Of note, the common rebuttal the FACTS that Eurocents have is that it is nonsense for the Egyptians to 'racialize' themselves as a black people and call themselves black even if they were. However, what the Eurocents fail to realize is that 'black' in Africa is not about 'race' or just skin color but it is a sacred color which is totally unlike the European view of black being negative. In Africa because the color black is seen as sacred, there are many groups who sought to sanctify themselves by calling themselves black as they do their gods. All of this was discussed before!! Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
If one understands the script, pardon me if I am suspicious. Everywhere I look I see egyptologists using it as black land. Now I am going to call the guys at Memphis and ask them what it means EVEN though I know what they are going to tell me before I make the call.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
"call the guys at memphis" lmao!
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Good. Be sure to ask them what word and corresponding hieroglyph means 'land' and if such a word is found in Kmt. <--- As you can see the word is not there is it?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Djehuti, my guess is you guys have no clue what you are talking about, we'll see. You make so many terribe mistakes on the black Greek subject this one is probably screwed up as well.
It is what happens when we put ideology ahead of scholareship. You guys should have already been talking to these egyptologists. You might even find you are right now and then. At the very least you will learn something.
Posted by Brada-Anansi (Member # 16371) on :
HairyAnneggwipt says:The Ethiopians kings where Jews and Ethiopia acculturated a lot of Semitic elements. Nubia was situated in Sudan with about a quarter of its territory in what is now southern Egypt. The Nubian's where the Egyptians neighbours and they had their own kingdom.And Ocha really came from China,Coffee from Ethiopia,and Vodlka from Russia so how does that affects the price of Cous cous in Algeria?
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Brada, don't even bother addressing or even acknowledging the idiotic troll 'Aryan'. It is even more stupid than 'patriot'!
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Djehuti, my guess is you guys have no clue what you are talking about, we'll see. You make so many terribe mistakes on the black Greek subject this one is probably screwed up as well.
Well then you guessed WRONG as usual. As if you know anything about the topic. Whatbox and I already gave you a basic explanation of the word Kmt. If you doubt us feel free to do a search on the internet on Egyptian language, or find books in the library on the matter. The 'black Greek' issue is a non-sequitor that has no bearing on this and we are right about that as well-- Greeks having neolithic ancestry from Africa as well as those in the Middle East.
quote:It is what happens when we put ideology ahead of scholareship. You guys should have already been talking to these egyptologists. You might even find you are right now and then. At the very least you will learn something.
LOL Stop projecting professor. It is YOU who follows ideology-- particularly that of white supremacy, while WE follow scholarship!
Posted by lamin (Member # 5777) on :
AP,
You are not thinking properly at all. The fact that large numbers of people or members of some particular school of thought believe that "X is true" does not make it so at all. There are all kinds of beliefs once held by "experts" that have been discarded. Eg: the flat earth theory, the Ptolemaic theory of the universe, the "virgin birth" still firmly held by orthodox Christian theologians, etc.
A correct answer to the translation of what the AEs called themselves is easily found. Just translate the term what it says. Simple! And its a very simple Egytptian to translate. So what is the problem.
You should learn to think rationally, soberly and carefully--if you are interested in what actually obtains--i.e. "the truth". Or are you a "post-modern relativist" who believes that any belief can be justified and supported?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Haven't read any but the first day's posts to this thread. Will only say its an old cannard we've atomized.
I have already posted my documentation for KM.t as it relates to people, ethnicity, and community years ago in these forums and external search engines will find it for you.
Crust of the bisquit:
primary documentaion exists for KM.t as a community, ethnonym, and as an adjective for body parts
no primary documentation exists connecting the word km.t and any AEL word for land/soil, to my knowledge.
Having issued this challenge years ago without it ever being taken up I again request any layman or professional to produce any AE primary contextual documentation where land/soil is next to the word km.t Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: It is more then a simple google search. I just read YET another book about the Egyptian military in which the Egyptologist that wrote it refered to "Kemet-black land." You see it everywhere. I think the reference article is correct. radical afrocentrics have added this to their collection of historical myths. Trust me Sundjata, there are no linguistics experts on this board.
...Hey y'all, you know this guy sounds strikingly like ol' Horemhab who once was a regular poster here and who was also from Texas - the same negative, illogic and all - I mean, do you have to be a linguistic expert to know that "Oso Negro" in Spanish means "Black Bear" or that "Naku penda" in Swahili means "I love you" or that "Anok w Keme.t" in Mdu Ntr means "I am a Black(an "Egyptian")...sheesh
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I think Wally, that you have to be a linguistics expert IF you plan on challenging mainstream views on the subject.
Takruri, The fact that 'You' have issued your ideas on the subject is not good enough. All of these top egyptology departments teach the Egyptian language as part of their degrees. You guys are so fond of just making things up with crappy historical method it is my guess you are doing it on this issue as well. I'll check these departments early in the week but you and I both know what I am going to find. Perhaps they'll change their minds if I tell them you have spoken.
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: I think Wally, that you have to be a linguistics expert IF you plan on challenging mainstream views on the subject.
Takruri, The fact that 'You' have issued your ideas on the subject is not good enough. All of these top egyptology departments teach the Egyptian language as part of their degrees. You guys are so fond of just making things up with crappy historical method it is my guess you are doing it on this issue as well. I'll check these departments early in the week but you and I both know what I am going to find. Perhaps they'll change their minds if I tell them you have spoken.
Let's make your research easier:
1) go to the topic FYI: Notes on Some Essential Mdu Ntr words
2) scroll down to the view of the page from the Hieroglyphic Dictionary > "Kam"...
3) scroll down to find the glyph "Kammau" which Budge translates as "Egyptians"; note that the expression is usually written "Na Kammau" as Budge points out.
4) Ask your "Egyptological experts" to give you a *literal translation of the term "Na Kammau"
5) Find someone who is an 'expert' in Coptic (Sahidic) Egyptian and have them translate literally for you "Na Kmemou" (it's the same word as Kammau, ask your "Egyptological experts")
and please let us all know what you find...please
* literal translation: limited to the explicit meaning of a word or text
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I will do that. You may not know what you are doing Wally. They do not say it means land for no reason. Tenured professors do not just make things up, afro radicals often do.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by mentu: The argument is that kemet means 'black people' although euros maintain it means 'black land', however ancient kemetans used determinatives to indicate the exact meaning of words, and the word 'kemet' has no determinative of land,a drawing of a man and a woman is idicated.
For those who have a deeper knowledge of medu neter,where did euros get the land issue?
Is there any word in medu neter with indicating determinatives of land and people on the same word to indicate 'black people of the black land'.Hence euros clinging to this definition?
I will appreciate your input.
I think it means Land but you must keep in mind it doesn't mean that the land (ground) was black it could mean 'land of the blacks' or black land. Land is usually refer to the people who occupy the land so I think your analysis could be right, but I don't think kemet is translated to "black people". It is no difference in the bilbe when you read "All the land of Ethiopia" or "All of Israel" this usually refer to the land and people.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Whatbox: Everyone knows "kem" = "black". A "kem" cat would be a "black" one.
The contention today's mainstream European 'egyptomania' has is what the name of the state Km.t "signified".
Km = black
Km.t = black
.t denotes femininity and/or plurality
Km.t [nwt] (the name for the state of Dynastic Keme) = black community/city
Rm = man
yw = people
Rm.t = men
When
Km.t rm.tyw is written it means "ancient egyptians" or black men of men
Eurocentrics are right about it meaning black land but they are wrong about the context. Eurocentrics make the meaning of black land mean a ground that is dark, but that is not the context of the word black land. I can say "Europe is a white land", that does not mean that the ground or soil of Europe is white.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: really does not whatbox. If the egyptians would have been black they would have had no real awareness of it. It is not impossible for a black man in 2009 to think in the same terms as a man living 3000 years ago. Modern blacks are obsessed with their blackness. No other race of people today sees their personal identity wrapped up in their pigment the way modern blacks are inclined to do. It is very unlikely that the Egyptians, Persians, Nubians etc gave much thought at all to pigment.
Most accounts say the reference is to black soil.
The Egyptians were very aware of color. They were smart enough to color themselves brown and color the people to the "south" black, and color others pale. You can find awareness of color in the bible. Other groups are not reminded of their color or the way they look so it shouldn't be suprising that black people are so conscious of color and the way they look. It is because they live everyday being reminded of it.
Posted by Whatbox (Member # 10819) on :
quote:and please let us all know what you find...please
lmao
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: I do not argue with facts when I am presented with them. Ebony, if you were objective you would look at the subject from both sides. Why do people say it means "black soil?"
That is the lie by Eurocentrics though they are right about the meaning of kemet meaning black land, but it is not the soil the context of those words mean. Egypt actually was quite green and lush. They are aware that black land means land of the black.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: Mentu, to answer your question, the word for land is 'Ta' which I believe is indicated by a symbol for terrain. 'Kemet' of course has no determinative and instead shows people. As Whatbox correctly shows, the suffix 'et' is a feminine used for plurality of a people. Hence 'Rmt' means people in general but RtnaRmt means something like 'Men of men' (interestingly a title used by many African groups including in nearby Sudan) or 'Kmt' which means 'blacks' (black people).
People like the professor can talk about "land" or "soil" all they want but the Mdu-Neter is clear on the issue.
Thanks for explaining this, do you think the suffix 'et' means land as PEOPLE because in the bible the word land can refer to PEOPLE. I thought the suffix 'et' translate to land but the context means PEOPLE. In other words, to translate the word Kemet in English we would have to say 'Land of the Black' not black people. Does that make sense?
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Djehuti, After reading your post I did a quick run around the net. It appears that the reference to black land is correct. In fact one reference site noted that "black people" was an afrcentric view not shared by mainline scholars. When you get sucked into these radical groups this is the kind of distortion that takes place. You guys are wrong about almost everything. One faulty conclusion leads you two another.
Actually "black people" is not the way it would be translated. I think it would be translated "land of blacks" or "the land of the blacks". The word people is not needed so that could be a afrocentric thing but they are on the right track.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
not according to the experts in the field Betty.
You cannot establish a point by calling the experts in the field liars. That is bizarre, almost to the point of being crazy. They have no reason to lie.
Further, if you cannot convince the leading egyptologists something is true your point will be lost to humanity.
Posted by Yonis2 (Member # 11348) on :
quote:Originally posted by Bettyboo:
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: really does not whatbox. If the egyptians would have been black they would have had no real awareness of it. It is not impossible for a black man in 2009 to think in the same terms as a man living 3000 years ago. Modern blacks are obsessed with their blackness. No other race of people today sees their personal identity wrapped up in their pigment the way modern blacks are inclined to do. It is very unlikely that the Egyptians, Persians, Nubians etc gave much thought at all to pigment.
Most accounts say the reference is to black soil.
The Egyptians were very aware of color. They were smart enough to color themselves brown and color the people to the "south" black, and color others pale. You can find awareness of color in the bible. Other groups are not reminded of their color or the way they look so it shouldn't be suprising that black people are so conscious of color and the way they look. It is because they live everyday being reminded of it.
They were also smart enough to be aware and paint the shape of their limbs, does that mean they were obsessed by it?
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
Alas, the endless and repetitious meandering of the confused and ignorant mind that also assumes that everyone else here is equally dumb; the majority of folks here are intelligent, trust me. But it explains why these threads continue on and on without resolution. Now, I have personally provided both volumns of the Hieroglyphic dictionary (as well as presented samples here) and also Erman's Egyptian Grammar for folks here to study and for reference; but obviously these 'special' folks think that reading is somehow a quaint pastime or 'old school.'
How else do you explain, after providing so much reference material, that you get idiotic statements such as:
a) doesn't 'et' mean land as people? - no slow one, the "t" in "Kemet" is silent and only is there to indicate that the word is feminine; been explained here a thousand times.
b) the guy who talks about relying on so-called experts to explain words in a dictionary; can't read a book or is he hiding behind antiquated neo-colonial 'experts?' If this guy was a reader who was interested in Egypt, he would certainly be familiar with the book on the Peopling of Egypt symposium held in Cairo and how this one Egyptologist proclaimed to the gathering that "km" did not mean black! He was corrected of course, but that is tantamount to a professor of mathematics proclaiming that 2 + 2 = 6!
c) I already know what "Na Kammau" means, it means "These Blacks." I just wanted this ignorant person to hear it from an "official source." Dumb ass...
d) And let us not just focus on a single rendering of a word, where there has been interjected a false loophole. The beauty of language is in its explicit nature and the difficulty in altering its actual meaning...no amount of linguistic gymnastics is going to make 'padre' mean 'madre.'
There are other glyphs which self-describe the nationals of Ancient Egypt, we only need two of them: Kemut & Kammau (Kmemou)
It is important to point out that at the above mentioned symposium, where the same 'monoword' debate over "Kemet" and its meaning, one Egyptological expert argued that to say "Black people" in the Mdu Ntr, you would say "Kemu" - Well, we have "Kemu.t (determined by "Rome.t") Kammau, Kmemou, Kmomou are words of far less ambiguity than either Keme.t or Kemu.t. It is virtually impossible to tweak these words; Kammau (Blacks) is determined by 'Nu.t' which indicates 'an Egyptian community or settlement.
Because Kammau and Kemu.t are Mdu Ntr words that are virtually impossible to tweak, they are ignored, and focus placed on the more 'tweakable' - due to the century+ long repetition of the lie -"Kemet"
e) And rarely do we have a discussion of what these Africans called White folks - they, like most Africans everywhere, called them Red peoples... You know, like in Deshru.t, Deshretou which translates to Red devils, Red peoples, Horrible, Terrible, etc. It's all in the Hieroglyphic dictionary & Egyptian Grammar...! Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Indeed, this is just another case of 'the proof is in the pudding' with the pudding being the Egyptian language, Mdu-Neter itself!
There is no word for land or soil in Kmt. It's as simple as that.
Some people just refuse to listen.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
"the Egyptians divided their land between the lush Nile Valley, which they called Kemet (the black land) in reference to it's rich alluvial soil, and the desert, called deshret (the red land)." Page 4
Tutankhamun's Armies John Coleman Darnell and Colleen Manassa
Darnell PHD Yale Near Eastern Languages Manassa Yale Professor of Egyptology
Do we need to keep up this high school lesson or do you guys think it is time for you to lear how to do actual resaerch?
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Wally:
a) doesn't 'et' mean land as people? - no slow one, the "t" in "Kemet" is silent and only is there to indicate that the word is feminine; been explained here a thousand times.
What does the "t" has to do with whether land taking on the context as "people". What does the word being feminine has to do with whether the word land takes on the context of "People?"
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Indeed, this is just another case of 'the proof is in the pudding' with the pudding being the Egyptian language, Mdu-Neter itself!
There is no word for land or soil in Kmt. It's as simple as that.
How would those in Kmt express their land; the word soil refers to the ground or earth, but the word land can mean people unlike the word soil which cannot mean people.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Yonis2:
quote:Originally posted by Bettyboo:
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: really does not whatbox. If the egyptians would have been black they would have had no real awareness of it. It is not impossible for a black man in 2009 to think in the same terms as a man living 3000 years ago. Modern blacks are obsessed with their blackness. No other race of people today sees their personal identity wrapped up in their pigment the way modern blacks are inclined to do. It is very unlikely that the Egyptians, Persians, Nubians etc gave much thought at all to pigment.
Most accounts say the reference is to black soil.
The Egyptians were very aware of color. They were smart enough to color themselves brown and color the people to the "south" black, and color others pale. You can find awareness of color in the bible. Other groups are not reminded of their color or the way they look so it shouldn't be suprising that black people are so conscious of color and the way they look. It is because they live everyday being reminded of it.
They were also smart enough to be aware and paint the shape of their limbs, does that mean they were obsessed by it?
Egyptians seem like pretty arrogant obsessed people. They couldn't stop adorning themselves and emphasizing on looks, hair, and character. They were obsessed enough to keep painting damn near every activity they did. Egyptians were pretty narcissitic.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: not according to the experts in the field Betty.
You cannot establish a point by calling the experts in the field liars. That is bizarre, almost to the point of being crazy. They have no reason to lie.
Further, if you cannot convince the leading egyptologists something is true your point will be lost to humanity.
You people are so excited about Egyptians calling themselve "black people". I don't think the term is black "people" but black "land" in which can mean People as in the case of a nation. Kemet sounds more correct as black land or black nation not black "people" though that is the right track. In English it must be translated to "Land of Black(s)" or Nation of Black(s)", not "black people". I don't understand why you fanatics are not getting it.
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
What people fail to understand is that there is no word for Land in KM.T. It is translated as Black(s) this is one of the Major issues that Egyptologist try to cover up. They agree with Herodotus that Km.T means Black Land, yet when he says that Egyptians were also Black, then all of a sudden he is wrong. Teaching others the correct meaning of KM.T is important to drop the Ignorance.
Peace
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
Indeed, "Black Nation" seems to be the most fitting translation in reference to a place. Objectively (and I may be going against the grain here), I've come to see more evidence that it referred primarily to the proposed divinity of this said nation and their ancestors (i.e, Kemwer, ''the great black'') as opposed to being a reflection of skin tone. Why "Black" is considered divine or sacred is debatable but surely it has something to do with resurrection.
More importantly is who it applied to and how it identified kin ship.
quote:It is Piye's Year 3 Stele that preserves the earliest Napatan record of the kingship tradition of Gebel Barkal. Here he declares that "Amun of Napata granted me to be ruler of every foreign country," and "Amun in Thebes granted me to be ruler of the Black Land (Kmt)" (FHN I 57; Reisner 1931, 89). The twin Amuns of Barkal and Karnak are presented here as mutually supportive aspects of each other, each giving the king a vital portion of his kingship. Only one Amun, however, is shown in the lunette. This is the ram-headed god of Napata, whom the text says gave the king "every foreign country." Yet we see that he is the one handing the king two royal crowns and thus also giving him the kingship of "the Black Land." One crown is the Red Crown of Lower Egypt, and the other is the cap crown, which obviously had some meaning analogous to, but not quite identical with, the White Crown. Here Amun of Napata seems to be granting the gift ascribed to Amun of Thebes. We wonder if there is an inconsistency here, or if we are to understand that the two gods are really exactly the same and perform the same tasks. We also wonder what the king really means here by the terms "foreign countries" and "the Black Land." Does the Red Crown of Lower Egypt symbolize "foreign countries"? Does the cap crown symbolize "Kemet"? **"Kemet", in this case, would have to be understood here as a united Nubia and Upper Egypt**. By the time of Harsiotef, "Kemet" had come to mean Kush (FHN II 446).
- Timothy Kendall
Thus, we can understand Km.t as conforming more so to geopolitics than soil. The so-called black soil didn't just up and disappear from lower Egypt when the Assyrians conquered it, it was simply labeled foreign because of that action. Kush on the other hand, is Km.t because they and Upper Egypt were a united polity. The Upper Egyptians embraced the Kushites as liberators and brothers under Ammon, while the Assyrians were foreign invaders from the red [or evil] country. Had nothing to do with red soil, as demonstrated with Seth [Egyptian god of evil] worship being associated with Asiatics.
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
obtuse:
obtuse: dense: slow to learn or understand; lacking intellectual acuity
obtusely - dumbly: in a stupid manner
obtuseness - dullness: the quality of being slow to understand
Someone who is “obtuse” is “annoyingly sensitive or slow to understand”
Some examples of obtuseness on this topic:
quote:What does the "t" (in Keme.t) has to do with whether land taking on the context as "people". What does the word being feminine has to do with whether the word land takes on the context of "People?"
After Djehuti patiently explains that there is no determinative in the word Kmt that has anything to do with soil (To, Eiten, etc...)
quote:How would those in Kmt express their land; the word soil refers to the ground or earth, but the word land can mean people unlike the word soil which cannot mean people.
??? You mean, TaMeri - "My beloved land" isn't good enough? What Djehuti was trying to explain to slow folk like this is that Black Land would be written Kmt (determinative: "To") and not as it is written Kmt (determinative: "Nu" - Community, Nation)...
quote:You people are so excited about Egyptians calling themselves "black people". I don't think the term is black "people" but black "land" in which can mean People as in the case of a nation. Kemet sounds more correct as black land or black nation not black "people" though that is the right track. In English it must be translated to "Land of Black(s)" or Nation of Black(s)", not "black people". I don't understand why you fanatics are not getting it.
...the correct term to describe the majority of the folks on this forum would be intelligent, or learned, and NOT fanatics... another word that comes to mind to describe the folks here is bright which is the opposite of dim; and dim is a synonym for obtuse..
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Move beyond secondary school to university where we apply critical analysis to deconstruct past errors not based on primary documentation from the subjects themselves.
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: "the Egyptians divided their land between the lush Nile Valley, which they called Kemet (the black land) in reference to it's rich alluvial soil, and the desert, called deshret (the red land)." Page 4
Tutankhamun's Armies John Coleman Darnell and Colleen Manassa
Darnell PHD Yale Near Eastern Languages Manassa Yale Professor of Egyptology
Do we need to keep up this high school lesson or do you guys think it is time for you to lear how to do actual resaerch?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
The Kemetian Liquistics thread was last seen 20 December 2004 and is unlocatable in the archive however I found it here. It's far too valuable to become lost. Let's try to save it somehow before it gets axed!!
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted 07 December 2004 10:21 PM
CHEIKH ANTA DIOP Parenté génétique de l'égyptien pharaonique et des langues négro-africaines Dakar: IFAN-NEA, 1977
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted in full on 08 December 2004 01:19 PM
The pages from Diop show seven usages of KM.t and km.t in words for people.
. . . .
Diop didnt do the translation. The translation comes from two European sources, one German the other French, they being 1. the Worterbuch der Agyptischen Sprache and 2. the Prolegomenes a letude de la religion egyptienne.
. . . .
The determinatives seated man and\or seated woman mean people.
. . . .
In direct literal translation km.t.nwt means black nation, where the root km (black) is an adjective suffixed by t which makes km.t a feminine noun whose meaning 'black nation' is indicated by the determinative nwt. Since km.t.nwt is a noun it can't be an adjective referring to the color of soil since no determinative for soil is given. When km.t.nwt is literally translated as the black land, the word land can only mean 'country' in the sense of 'nation.' If land in the sense of soil was meant, the word ta would precede km.t, something I have yet to see in a mdw ntr text.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted in full on 08 December 2004 02:54 PM
Please translate the following usages of km.t and show how nation rather than people is meant.
KM.t.rmt&st| ||
km.t.yw.rmt| ||
st.st KM.t.shnt
Please study elementary hieroglyphics and Kmtyw vocabulary before trying to comment on them.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted 09 December 2004 04:09 PM
This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t also appears with other determinatives and not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted 10 December 2004 12:24 PM
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
Why would Egyptians call themselves the land of the blacks when they depicted the people south of them as being much darker than they were? Wouldn't they more than likely refer to the people of the south as being the Land of the blacks before they would themselves?
Most Egyptian art depicts them as having reddish brown skin. Reddish brown is exactly the color that skin turns when it is dyed with henna. Henna is an effective sunblocker and the Egyptians used it to dye hair, nails and skin. If there were fair skinned people living in Egypt, henna would have been an ideal thing to use against the sun.
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
Another thing that seems illogical to me. Alot of afrocentrists claim that all of North Africa, the Middle East, Greece and of course areas to the south had all black people. If this were true, than why would the Egyptians specifically refer to themselves as the land of the blacks?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Col4: k-m.tnwt d-sh-r.tnwt AKH [Black community. Red community.
Col5: (+kh)scroll n t-nplural HQA.wplural RA [Beatification to ye subjects (of) Ra!
The "four types" -- or better, the "subjects of Ra" -- scene depicts the sun in the 5th night hour with Heru addressing the dead. He verbally divides them into the blacks (Nile Valley folk, i.e., Egyptians and Nehesis) under his protection, and the reds (folk dwelling east or west of the Nile) under Sekhet's protection.
Heru is addressing all four types, first with a general intro to the entire party of the afterlife dead (who died that day) still in their shrouds. He "beatifies" them, reanimates them with "spirit" (breath/wind), and releases them from their shrouds. Then after all that he addresses each group in turn speaking of the origins of their creation and assigning their "patron" deity. First the RT RMTW and then in from sunrise to sunset order the AAMW, NHHSW, and TMHHW .
The NWT ideogram means neither 'people' nor 'land.' This has been explained a few times already and there's a post in the archive with the subject header "KMT NWT" detailing this. The glyph depicts a crossroads indicating a village or city, i.e. a settlement or habitation. thus the use of it to mean 'community' in its broad application for the corpus of the dead. It always appears as the determinative following the name of a city.
You see alTakruri, after your painstaking representaion of factual evidence; one which I think is brilliant on your part, you get that followup response from an appropriately named poster "Simple girl" ...
obtuse:
obtuse: dense: slow to learn or understand; lacking intellectual acuity
obtusely - dumbly: in a stupid manner
obtuseness - dullness: the quality of being slow to understand
Someone who is “obtuse” is “annoyingly sensitive or slow to understand”
Fortunately, these flakey few are just noisy & bothersome, and they don't have a clue as to how this forum's members have changed so progressively since we both began posting here a few years back...
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Excellent exposé Takruri. I would have done the same if I had the resource to find all these past postings from past threads with the same discussion.
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
quote:Originally posted by Wally: You see alTakruri, after your painstaking representaion of factual evidence; one which I think is brilliant on your part, you get that followup response from an appropriately named poster "Simple girl" ...
obtuse:
obtuse: dense: slow to learn or understand; lacking intellectual acuity
obtusely - dumbly: in a stupid manner
obtuseness - dullness: the quality of being slow to understand
Someone who is “obtuse” is “annoyingly sensitive or slow to understand”
Fortunately, these flakey few are just noisy & bothersome, and they don't have a clue as to how this forum's members have changed so progressively since we both began posting here a few years back...
Are you suggesting that the Egyptians never used henna to dye their skin?
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Why would Egyptians call themselves the land of the blacks when they depicted the people south of them as being much darker than they were? Wouldn't they more than likely refer to the people of the south as being the Land of the blacks before they would themselves?
Again 'black' as the Egyptians referred to themselves is NOT about actual complexion so much as a sacred religous concept that associates the color with the divine. Such a concept is actually widespread in Africa. The Egyptians revered the color for another reason. Unlike cultures of the Near-East and especially those of Europe, black did not embody the negative or bad like death, sorrow, evil, dirty, ugly, etc. On the contrary, it represented positive aspects, in particular it embodied the most sacred belief of the Egyptians which is that of re-birth and regeneration.
Many Egyptologists and early scholars made the mistake of taking the black painted statues and images of many tombs in into their own Western cultural concepts, and thought that they were simply "funerary" images of the "deceased." Many of these statues are actually representations of the ba, which is a spiritual aspect essential for the after-life, thus these statues don't represent death but life.
Aahotep
Ahmose-Nefertari
Ba-statue of Tut
Two images of Tut, one being reborn
I remember Horemheb taking Wally's findings as a joke that the Egyptians saw themselves as being "under a black god." But in actuality this could very well be what the Egyptians believed in! Many early gods were depicted in the color black, again to symbolize the gods' powers of re-birth and regeneration, especially gods like Osiris and Isis. Even certain royals had the privilege to be represented in art as having a black color, whenever they are thought to attain a spiritual power or divine status.
Ausar Kemwer (Osiris the Great Black)
This belief system of the color black being sacred is actually widespread throughout Africa, especially East and Central Africa. For example, in Kenya the Masai people worship their supreme god called Lengai or N'gai, who they call the Black God. Lengai, is opposed by an evil god of chaos who, interestingly enough, is called the red god! The Oromo's supreme god is Waaka who is also called Waaka Guuracha, which means Black God. Many of these peoples relate the black color to the color of the storm coulds that give rain, and to the soil that is rich and fertile. Since Egypt has not had any rain since Neolithic times, it was the soil of the banks of the Nile that expresses the gods' life-giving powers. Which is most likely derived the very term 'Kemet' which means Black-Land as in the whole country not just soil. The Egyptians called themselves the people of the black (divine) land, and to further express their connection to the divine, would even call themselves 'Kemui'/'Kem-au'(Black People). Again the name had nothing to do with skin color but was symbolical and spiritual.
quote:Most Egyptian art depicts them as having reddish brown skin. Reddish brown is exactly the color that skin turns when it is dyed with henna. Henna is an effective sunblocker and the Egyptians used it to dye hair, nails and skin. If there were fair skinned people living in Egypt, henna would have been an ideal thing to use against the sun.
LOL Incorrect! The Egyptians never dyed their skins with henna but only their gray hairs when old! Reddish-brown was actually a common and natural complexion not only among Egyptians but many black Africans. Remember, black peoples vary in complexion and are not just ebony black in complexion!
Africans with reddish-brown complexions
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Are you suggesting that the Egyptians never used henna to dye their skin?
You - and do you really believe that the Ancient Egyptians used henna as a sun-blocker for their "fair" Nordic skins? - should be aware that Africans in Ancient Egypt and throughout the continent have used henna for millenniums:
quote: Henna painting is an ancient form of body art still practiced in Africa. The artist makes a paste from the leaves of the henna plant, and uses the paste to create designs on a person’s hands and feet. Both males and females wear henna designs during important events in their lives, like marriage, and initiation into adult-hood. In Sudan, the bride is decorat- ed with henna as part of her wedding preparations. The designs are thought to bring good luck and wealth to the wearer
But really, you should take the time to read the above postings by alTakruri. It may be painful at first to be confronted with this factual evidence, but it will inevitably be for your good... Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Indeed. I find it funny how she even came up with such a claim, especially when there is NO evidence of Egyptians using sunblock let alone henna as one! The Egyptians specifically used henna to dye gray hairs or as body art on their hands and feet which is a common custom in Africa!
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Another thing that seems illogical to me. Alot of afrocentrists claim that all of North Africa, the Middle East, Greece and of course areas to the south had all black people. If this were true, than why would the Egyptians specifically refer to themselves as the land of the blacks?
Again, they never referred to their country as "land" of blacks but simply blacks or black nation! And again it was not such much about skin color as it was spiritual beliefs about the color black!
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Wally
Let's take this to the academic stage
Xfer your stuff from here where it's on lockdown over to this thread.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
DJ
You can't let some simple girl take your mind and have you chasing after chit chat nonsense. Make her produce primary documentation like the kind I gave and she can't dispute outside of her own personal opinion bereft of any scholarly level.
Keep it academic son!
Posted by Israel (Member # 11221) on :
Wally,
Thanks for the information. I don't know hieroglyphics(not yet), but a Dinka friend of mine told me that the Dinka, in their language, call themselves 'men of men'. It appears to be similar to the 'Ret na Rome - We Men above mankind', isn't it?
quote:Originally posted by Wally: Catechism: "The Egyptians called their country Kemet or Black after the color of the soil."
Western Egyptology contrived this deception from Herodotus, “Egypt is a land of black soil…We know that Libya is a redder earth.” (Herodotus, The History, book 2:12); conveniently ignoring the fact that he also mentioned that the Egyptian people were black as well. So, to anyone not familiar with the Ancient Egyptian language, this "Kemet = black soil" may seem plausible. It is not.
Here's the Mdu Ntr - Understanding Kmt
Km (to be black) used as an adjective km;kmem;kmom - black kemu - black (m) keme.t - black (f) > hime.t keme.t - "black woman" > himu.t keme.t - "black women"
Km used as a noun keme.t - any black person, place, or thing A determinative is used in order to be more specific keme.t (woman) - "the Black woman"; ie, 'divine woman' keme.t (cow) - "a Black cow" - ie, a 'sacred cow' kem - a black one (m) keme.t - a black one (f) kemu - black ones (m) kemu.t - black ones (f) kemeti - two black ones
Used as Nationality (literally): Sa Kemet - a man of Black (an Egyptian male) Sa.t Kemet - a woman of Black (an Egyptian female) Rome.t Kemet - the people of Black (Egyptians) Kemetou - Blacks (ie, 'citizens') Kememou - Black people of Black
Noun/Adjectives of Nationality Kemetu - Black's peoples (Egyptian citizens) Kmemu - Black people (the Egyptian people) Resu - Southern people (Upper Egyptians) Ret - The Men [Rot - men] - a shorthand writing - pronounced 'Rome' Ret na Rome - We Men above mankind [Rome - men;mankind] Rome n Keme - Men of Black ("Egyptians") TaMeru - Land of the Inundation people (Egyptians) Tawiu - The Two Lands people (Egyptian) [Ta;to - land]
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
This idea that the Egyptians depicted themselves as black still doesn't hold water with me. Like I said, why would they depict themselves as having reddish to reddish brown skin and call themselves the land of the blacks when there were much darker people to the south? I mean black is black. If they were a lighter skin tone than the people to the south,than they wouldn't have called themselves black. They clearly depicted the people to the south as having black skin.
Most scholars will agree with me on this. I don't care which way you try to interpret it, the Egyptians didn't see themselves as black or they would have shown it in their art.
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
Even your own source here shows that the Egyptians didn't think of themselves as black.
Posted by Israel (Member # 11221) on :
Simple Girl,
Please remember that many, very many, African Americans have the exact same color as the Egyptians above. Does that mean that African-Americans aren't black?
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ First of all, being black does NOT mean one must have an ebony or coal dark complexion!! Being 'black' simply means having very dark skin and black people vary in complexion.
quote:Originally posted by zarahan: Definitions of black from the dictionary
Obviously the ancient Egyptians were dark brown in complexion which is STILL considered 'black' today!
Second of all, AGAIN their reference to themselves as 'black' was NOT about actual skin complexion so much about their association with the divine and sacrity of the color black itself!
Or did you not read anything I posted above??!
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Simple Girl you are only lying to yourself if you do not consider peoples of reddish-brown as in mahogany to dark-brown as in chocolate complexions as 'black'!
Are you saying all these Egyptian royals don't appear black to you??
???
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Do you not consider all these living Africans below as 'black'??
Posted by Brada-Anansi (Member # 16371) on :
I am not saying they the Kemities did, but the Massai,Hemba,and many others did used Red Ochre on their skins.weither they did or not they like the Hemba and the Massai are still Blacks.
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
KEMET
A comprehensive list of the structure and usages of perhaps the most significant word in the Ancient Egyptian language. All of these words can be found in "An Egyptian Hieroglyphic Dictionary" by E. A. Wallis Budge, Dover, NY
Used as an adjective kem;kemem;kemom - black kemu - black (m) keme.t - black (f) hime.t keme.t - "black woman" (woman of Black) himu.t keme.t - "black women" (women of Black)
Used as a noun keme.t - any black person, place, or thing A determinative is then used to be more specific: keme.t (woman) - "the Black woman"; ie, 'divine woman' keme.t (cow) - "a Black cow" - ie, a 'sacred cow' Keme.t (nation) - "the Black nation" kem - a black one (m) keme.t - a black one (f) kemu - black ones (m) kemu.t - black ones (f) kemeti - two black ones
Used for Nationality Sa Kemet - a man of Black (an Egyptian male) Sa.t Kemet - a woman of Black (an Egyptian female) Rome.t Kemet - the people of Black (Egyptians) Kemetou - Blacks (ie, 'citizens') Kememou - Black people (of the Black nation)
Other usages Sa Kem - "Black man", a god, and son of Sa.t Kem.t - "Black woman", a goddess (page 589b) kem (papyrus) - to end, complete kem.t (papyrus) - the end, completion kemi - finished products kem khet (stick) - jet black kemwer - any Egyptian person, place or thing ('to be black' + 'to be great') Kemwer - "The Great Black" - a title of Osiris - the Ancestor of the race Kemwer (body of water) - "the Great Black sea" - the Red sea Kemwer (body of water + river bank) - a lake in the Duat (the OtherWorld) Kemwer Nteri - "the sacred great Black bulls" kemwer (fortress) - a fort or town Kemwer (water) - the god of the great Black lake Kem Amut - a black animal goddess Kemi.t-Weri.t - "the great Black woman", a goddess Kem-Neb-Mesen.t - a lion god Kem ho - "black face", a title of the crocodile Rerek kem; kemu (shield) - buckler, shield kem (wood) - black wood kem.t (stone) - black stone or powder kem.tt (plant) - a plant kemu (seed) - seeds or fruit of the kem plant kemti - "black image", sacred image or statue
Using the causative "S" S_kemi - white haired, grey-headed man (ie, to have lost blackness) S_kemkem - to destroy, overthrow, annihilate S_kemem - to blacken, to defile
Antonyms S_desher - to redden, make ruddy S_desheru - red things, bloody wounds
Some interesting Homonyms (pages 770 > ) ḳem - to behave in a seemly manner ḳemi - the south, Upper Egypt ḳem.t - reed, papyrus ḳemaa - to throw a boomerang ḳem_au - to overthrow ḳemam.t - mother, parent ḳemamu - workers (in metal, wood) ḳemḳem - tambourines ḳemd - to weep ḳemati - statue, image - same as kemti ḳema - to create ḳemaiu - created beings ḳemau;ḳemamu - The Creator
Deshret - the opposite of Kemet deshr.t - any red (ie, non-Black) person, place, or thing deshr.t (woman) - "the Red woman"; ie, 'evil woman' deshr.t (cow) - "a Red cow" - ie, the 'devil's cow' deshr - a red one (m) deshr.t - a red one (f) deshru - red ones (m) deshru.t - red ones (f) -- White or light-skinned people; devils deshreti - two red ones
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Wally Please repost complete with photocopy pages from the source.
Everyone The goal is not to convince simple girl or anyone else. The goal is to provide proofs from the AEs themselves as to their colour designation.
To that end we have presented plenty of evidence for black. No one has presented primary documentation for any other colour identity.
Motion properly moved and seconded. All in favor signify by saying aye. Aye (x ad infinitum). Motion carried. The blacks have it.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Takruri, What is it like going through life with your head in a cloud. It is black land, it is not black people and that is the way it is going to stay. The specialists in the field understand the data better than you and Wally do, obviously you are making a mistake of some kind.
But thats OK, even though this subject has long ago been decided perhaps you will have more time to plan your african attack on the middle east.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Col4: k-m.tnwt d-sh-r.tnwt AKH [Black community. Red community.
Col5: (+kh)scroll n t-nplural HQA.wplural RA [Beatification to ye subjects (of) Ra!
The "four types" -- or better, the "subjects of Ra" -- scene depicts the sun in the 5th night hour with Heru addressing the dead. He verbally divides them into the blacks (Nile Valley folk, i.e., Egyptians and Nehesis) under his protection, and the reds (folk dwelling east or west of the Nile) under Sekhet's protection.
Heru is addressing all four types, first with a general intro to the entire party of the afterlife dead (who died that day) still in their shrouds. He "beatifies" them, reanimates them with "spirit" (breath/wind), and releases them from their shrouds. Then after all that he addresses each group in turn speaking of the origins of their creation and assigning their "patron" deity. First the RT RMTW and then in from sunrise to sunset order the AAMW, NHHSW, and TMHHW .
The NWT ideogram means neither 'people' nor 'land.' This has been explained a few times already and there's a post in the archive with the subject header "KMT NWT" detailing this. The glyph depicts a crossroads indicating a village or city, i.e. a settlement or habitation. Thus the use of it to mean 'community' in its broad application for the corpus of the dead. It always appears as the determinative following the name of a city.
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Takruri, What is it like going through life with your head in a cloud. It is black land, it is not black people and that is the way it is going to stay. The specialists in the field understand the data better than you and Wally do, obviously you are making a mistake of some kind.
But thats OK, even though this subject has long ago been decided perhaps you will have more time to plan your african attack on the middle east.
Yeah, I'm almost certain now; this has got to be that idiot "Horemhab" or his neo-Nazi clone. He is, like "Simple girl," someone who has wandered in from the streets to interject himself into the discussion, but rarely posits any information whatsoever - merely blabbers nonsense...he is, without doubt a "conservative Republican"; a euphemism for reactionary racist and probably feels a kinship with, say, the old defeated Brit soldiers of Used-to-be-Rhodesia or with his American compatriots who took a shellacking in the Presidential election - his kind of thinking is moribund...
alTakruri, Djehuti, The Gaul, Dr. Winters, yours truly, and others here have always presented concrete factual evidence to support our views, facts culled from experts throughout the disciplines that we address; and idiots like "Horemhab," don't even bother to read the documentation - they don't want to be confused by facts - and their biggest and most child-like antic is to pretend that the evidence that we put forth is merely our opinions rather than the works of countless experts in the field.
The following are some of the expert sources that have stated the fact that the Ancient Egyptians were Black folks
The Ancient Egyptians themselves
Herodotus
Aristotle
Lucian
Apollodorus
Aeschylus
Strabo
Diodorus of Sicily
Diogenes Laertius
Ammanius Marcellinus
Count Constatine de Volney
Marius Fontanes - "Les Egyptes"
EW Budge (finally, reluctantly) - "Keeper of the Egyptian and Assyrian Antiquities, British Museum"
Professor C.A. Diop
Professor Theophile Obenga
The Christian Bible
The Kebra Nagast (Ethiopian bible)
The Tanakh (Torah)
The Koran
...
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Baron Dominique-Vivant Denon (engraver of Napoleon's expedition)
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
nonsense wally? that I ask you to show me where the specialists in the field have accepted your silly theories and you call that nonsense?
If you walked into an Egyptology seminar made up of top scholars and presented this stupid racist stuff you put out they would ask you to leave. I have backed up my points with testimony from top scholars, all you have is Djehuti and Takruri.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted 07 December 2004 10:21 PM
CHEIKH ANTA DIOP Parenté génétique de l'égyptien pharaonique et des langues négro-africaines Dakar: IFAN-NEA, 1977
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted in full on 08 December 2004 01:19 PM
The pages from Diop show seven usages of KM.t and km.t in words for people.
. . . .
Diop didnt do the translation. The translation comes from two European sources, one German the other French, they being 1. the Worterbuch der Agyptischen Sprache and 2. the Prolegomenes a letude de la religion egyptienne.
. . . .
The determinatives seated man and\or seated woman mean people.
. . . .
In direct literal translation km.t.nwt means black nation, where the root km (black) is an adjective suffixed by t which makes km.t a feminine noun whose meaning 'black nation' is indicated by the determinative nwt. Since km.t.nwt is a noun it can't be an adjective referring to the color of soil since no determinative for soil is given. When km.t.nwt is literally translated as the black land, the word land can only mean 'country' in the sense of 'nation.' If land in the sense of soil was meant, the word ta would precede km.t, something I have yet to see in a mdw ntr text.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted in full on 08 December 2004 02:54 PM
Please translate the following usages of km.t and show how nation rather than people is meant.
KM.t.rmt&st| ||
km.t.yw.rmt| ||
st.st KM.t.shnt
Please study elementary hieroglyphics and Kmtyw vocabulary before trying to comment on them.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted 09 December 2004 04:09 PM
This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t also appears with other determinatives and not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
give it up Takruri, nobody outside of the goofball asylum accepts your silly theories. Kemet means black land. You do not have the academic skills to correctly use that information.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Originally posted 10 December 2004 12:24 PM
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Col4: k-m.t{nwt} d-sh-r.t{nwt} AKH [Black community. Red community.
Col5: (+kh){scroll} n t-n{plural} HQA.w{plural} RA [Beatification to ye subjects (of) Ra!
The "four types" -- or better, the "subjects of Ra" -- scene depicts the sun in the 5th night hour with Heru addressing the dead. He verbally divides them into the blacks (Nile Valley folk, i.e., Egyptians and Nehesis) under his protection, and the reds (folk dwelling east or west of the Nile) under Sekhet's protection.
Heru is addressing all four types, first with a general intro to the entire party of the afterlife dead (who died that day) still in their shrouds. He "beatifies" them, reanimates them with "spirit" (breath/wind), and releases them from their shrouds. Then after all that he addresses each group in turn speaking of the origins of their creation and assigning their "patron" deity. First the RT RMTW and then in from sunrise to sunset order the AAMW, NHHSW, and TMHHW .
The NWT ideogram means neither 'people' nor 'land.' This has been explained a few times already and there's a post in the archive with the subject header "KMT NWT" detailing this. The glyph depicts a crossroads indicating a village or city, i.e. a settlement or habitation. thus the use of it to mean 'community' in its broad application for the corpus of the dead. It always appears as the determinative following the name of a city.
OK genius, you tell me why top Egyptologist as well as linguistics experts do not agree with you. Don't just keep posting crap you do not understand.
If you wrote a paper for an Egyptology class they would demand that you cite top scholars just as I have asked you to do. You are not too old to learn.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Of course I understand it. This is my original work. That's why it's copyrighted as intellectual property.
What's obvious is it's beyond you mental abilities to comprehend any of my preceding posts.
Verbatim cut & paste of others' work is simple secondary school level reporting. That is the level of education you have.
Those of us who've attained higher learning use primary documentation then we apply skills such as linguistics to arrive at independently thought out original material. This makes our professors proud not the baby level of parrotting which you relish so much.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
Great work alTakuri. It's all too obvious that the allusion to "land" is completely non-existent. A person who chooses to inject that which is not there are, of course doing that according to his/her own prerogative but this has no bearing on the very simple rules of grammar and semantics set fourth. Until anyone can show where there's a determinative for land in Km.t, I'll consider those who expound that view to be misinformed hacks who base this belief on nothing more than repetition from other hacks.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You have no higher learning nor do you have a terminal degree in ancient languages. You write like an idelogue. No trained scholar woiuld even begin to make the assumptions you make. If you were a scholar you would have posted the specialists I asked for to back up your points and specialists I could contact to verify your work. It is just baloney Takruri and you simply make this crap up.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Thank you. Yes I do synthesis after decades of diligent study and research in a multitude of disciplines relative to the field of Africana.
You however are littleo better than a donkey carrying a load of books.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
^@AP.. Why should one need to cite an English specialist to simply verify the meaning of a text one has read in English? Surely your irrational appeals to false authority are merely red herrings. Your problem is that you don't think for yourself, hence "those who expound that view to be misinformed hacks who base this belief on nothing more than repetition from other hacks".
You drown in your own drool of retardation.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Horemheb/the Professor/Arrow/AmericanPatriot/etc. knows that heknows not. He's been around ever since this board started. His aim is not to discuss or debate but simply to bury posts that set a paradigm in oppostion to 19th century European cultural history on Africana.
I will not allow him his aim. I will see that I have the last round no matter how many times I must repost the exact same contributions.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
you call me names because you REFUSE to properly cite your work? You know I am right , you have been exposed. We are not talking about the 19th century, another error on your part. We are talking about modern present day scholarship. NOW, give me the Egyptologist that support your work, I have posted mine....where are yours?
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Sundjata: Indeed, "Black Nation" seems to be the most fitting translation in reference to a place. Objectively (and I may be going against the grain here), I've come to see more evidence that it referred primarily to the proposed divinity of this said nation and their ancestors (i.e, Kemwer, ''the great black'') as opposed to being a reflection of skin tone. Why "Black" is considered divine or sacred is debatable but surely it has something to do with resurrection.
More importantly is who it applied to and how it identified kin ship.
quote:It is Piye's Year 3 Stele that preserves the earliest Napatan record of the kingship tradition of Gebel Barkal. Here he declares that "Amun of Napata granted me to be ruler of every foreign country," and "Amun in Thebes granted me to be ruler of the Black Land (Kmt)" (FHN I 57; Reisner 1931, 89). The twin Amuns of Barkal and Karnak are presented here as mutually supportive aspects of each other, each giving the king a vital portion of his kingship. Only one Amun, however, is shown in the lunette. This is the ram-headed god of Napata, whom the text says gave the king "every foreign country." Yet we see that he is the one handing the king two royal crowns and thus also giving him the kingship of "the Black Land." One crown is the Red Crown of Lower Egypt, and the other is the cap crown, which obviously had some meaning analogous to, but not quite identical with, the White Crown. Here Amun of Napata seems to be granting the gift ascribed to Amun of Thebes. We wonder if there is an inconsistency here, or if we are to understand that the two gods are really exactly the same and perform the same tasks. We also wonder what the king really means here by the terms "foreign countries" and "the Black Land." Does the Red Crown of Lower Egypt symbolize "foreign countries"? Does the cap crown symbolize "Kemet"? **"Kemet", in this case, would have to be understood here as a united Nubia and Upper Egypt**. By the time of Harsiotef, "Kemet" had come to mean Kush (FHN II 446).
- Timothy Kendall
Thus, we can understand Km.t as conforming more so to geopolitics than soil. The so-called black soil didn't just up and disappear from lower Egypt when the Assyrians conquered it, it was simply labeled foreign because of that action. Kush on the other hand, is Km.t because they and Upper Egypt were a united polity. The Upper Egyptians embraced the Kushites as liberators and brothers under Ammon, while the Assyrians were foreign invaders from the red [or evil] country. Had nothing to do with red soil, as demonstrated with Seth [Egyptian god of evil] worship being associated with Asiatics.
Black Nation would be in reference to people not a place. The word Nation is practically always a people, though in minute cases it can be a territory, yet a territory of a particular "nation." For instance, Antartica is not a nation. "Places" that are uninhabitated or doesn't have a common people with the same language, same tribe/ethnic group, or same culture can't be a nation.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Wally: obtuse:
obtuse: dense: slow to learn or understand; lacking intellectual acuity
obtusely - dumbly: in a stupid manner
obtuseness - dullness: the quality of being slow to understand
Someone who is “obtuse” is “annoyingly sensitive or slow to understand”
Some examples of obtuseness on this topic:
quote:What does the "t" (in Keme.t) has to do with whether land taking on the context as "people". What does the word being feminine has to do with whether the word land takes on the context of "People?"
After Djehuti patiently explains that there is no determinative in the word Kmt that has anything to do with soil (To, Eiten, etc...)
quote:How would those in Kmt express their land; the word soil refers to the ground or earth, but the word land can mean people unlike the word soil which cannot mean people.
??? You mean, TaMeri - "My beloved land" isn't good enough? What Djehuti was trying to explain to slow folk like this is that Black Land would be written Kmt (determinative: "To") and not as it is written Kmt (determinative: "Nu" - Community, Nation)...
quote:You people are so excited about Egyptians calling themselves "black people". I don't think the term is black "people" but black "land" in which can mean People as in the case of a nation. Kemet sounds more correct as black land or black nation not black "people" though that is the right track. In English it must be translated to "Land of Black(s)" or Nation of Black(s)", not "black people". I don't understand why you fanatics are not getting it.
...the correct term to describe the majority of the folks on this forum would be intelligent, or learned, and NOT fanatics... another word that comes to mind to describe the folks here is bright which is the opposite of dim; and dim is a synonym for obtuse..
The "t" as being silent or feminine doesn't have anything to do with whether the word means 'Land'. This is one case where I believe the Eurocentrics got it right, but got the context wrong while the Afrocentrics got the context right but the word wrong. The people in this forum are FANATICS.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by KING: What people fail to understand is that there is no word for Land in KM.T. It is translated as Black(s) this is one of the Major issues that Egyptologist try to cover up. They agree with Herodotus that Km.T means Black Land, yet when he says that Egyptians were also Black, then all of a sudden he is wrong. Teaching others the correct meaning of KM.T is important to drop the Ignorance.
Peace
Bull, there must be a word for 'land' (area, ground, earth, territory, country) in "KMT". If they didn't have a 'word' they damn sure had "expressions", probably components of other words to express "land"
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Yes they are fanatics. they just hunt around for any and everything they can find to build up their pre concieved notions. Doesn't matter if it is accurate or not as long as they can somehow twist it into place. It is just wasted lives as none of this stuff will ever stick.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
quote:Black Nation would be in reference to people not a place. The word Nation is practically always a people, though in minute cases it can be a territory, yet a territory of a particular "nation." For instance, Antartica is not a nation. "Places" that are uninhabitated or doesn't have a common people with the same language, same tribe/ethnic group, or same culture can't be a nation.
It's in reference to a place of people, a community, the glyph associated with it was cited but I guess you missed it.
quote:Originally posted by Bettyboo:
quote:Originally posted by KING: What people fail to understand is that there is no word for Land in KM.T. It is translated as Black(s) this is one of the Major issues that Egyptologist try to cover up. They agree with Herodotus that Km.T means Black Land, yet when he says that Egyptians were also Black, then all of a sudden he is wrong. Teaching others the correct meaning of KM.T is important to drop the Ignorance.
Peace
Bull, there must be a word for 'land' (area, ground, earth, territory, country) in "KMT". If they didn't have a 'word' they damn sure had "expressions", probably components of other words to express "land"
The word for Land is "Ta", hence Ta-seti (land of the Bow).. Point out where this is in Km.t.. This has been explained before but I guess that you missed that too.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Why would Egyptians call themselves the land of the blacks when they depicted the people south of them as being much darker than they were? Wouldn't they more than likely refer to the people of the south as being the Land of the blacks before they would themselves?
Most Egyptian art depicts them as having reddish brown skin. Reddish brown is exactly the color that skin turns when it is dyed with henna. Henna is an effective sunblocker and the Egyptians used it to dye hair, nails and skin. If there were fair skinned people living in Egypt, henna would have been an ideal thing to use against the sun.
The people south of them was painted black because they were literally "black" in color. No difference than the black people of Nilotic origins. Or the many black people you can find in Senegal and Gambia. The Egyptians weren't "reddish" brown, they were just brown some more darker than others but brown and not black. Black expresses either the acutally color black or any "dark" color. If I would color myself compare to someone black like a Sudanese, I would color myself brown and the Sudanese black, that wouldn't stop my nation or "land" from being black.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Another thing that seems illogical to me. Alot of afrocentrists claim that all of North Africa, the Middle East, Greece and of course areas to the south had all black people. If this were true, than why would the Egyptians specifically refer to themselves as the land of the blacks?
This is untrue. Most parts of North Africa wasn't even inhabited and Greece was not black. When Afrocentrist talk about these places as once being black they are talking about the adam & eve days because they are certainly not speaking of when the world was separated and had different tribes and languages.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Sundjata:
quote:Black Nation would be in reference to people not a place. The word Nation is practically always a people, though in minute cases it can be a territory, yet a territory of a particular "nation." For instance, Antartica is not a nation. "Places" that are uninhabitated or doesn't have a common people with the same language, same tribe/ethnic group, or same culture can't be a nation.
It's in reference to a place of people, a community, the glyph associated with it was cited but I guess you missed it.
quote:Originally posted by Bettyboo:
quote:Originally posted by KING: What people fail to understand is that there is no word for Land in KM.T. It is translated as Black(s) this is one of the Major issues that Egyptologist try to cover up. They agree with Herodotus that Km.T means Black Land, yet when he says that Egyptians were also Black, then all of a sudden he is wrong. Teaching others the correct meaning of KM.T is important to drop the Ignorance.
Peace
Bull, there must be a word for 'land' (area, ground, earth, territory, country) in "KMT". If they didn't have a 'word' they damn sure had "expressions", probably components of other words to express "land"
The word for Land is "Ta", hence Ta-seti (land of the Bow).. Point out where this is in Km.t.. This has been explained before but I guess that you missed that too.
You damn right I missed it! Don't tell me they don't have a 'word' for "land", bull! All languages have words or expressions for land.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
^I just told you what that word was if you had any reading comprehension and it isn't associated with Km.t..
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
They have several tricks they use. One is to try to use death, funeral statues as a sign of Egyptian blackness. All of those black statues of tut were from his burial, black was the color of death.
These ancient black greeks they speak of were tens of thousands of years ago and have zero to do with historical Greece.
It is all a joke, actually worse than Stormfront. These guys on Egyptsearch seem proud of their own ignorance.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: This idea that the Egyptians depicted themselves as black still doesn't hold water with me. Like I said, why would they depict themselves as having reddish to reddish brown skin and call themselves the land of the blacks when there were much darker people to the south? I mean black is black. If they were a lighter skin tone than the people to the south,than they wouldn't have called themselves black. They clearly depicted the people to the south as having black skin.
Most scholars will agree with me on this. I don't care which way you try to interpret it, the Egyptians didn't see themselves as black or they would have shown it in their art.
You are right, the Egyptians didn't see themselves as "black" as in the actually black color unlike the Sudanese or Nilotics who were definitely "black" in color, and that is why the Egyptians are painted 'brown' and not black. However, that doesn't stop black from meaning 'dark'. You have to make the discernment of black as the actually color 'black' or black as meaning 'dark' or a combination of the both, or black as meaning 'evil' or something else. If I had to paint myself, I would be depict myself to the approximate brown that I am, but that doesn't mean I am not "black" or 'dark'.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: actually worse than Stormfront.
Of course you'd say that since you post there. This is the web site that has shaped your ideology, hence you have no credibility here or else where. These vitriolic rants don't change a thing.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
That was a cheap shot and typical of this board. When these people get stuck they start throwing turds. Obviously I have never posted on Stormfront in my life. That is what you say when you just refuse to deal with the historiography of your subject and post sources for us.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Why would Egyptians call themselves the land of the blacks when they depicted the people south of them as being much darker than they were? Wouldn't they more than likely refer to the people of the south as being the Land of the blacks before they would themselves?
Most Egyptian art depicts them as having reddish brown skin. Reddish brown is exactly the color that skin turns when it is dyed with henna. Henna is an effective sunblocker and the Egyptians used it to dye hair, nails and skin. If there were fair skinned people living in Egypt, henna would have been an ideal thing to use against the sun.
I forgot to tell you that the Egyptians never called themselves "Land of the blacks". I said in the English language 'black land' or the believed 'black people' in [Egyptian] language would have to be translated in 'ENGLISH' as "Nation of Black(s)" or it can be translated as "The Black Nation" or "The Land of Black(s)". What I wrote aforehand could have been a typo or an error. It just making sense of other languages when translated into yours. The Egyptians didn't use Henna as a sunblock. The red coloring that is depicting of the Egyptian's hiergyphics is nothing other than approximate shades of brown. It has nothing to do with red. Red people don't exist. You need to know that there are nomads in the southern part of Africa that uses red clay to adorn themselves. You white people are so fanatic about these unknown red people.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: Originally posted in full on 08 December 2004 01:19 PM
The pages from Diop show seven usages of KM.t and km.t in words for people.
. . . .
Diop didnt do the translation. The translation comes from two European sources, one German the other French, they being 1. the Worterbuch der Agyptischen Sprache and 2. the Prolegomenes a letude de la religion egyptienne.
. . . .
The determinatives seated man and\or seated woman mean people.
. . . .
In direct literal translation km.t.nwt means black nation, where the root km (black) is an adjective suffixed by t which makes km.t a feminine noun whose meaning 'black nation' is indicated by the determinative nwt. Since km.t.nwt is a noun it can't be an adjective referring to the color of soil since no determinative for soil is given. When km.t.nwt is literally translated as the black land, the word land can only mean 'country' in the sense of 'nation.' If land in the sense of soil was meant, the word ta would precede km.t, something I have yet to see in a mdw ntr text.
Actually the word 'country' would refer to territory unlike the word 'nation' that refers to people. Nation can refer to a country, but country cannot refer to a nation.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Yes they are fanatics. they just hunt around for any and everything they can find to build up their pre concieved notions. Doesn't matter if it is accurate or not as long as they can somehow twist it into place. It is just wasted lives as none of this stuff will ever stick.
This is the same thing Eurocentrics do.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
That is not correct Betty. I have never met a historian who was not interested in the truth. Actually in terms of modern historians IF ANYTHING they would be inclined to error in the favor of blacks, i.e. PC. Besides these guys imply that they are ALL biased, that is a bit much.
You can believe anything if all you have to do is say all of the experts are liars.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Of course all of never said all the experts are liars as some experts in the matters may very well be misguided if not blatantly biased. You see, unlike YOU we don't presume that *all* experts say this or that. We are dealing with a dead language that's over 6 millennia old. Any expert is subject to mistakes and your problem is that you fail to realize that not all experts agree with each other let alone on this issue!
It's obvious that instead of actually disputing the linguistic findings you just sit there and whine about it like a silly child!
Come on 'professor' AmericanPatriot! Listen to ol' Uncle Sam!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Lets be a bit more mature here. If you have experts who have different views post their papers in which they challenge those who do not. I keep asking but I do not recieve.
Most of them agree Djehuti.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Again if they agree, then what is the exact basis of this agreement?? When it comes to scholarship, substance is outweighs any 'claims'. Though 'claims' are all you have.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Post their articles and see. I am working on a long paper on the Comanche Empire or lack thereof in between posting here so if you want me to dig up the articles you'll have to wait. You need to rely more on Journal artiles and stop just looking for stuff to buttress already held views.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
All the proof text now buried under opinionated troll replies. While we go to the primary source they just blow air because they lack the skills to recognize, read, comprehend, and analyze the texts the AEs left on record for all time for all to see.
None of the trolls has presented analysis of the words or their context we've presented nor have they presented contradictive primary documentation.
Why? Because they can't. They're running scared and getting very desperate (so desperate they deny all the alternate IDs they've used on this forum claiming that listing them is name calling)
All they can do is whine and hope they bury our facts under tons of whining posts. But they will fail to do that.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by Sundjata: ^I just told you what that word was if you had any reading comprehension and it isn't associated with Km.t..
My bad, My bad... After reading it over it made sense to me. I'm a little slow today.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: That is not correct Betty. I have never met a historian who was not interested in the truth. Actually in terms of modern historians IF ANYTHING they would be inclined to error in the favor of blacks, i.e. PC. Besides these guys imply that they are ALL biased, that is a bit much.
You can believe anything if all you have to do is say all of the experts are liars.
Are you telling me that Eurocentrics don't have pre-conceived notions? Being an 'expert' doesn't give you a pass for being a liar. It is these same eurocentrists that define who is an expert and who is not. All Eurocentrics ARE bias because people are bias. We just have to be discern and divide what is truth and bias or what is truth and unbiased and then compare it to what is a lie and biased. Having favor of blacks doesn't mean you are lying, you maybe bias, but it doesn't accommodate a lie. Eurocentrics are in favor of whites and everything thing do is to uplift the white race and debunk or falsify that of blacks and/or others. Why shouldn't Afrocentrics do the same whether bias or unbias, as long as it is true? You white people don't like to see anything in black people's favor because you people think you own history, education, intelligence, vocabulary, the universe, culture, medicine, art, theory, philosophy and every damn thing under the sun. White people will have to learn that it is not all about them and not everyone accepts the paternalistic thoughts or behavior of whites. Maybe it can work with other groups, but it doesn't work with blacks.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Lets be a bit more mature here. If you have experts who have different views post their papers in which they challenge those who do not. I keep asking but I do not recieve.
Most of them agree Djehuti.
You have to ask why do they agree. Do they agree because it is facts; do they agree because they are biased and lying; do they owe an oath to the Smithsonian or other prominent institutions like the "National Geographic" entities; do they have an agenda. Just because people come to an agreement doesn't mean it is correct or it doesn't mean that it is correct based on agreed thoughts. I'm not surprise that Most or "many" agree since it makes the 'notion' stronger, and possibly causes the opposition to "look silly" or not taken seriously or to be overlooked. Whites are cunning you know.
Posted by Bishop (Member # 16652) on :
quote:Originally posted by Bettyboo:
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Lets be a bit more mature here. If you have experts who have different views post their papers in which they challenge those who do not. I keep asking but I do not recieve.
Most of them agree Djehuti.
You have to ask why do they agree. Do they agree because it is facts; do they agree because they are biased and lying; do they owe an oath to the Smithsonian or other prominent institutions like the "National Geographic" entities; do they have an agenda. Just because people come to an agreement doesn't mean it is correct or it doesn't mean that it is correct based on agreed thoughts. I'm not surprise that Most or "many" agree since it makes the 'notion' stronger, and possibly causes the opposition to "look silly" or not taken seriously or to be overlooked. Whites are cunning you know.
Hey everyone
source please on "black people" instead of black land??
Posted by Bishop (Member # 16652) on :
Source please on black people?
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
@Biship
Have you read this thread? This thread is not based on opinion but there is ample amounts of documentations by Europeans which show and prove that the word 'Kemet' does not have the word 'land, soil' or anything else that has to do with earth in it.
Please reread this thread and you will see the sources. Again, where is the word land in the word Kemet?
Kam Ta would be 'Black Land/Soil but not Kemet.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Correct! A concise explanation by Takruri and Wally in the last 2 pages of this thread alone. It was also given in a previous thread on the topic here! If you're looking for other sources try dictionaries on Ancient Egyptian language not necessarily Budge, but ones where precise grammar and vocubulary are conveyed!
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
And so that Takruri's valid points of this topic do not get lost under the 'usual' rhetoric...
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: Originally posted 09 December 2004 04:09 PM
This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t also appears with other determinatives and not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Originally posted 10 December 2004 12:24 PM
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
Posted by Bishop (Member # 16652) on :
quote:Originally posted by Meti Sutn Anu: @Biship
Have you read this thread? This thread is not based on opinion but there is ample amounts of documentations by Europeans which show and prove that the word 'Kemet' does not have the word 'land, soil' or anything else that has to do with earth in it.
Please reread this thread and you will see the sources. Again, where is the word land in the word Kemet?
Kam Ta would be 'Black Land/Soil but not Kemet.
Yes I have read this thread we were talking about this subject with some friends and they wanted some sources so thats why I asked.
Posted by astenb (Member # 14524) on :
quote:Originally posted by Bishop:
quote:Originally posted by Meti Sutn Anu: @Biship
Have you read this thread? This thread is not based on opinion but there is ample amounts of documentations by Europeans which show and prove that the word 'Kemet' does not have the word 'land, soil' or anything else that has to do with earth in it.
Please reread this thread and you will see the sources. Again, where is the word land in the word Kemet?
Kam Ta would be 'Black Land/Soil but not Kemet.
Yes I have read this thread we were talking about this subject with some friends and they wanted some sources so thats why I asked.
This is the language. Ancient Egyptian language is the source. But they dont need a "source." Its actually pretty simple. lets take 2 words: [Blue] and [Ball].
Placed together that would give you "Blue Ball" - It wouldn't give you anything else. Asking for a source would be like asking me what is my source that says that [Blue]+[Ball]=Blue Ball? -It doesn't matter if the ball is blueish green. -It doesn't matter if a green ball exists along with the blue one. -I and even though some "Candy" or "Toys" can be shaped like a ball, the meaning doesn't change to "Blue Toys" or "Blue Candy" - [Blue]+[Ball]=Blue Ball.
Get and Hieroglyphic dictionary and look up the words yourself. Once you read it, it is as simple as the example i gave above. There actually isn't anything to argue when you see it.
Posted by mentu (Member # 14537) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: And so that Takruri's valid points of this topic do not get lost under the 'usual' rhetoric...
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: Originally posted 09 December 2004 04:09 PM
This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t also appears with other determinatives and not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Originally posted 10 December 2004 12:24 PM
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
Exactly, for example look at how 'black cow' is written on budge's dictionary (and budge gives the same interpretation).And also look at how 'Kemet' with a people determinative is written on medu neter, one cannot escape 'black people' as the correct reading as the logic for the two words is completely the same.
Eurocentrists simply throw out the logic.
PS: How do you post a picture on ES ? I want to post some medu neter pictures.
Thanks.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ you find the url code of an of a picture and put it between [img](url)[img] <---- as so. You have some images scanned into your computer you may need to upload them on an online pic site like photobucket or tinypic etc.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Betty, If a person does not agree with the top scholars in a field ALL THEY HAVE LEFT is to call them a biased liar. It is the weakest argument under the sun and it is dishonest.
When someone here uaes thjat argument what we have is not JUST a poorly educated person but a flawed character as well.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ And which 'top scholar' are you speaking of??
Also, where did any of us call anyone a "liar"??
All we did was demonstrate through a direct translation of the Mdu-neter itself what Kmt means!
By the way, we are still waiting for your 'good ol' boys' network in Memphis to give a response about the above findings.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
the Egyptians divided their land between the lush Nile Valley, which they called Kemet (the black land) in reference to it's rich alluvial soil, and the desert, called deshret (the red land)." Page 4
Tutankhamun's Armies John Coleman Darnell and Colleen Manassa
Darnell PHD Yale Near Eastern Languages Manassa Yale Professor of Egyptology
Do we need to keep up this high school lesson or do you guys think it is time for you to lear how to do actual resaerch? --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The Memphis folds said black land, call them, I did. Everyone says that except some ill educated people on this board.
You guys have no ability to interpret primary sources, you have demonstrated that time and time again. You further refuse to back up your points with top scholars. It is a total joke.
Posted by The Gaul (Member # 16198) on :
Every proud nation has a word that represents their "nation", or "community", km.t is THAT word for AE.
What gives this away is clear. When speaking of the "land" they mainly inhabited, the glyph for this was Ta Meri ("Beloved LAND") in which the symbol for land (strip with 3 dots underneath) is apparent.
For Upper Egypt and Lower Egypt again, the glyphs for " land " are apparent.
For Dsrt, or "the Red Land", you find the ibis which represents "red" along with the symbol for "foreign" or "mountainous" land here .
In each of the glyphs above, there is a clear reference to the land they occupied, or that of which was occupied by foreigners (thus undesirable). In the glyph for Km.t no such thing is found.
Therefore, it seems Km.t clearly would represent that of a modern day flag, in which it embodies all things desirable for it's nation , or community, which would included it's majority black people, for which the color black epitomized all of the above, and is either not at all, or not just a reference to soil. The color black itself can clearly be seen to be held in high regard as many AE gods were painted in that color. The comparison to other Mdu Ntr words makes this an easy thing to see.
Words like these are found throughout Africa and African people. "Abantu" as I know it from southern Africa, represents the same thing, while not explicitally referring to anything black. It stands for "community", or "our community", or "inclusiveness/love for our communities" for which obvious foreigners (i.e. Whites, Indians, Arabs) would not be included. The word, much like Km.t, has come to be dumbed down (to a supposed language family) and corrupted (to mean something derogatory towards the very people who created it) by foreigners, and thus shares MANY similarities.
If someone can find a glyph that clearly represents the AE nation besides the unification of the two lands under one pharoah, please provide.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You/ll need to show where Egyptologists agree with that Gaul. So far every one I have found say it means 'black land.' That is clearly the standard today.
Posted by The Gaul (Member # 16198) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: You/ll need to show where Egyptologists agree with that Gaul. So far every one I have found say it means 'black land.' That is clearly the standard today.
The fact that you have been shown the fallacy of "black land/soil" in 10 different ways in all degrees of inculcation, yet still only choose to parrot those with an obvious agenda, or are simply too lazy to actually know what they preach tells all.
You've been asked this already, but I'll admonish anyone to ignore you until you can show us where these "Egyptologist" you choose to parrot get their idea of "black soil" from in the glyph for km.t. You should be ignored until you can provide this specific information and evidence from your cracker feeders...(no pun).
What specifically represents "black soil" in Km.t? Invite your experts to this discussion.
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
The Gaul
Patriot can't invite experts because he has no leeway with anyone close to the Language of Ancient Egypt. There is more then enough evidence for people to look up for themselves and find the answers they seek.
So I will second your idea about TAP. Please show us what letter in KM.T means land. Failure to do this you will be ignored and no one should comment on you again.
Peace
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You guys simply have no clue of what conctitutes good scholarship. Don't give me this cracker crap. i am asking you to do what every graduate class in every university in the world would ask you to do. There is a professional way to present information and it is more than just saying that people who disagree with you are liars.
You guys have presented no evidence King. Nobody on this site is a specialist in the ancient egyptian language. It is clear that most of you have no ability to handle primary soruce information and you have no interest in learning. You have demonstrated that lack of ability to handle information in a scholarly manner in case after case after case.
I am not interested in what Gaul thinks about AE language, he is not a specialist. I am interested in what top eyptologists and language eperts say. What they clearly say is that Kemet means black land, that is the accepted standard today.
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
...a lot of folks are confused as to how words in different languages are related; it isn't enough that the words are similar in spelling, they must also be similar in their meanings:
Example A) Let us first look at the word "Ran" as it appears in 5 languages:
1) Mdu Ntr: Ran = "Name" 2) Coptic: Ran = "Name" 3) Yoruba: Ran = "Name" 4) English: Ran = past tense of "Run"; a word of motion 5) Japanese: Ran = "chaos"
Clearly, the first three African words are not only similar in meaning, but are exact matches! - the English and Japanese words are not related to the African words or to each other.
Example B) Now, let us examine the words for Black or Negro in several languages.
1) Mdu Ntr: eKame = "Black/Negro" 2) Coptic: ouKame = "Black/Negro" 3) French: le Nègre = "the Negro" 4) Spanish: el Negro = "the Negro"
One can readily see how the words used to express a concept differ between the African languages and that of the Romance languages...
Now, let us look at the incorrect assessment that "Kmt" (Black) is related to the Berber word "Akham" (home); ie, how is the word "Black" similar to the word "home?" Simple, it isn't...
1) Berber: Akham = "home" 2) Mdu Ntr: Ekham = "Black" 3) Coptic: OuKham = "a Black (person)" Obviously, there is no correspondence between the Mdu Ntr and Berber in regards to the word "Kmt."
Simple Examples from the Mdu Ntr: Res = "south" - Resu = "southerners" Tawi = "Two Lands" - Tawiu = "Two Landers" TaMeri = "My Beloved Land" - Tameriu = "My Beloved Landers" Kem = "Black" - Kemu = "Blacks"
Because the Ancient Egyptians referred to themselves as "Kemu" or Blacks is an irrefutable fact and is why modern 'revisionists' like to ignor this significant fact and would rather harp on "Keme.t" or "Keme.tiou" which is more easily 'toyed' with than the more absolute word of "Kemu"... === Another method, used principally by detractors, is to believe, or pretend to believe that the Ancient Egyptian language is 'dead', as it is supposedly not a vernacular language, and that, unlike every other language on earth, it is mysterious and unknowable: however, the reality is that Ancient Egyptian is modern Coptic and is very much alive and well
The following is taken from A SHORT ENGLISH-COPTIC CLASSIFIED VOCABULARY WITH ILLUSTRATIVE SENTENCES...
39. Colour >to be black kmom kem*
neffw etolm sesEt eukem nthe n henabooke. His curly hair streams out, being black as ravens.
Anok ang ouKame (Coptic bible; Song of Solomon) = I am Black I am Black...(KJV bible, Song of Solomon)
>to be white oubash ouobsh*
ainau eupugy m moou noc esouobash Nve N ouxiwn. I saw a great fountain of water, white as snow.
>to be red trosh torosh*, troshresh treshrwsh*
auw afei ebol Nci ouhto eftreshrwsh. And a red horse came forth.
Gold noub = gold P^hamnoub = goldsmith ouaNouba = Nubian NaNouba = Nubians OuaNouba = Wa.Nuba (wah.Noo.bah) = "One Nuba"... The Nuba peoples who live in the geographical center of Sudan are the largest of many groups in Northern Sudan and are the descendants of the peoples of the Kush kingdom of the 8th century. They form a collection of dozens of different ethnic groups with different cultures and languages. ....
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Wally, top scholars are not confused. You need to do more research into why they feel the way they do. Here is the problem. Their views carry the day in any field of history. Someone brought up Bernal on another thread. Bernal lost the argument to Lefkowitz because he was unable to convince classical scholars his points were correct. Same with this, it is your job to convince them, not the other way around. The problem you have is that since you are not a specialist they probably would not listen to you anyway.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Indeed. If by any chance, Pat did call up his 'friends' in Memphis, he simply just asked them what Kmt meant. I seriously doubt he further inquired about the actual etymology or where the word for 'land' is found in the term.
Again, this is called scholarly debate. Everyone, scholars and laymen alike, have the right to challenge the authority of a scholar especially if there is any logical inconsistency.
Right now what has been discussed in this thread still stands. Unless Pat can bring his 'expert' friends here or cite an actual correspondence via email or something disputing these valid linguistic finds, then the only thing his friends in Memphis offer-- like Pat-- is mere opinion.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Laymen can have an opinion, they cannot challenge. You cannot use pop history in a scholarly paper. I asked you to call them as well. Besides that was not the only source I posted. You have posted none because there is none. I just had a kid write a paper about the historiography of the Cherokee. he cannot use sources that are not noted scholars, i.e. historians. If you want to establish more than opinion Djehuti then post some journal articles from major egyptologists who agree with you view. About six of them would give you a compelling case. The problem you have is you will not find any.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Laymen can have an opinion, they cannot challenge. You cannot use pop history in a scholarly paper..
Again, anyone can make a challenge as long as they have FACTS and not opinion! Also, who said anything about 'pop history' which is exactly what you and your ilk peddle-- that is beliefs popular among white males that gives them pride and not facts!
quote:..I asked you to call them as well. Besides that was not the only source I posted. You have posted none because there is none...
LOL First of all, it was YOU who claimed phone connections to 'experts' in Egypt, not us. Second of all, you posted no source other than what someone else wrote without any actual linguistic explanation let alone demonstration.
And lastly we posted our source-- Budge Egyptian dictionary-- complete with hieroglyphs as well as valid explanations and linguistic demonstrations!!-- non of which you or any of your sources were able to show!
quote:I just had a kid write a paper about the historiography of the Cherokee. he cannot use sources that are not noted scholars, i.e. historians. If you want to establish more than opinion Djehuti then post some journal articles from major egyptologists who agree with you view. About six of them would give you a compelling case. The problem you have is you will not find any.
LOL We shall see about that!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
The argument is settled Djehuti and further laymen do not have an impact on scholarship. You simply lack the skills to do the kind of neccessary research. Laymen can publish what we call pop history but it is never included in the accepted body of scholarship. Your ideas on african influence on Greece are simply crazy. You cannot find nor will you ever produce scholarly material to back that position up.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: The argument is settled Djehuti and further laymen do not have an impact on scholarship...
Of course the argument is settled. It was settled right in this thread by Wally and Takruri! Also again anyone can have an impact on scholarship through scholarly work and discipline!
quote:..You simply lack the skills to do the kind of neccessary research. Laymen can publish what we call pop history but it is never included in the accepted body of scholarship...
LOL skills to do necessary research such as actually dissecting the etymology of a word and using actual vocabularly and grammar of that word and the language scripts where it is expressed as Takruri and Wally have done?? Also, the very source that Takruri and Wally get their work from is from a body of scholarship again, Budge's Dictionary!
quote:Your ideas on african influence on Greece are simply crazy. You cannot find nor will you ever produce scholarly material to back that position up.
You realize that we produce scholarly material and evidence every day about African influence on Greece, or does your senile mind still function??!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Wally and Tukruri have no portfolio. alot of arrogance for a group of unlettered guys to claim anyone is paying attention to them.
You do not produce evidence for your wacky Greece views, bot a scrap. For one thing I have never seen you produce a scholarly work from a single Greek historian supporting your view.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ LOL @ "portfolio".
They merely cite what is already known about Egyptian language!
The below is all they need!
quote:This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t also appears with other determinatives and not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Originally posted 10 December 2004 12:24 PM
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
^ Now, refute the above or just shut-up!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
The argument is over. Egyptologists do not agree with you, that is enough for me. There is no worse combination than ignorance combined with arrogance. If you cannot post the scholars you shut up.
KEMET means black land, period.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: The argument is over. Egyptologists do not agree with you, that is enough for me. There is no worse combination than ignorance combined with arrogance. If you cannot post the scholars you shut up.
What makes those whom you call scholars legitimate scholars? Are they scholars because they agree on a certain point? Does that make their point correct or accurate? Does this mean that one can only be identified as a scholar if they accept Eurocentric - Ethnocentric interpretations of history as they will for it to be? Better yet as a normal man who study history, can I create a scholarly program like this group of Europeans an convince the world that I'm smarter then they so that my works may by accept as truth? I mean this is what Europeans have done so then why can't I do it and teach that Europe was once all black and their were no white-Europeans. Such teaching would be illegitimate and a joke to Europeans as is European so-called scholarly work is to Africans. Yet if I had the platform that Europeans have I would be able to pull it off as it has been done.
On this site there are true scholars who do not accept the ideals of eurocentric based histories. These scholars are in agreement and they are valued because they can support their finding unlike what HASN'T been presented to counter their claims. All you've given is what you believe to be accurate information from people whom you identify to be scholars but they are nothing more then propagandist who's only intent is to change the color of the ancient world.
quote: KEMET means black land, period
I have been keeping up with this forum and other forums who believe as you do. I've reviewed the information on this site and that on others but it is this site where the word has actually been broken down in terms that a baby should be able to understand. These other sites tell you that it means back land/soil but doesn't explain how and why it means black soil/land.
I would like for you to explain in details how the word Kemet means 'black land/soil'. I'm open to truth and if what has been shown here isn't the truth that I urge you to prove otherwise. I ask though that you break it down from your understanding being that it is a point of view that you accept as reality. Surely you will not accept anything as fact unless you have a deep understanding of it. Having accepted 'black land/soil' as Kemet from these scholars you mention, sure you can show me where land can be found in this word. If you cannot show this then what is your debate?
Thank you in advance.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
O by the way, I will not get into a debate with you on 'Kemet' given the fact that I'm no where on the level of these scholars on this subject. I just want to hear what you have to say as proof because it doesn't take a rocket scientist to analysis content based on ancient documentations vs. modern documentations.
p.s. please don't try to show rock art of other Africans which show different cultural hair styles with feathers and dress codes. That does not prove or disprove whether the Egyptians would have called their nation and people 'black'. It just proves that Egypt had battles with their neighboring Africans.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
The problem with Pat (other than his usual racist bias) is a logical fallacy known as 'appeal to authority'. Not only is it known that even experts can be wrong, but the fact that he generalises and says 'all' Egyptologists disagree is also far from the truth.
I think King is right-- we should just ignore the nutty professor. He keeps talking about the 'experts' yet he cites nothing that actually refutes the linguistics we have demonstrated.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You dim wits have not demonstrated anything. The appeal to authority is what academic discourse is based on. You are not going to research the question because of the answer you would get. This is just a racist feeble attempt to prop up a group of people who were throwing spears at the British in 1867. It is a disgusting display of ignorance from people who should know better. The only consolation is that it is going nowhere.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Actually Mr. Pat all you have to do is realize that everything posted here is ACTUALLY based on EUROPEAN linguistic analysis of Egyptian hieroglyphs. They are not made up as you suggest.
Case in point:
quote:This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t also appears with other determinatives and not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Originally posted 10 December 2004 12:24 PM
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
The above is based on Gardiner's sign list, which is one of the DEFACTO STANDARDS for translating hieroglyphs. EVERYTHING posted above is STRAIGHT from this standard reference. Therefore, the scholarship is there, but as usual you present nothing to refute anything because YOU are not a scholar. YOU are not familiar with Egyptian hieroglyphs and therefore YOU cannot do anything but whine about "scholars", yet you have not cited one.
quote: The English Egyptologist, Sir Alan Gardiner, arranged the signs into a number of sections in order to aid categorisation. His sign list is fairly complete, and accepted by most Egyptologists.
quote: Gardiner's Sign List is a list of common Egyptian hieroglyphs compiled by Sir Alan Gardiner. It is considered a standard reference in the study of Ancient Egyptian hieroglyphs.
Gardiner lists only the most common forms of Egyptian hieroglyphs, but he includes extensive subcategories, and also both vertical and horizontal forms for many hieroglyphs. He includes size-variation forms to aid with the reading of hieroglyphs in running blocks of text. (The Budge Reference has about 1000 hieroglyphs listed in 50 pages, but with no size varieties.)
Doug, Give it up, it is a dead issue. Black land is the definition and you find it everywhere. Who am i supposed to believe...Wally or a phd in Egyptology from Yale? Lets get real here.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Mr Patriot I don't care what you believe. What I am saying is that if you disagree with something that is a linguistic debate then you must present facts and evidence and be able to support your own views and do your own research. Most people repeating that Egypt means black land are not linguists. They are simply regurgitating something that has been passed down from someone else who may or may not be a linguist. Just like anything else, just because you read it in multiple books does not make it correct.
AND, the key issue here, is that it is not EUROPEANS who are the basis of the Egyptian language. What a European writes on this is irrelevant. The ONLY source that is the definitive basis of the Egyptian language is THE SOURCE ITSELF, which means the Egyptian hieroglyphs. There is no other way around it. Therefore, it is meaningless to present some European writers opinions as more important than the SOURCE. Europeans are not ancient Egyptians and they are not the originators or owners of the ancient Egyptian language. The ancient Egyptians are.
The only way to refute or correct a linguistic issue is to study and research the linguistics at hand. You have not done so and therefore by referring to "other authors" who may or may not be linguists, you are basically admitting you have NO INPUT into this debate and NO QUALIFICATION in terms of linguistic research into Egyptian hieroglyphs in order to begin to claim to refute what is being discussed.
And no scholar is above reproach no matter what they write. Just because they write something does not make it correct and it does not mean that they should not be challenged. YOU are not a scholar and YOU do not represent scholars. Scholars represent THEMSELVES and don't need you to be a cheerleader. Everything here is put forward as a CHALLENGE to any scholar who says differently. But YOU aren't a scholar and therefore YOU are irrelevant to this debate. Again, stop trying to pretend to be something you aren't because you DO NOT represent scholarship and you have NO AUTHORITY OR CREDIBILITY to say anything one way or another on any issue on this board.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
no no doug, major scholars in linguistics and egyptology hold this view. I posted a source from yale university on the subject. Top scholars do not even consider your view as a viable alternative.
My contention is from the beginning that you guys are not qualified to make the kind of decisions you are making. ANY COLLEGE WOULD ASK YOU TO DO WHAT I HAVE ASKED.
If you want to make these points you need to gather your evidence from top scholars.
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
Why are people still arguing with Patriot?
Until he "POSTS" what KM.T means and states where in those letters are the words for land, he should just be ignored.
Peace
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I posted sources King, you have not. Not a single scholarly source. You have a radical black view that you do not wish to give up but you know the truth. Top schoars do not agree with you.
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
TheAmericanPatriot
Since you posted sources then it should be easy to post. Please show us a scholar that says KM.T has the word for land in it. It should be easy.
Peace
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by KING: Why are people still arguing with Patriot?
Until he "POSTS" what KM.T means and states where in those letters are the words for land, he should just be ignored.
Peace
Mr Patriot the point is that those scholars are incorrect. Kmt, as spelled out above does NOT literally say black land. It says the black nation. What the scholars are trying to say is that the blackness being referred to is the land, not the people so they are trying to paraphrase the LITERAL word into meaning black land. However, that is STILL incorrect. LITERALLY Kmt means black nation. There are many ways that the Egyptians referred to their country and Kmt was the primary one, but when they wanted to refer to land they would USE the sign for land. The sign for land is not in KMT as spelled above. Therefore, it is not LITERALLY translated as anything having to do with land. However, the versions that do involve land include: Ta Mery (the beloved land) and Tawy (the two lands). Scholars have taken all these forms and decided to summarize them all as meaning references to "black land" yet that is still incorrect because KMT does not include the sign for land and does NOT literally mean "black land" or "black soil".
The root of KMT means black and it is not clear that this root is based on soil either. Again, some linguists have tried to pretend that this root somehow originates from observations of Nile silt, but such a derivation is not necessarily accurate. Other scholars say it is a reference to coal or crocodile skin. Needless to say, saying that any reference to black means "black soil" is a ridiculous literal translation. If the Egyptians called something black, they were not literally saying "the black like the nile soil" + thing. They were saying simply the black thing.
And another contradiction here that scholars have not addressed is why the STRONGEST word for black is NOT used in reference to people from the SOUTH of Egypt who these same scholars claim the Egyptians viewed AS BLACK? The reason is that the Egyptians did not refer to people by skin color. And the word black was sacred to the Egyptians, just like the word for gold and therefore never used in reference to non Egyptians who were not considered sacred. Black means black, not soil and the Egyptians viewed black as a sacred color for themselves and not anyone else.
Here is an example of the contradictions and twisted logic used to try and turn KMT into literally "the black land":
quote: Date: Mon, 15 Jun 1998 09:54:40 -0400 (EDT) To: AEgyptian-L@rostau.demon.co.uk From: Ogden Goelet <og1@is3.nyu.edu> Subject: AEL The Meaning of KMT
Dear Listers,
I have an article on the meaning of kmt appearing in Prof. Baruch Levine's Festschrift which should appear this summer(?) or early in the fall.
The word means "the Black Land," refering most likely to the color of the soil in the fertile Nile Valley. In essence the word might be best described as a word of contrast. In all periods, the primary contrast implied is dSrt "the Red Land" or the desert; secondarily (and not very frequently) it is a word used to contrast Egypt with the rest of the world. In this latter sense, it is occasionally found in parallel with tA-mry "the Beloved Land," both terms appearing with the city-sign (O 49) as a determinative. The word tA-mry will sometimes be written with two city-signs, most certainly as a reference to Upper and Lower Egypt.
In all periods, however, when the Egyptians wanted to refer to their country, the preferred terms were simply tA "the Land" or tAwy "the Two Lands." Even (perhaps especially) in royal titularies this is so, kmt rarely appearing in such contexts. Kmt will occasionally be used as the official name for Egypt, as it does, for instance, in the Treaty between R. II and Hattusili III of Hatti. In the Hymns to Sesostris III, kmt is twice followed by a seated man and a seated woman determinative and the plural determinative. In this case it most likely is to be identified as "Egypt" as a collective of peoples. It is contrasted even there with dSrt in a similar manner. I believe there is only one other text in which kmt is used in this sense.
Since the latter sense of the word kmt was so rare, Shakespeare was stretching it a bit when he had Cleopatra saying her last words: "I am dying Egypt . . ." Incidentally, Lyttle, a Union general killed at the Battle of Chickamaugua, was famous, both North and South, for a poem with that title, and news of his death was a cause for mourning on both sides. I would be most grateful for a text of that poem, if anyone out there would know where I could find it.
Kmt was sometimes used in compound expressions such as tA n kmt "the land of Egypt," rmT n kmt "an Egyptian," and r n kmt "the Egyptian language."
The word kmt has an interesting literary usage as a word for the land of the living in the Harper's songs, as in the poignant phrase "No man may tarry in Egypt," viz. everyone eventually comes up to here (the desert burial area where the text is written) when they die. This same usage appears once in the Coptic version of the Apothegma Patrum, showing how persistent the association of kmt with the Nile Valley was.
My article, however, only covers up to the end of the Middle Kingdom, with only some reference to the later periods, a subject which I hope to pursue in another article later on.
Note how the author makes it clear that when the Egyptians wanted to say land, they used the sign referred to as TA, as in Ta Mery. Yet TA is not in KMT at all. Yet the author continues to claim that somehow KMT, without the sign for land means land somehow. And this contradiction is more obvious when he goes on to claim that TA was sometimes used WITH Kmt, which would literally say the land of the black land, which makes absolutely no sense. Yet note how he dodges this obvious contradiction by substituting Egypt for "the black land".
quote: Kmt was sometimes used in compound expressions such as tA n kmt "the land of Egypt," rmT n kmt "an Egyptian," and r n kmt "the Egyptian language."
According to his own words if KMT means "black land" then Ta n Kmt means "the land of the black land", not "the land of Egypt" because the word Egypt did not exist at the time. Therefore this is another example of the illogical ways that they have tried to push a meaning that IS NOT based on true LITERAL linguistic translations.
The point being that the justification for saying that KMT means black land is not based on LITERAL linguistic translations of hieroglyphs it is based on paraphrasing and summarizing and other sorts of round about logic that has nothing to do with LITERAL linguistic translations. I understand why and how they come to their views of the term and because of it I can easily call it out as simply being wrong. You on the other hand have no understanding or knowledge of the issue and therefore cannot pretend to speak to it.
In none of the ways that the Egyptians referred to their country is soil literally referenced. Land is a general reference to a geographic area and Ta Mery or Tawy are simply generic references to the geographic region that was occupied by the nation itself. It did not specifically refer to the Nile soil and it does not mean black soil at all.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, You are wrong because you are making assumptions you do not understand. Instaed of getting into an argument with scholars that know vastly more than you it is best to study their work. History seems easy to people but it is a very very complex and difficult subject. Things are not always what they seem by any means.
Getting on her and telling me over and over it is black people is not going to change the reality. The ACCEPTED definition of Kemet is black land, in opposition to the red land of the desert.
Posted by mentu (Member # 14537) on :
American Parrot,
Parroting other peoples opinions like a mantra without questioning is stupidity of the highest order.
You obviously know that you have been defeated and have literally nothing to contribute, you do not know the kemetic language, neither do you bother to study it as the facts therein will(and have) destroyed all Eurocentric nonsense you have been educated(well spoon fed).
Do not blame us for your ignorence and mis education, blame yourself, many eurocentrists eventually turn back to the truth, admit your ignorance first, then you will be educated.
Can you answer this question?
How is 'black cow' written in medu neter? How is 'black cat' written in medu neter?
Try these simple exercises and give me an answer, if you can't, then it is pointless to argue with us and quit the topic.
How do you argue with someone who cannot read or write?
You simply can't, just ignore them.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
You guys are all fools chasing Pat's ding-a-ling. The goal is not to convince Pat or keep catering to him as if he's the credential certifier. One thing and one thing only settles this whole issue:
quote: Crust of the bisquit:
primary documentaion exists for KM.t as a community, ethnonym, and as an adjective for body parts
no primary documentation exists connecting the word km.t and any AEL word for land/soil, to my knowledge.
Everything else is nonsense. Until one, just one, shred of valid evidence in the form of contextual primary documentation written by the Ancient Egyptians themselves is shown with km.t affixed to a glyph or word for land is presented then the fact remains there is no expression 'Black Land' in the Pharaonic Egyptian Language, bottom line.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
From Erman and Grapow's Wörterbuch der ägyptischen Sprache Vol 5
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t can appear with other determinatives not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
Transliteration and translation of the 1st 5 columns of the Book of Gates the Gate of Teka Hra vignette 30
Col4: k-m.t{nwt} d-sh-r.t{nwt} AKH [Black community. Red community.
Col5: (+kh){scroll} n t-n{plural} HQA.w{plural} RA [Beatification to ye subjects (of) Ra!
The "four types" -- or better, the "subjects of Ra" -- scene depicts the sun in the 5th night hour with Heru addressing the dead. He verbally divides them into the blacks (Nile Valley folk, i.e., Egyptians and Nehesis) under his protection, and the reds (folk dwelling east or west of the Nile) under Sekhet's protection.
Heru is addressing all four types, first with a general intro to the entire party of the afterlife dead (who died that day) still in their shrouds. He "beatifies" them, reanimates them with "spirit" (breath/wind), and releases them from their shrouds. Then after all that he addresses each group in turn speaking of the origins of their creation and assigning their "patron" deity. First the RT RMTW and then in from sunrise to sunset order the AAMW, NHHSW, and TMHHW .
The NWT ideogram means neither 'people' nor 'land.' This has been explained a few times already and there's a post in the archive with the subject header "KMT NWT" detailing this. The glyph depicts a crossroads indicating a village or city, i.e. a settlement or habitation. thus the use of it to mean 'community' in its broad application for the corpus of the dead. It always appears as the determinative following the name of a city.
Looking at the glyphs themselves tells you what IS simple IS. I am unable to read mdw ntr, I can still follow the post and understand the concept. ...
In any case This Egyptologist [hosted by the University of Cambridge] Dr Ossama Abdel Maguid - The director of the Nubian Museum, Aswan, Egypt, a specialist in the archaeology of Egypt, Nubia and Sudan:
States that the "KEMET" or "Black Land" represents both "Egypt AND Nubia" [0:22] and it is also a description of the "PEOPLE THEMSELVES" [0:53]. This is the first thing he clarifies in this lecture. He sets the record straight in the first 60 seconds of a lecture over 100 minutes.
...
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Takruri, How is that pan african army coming? You will not research the experts here because you know the result of that proper effort. Thus, squak all you want. Kemet is black land, that is the standard ay Yale, Memphis etc and nothing you say is going to change that.
Those guys do not even know you exist.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Go toy with the fools who seek your acceptance and approval, for I continue to post facts for those willing to learn.
You fear the world seeing actual AEL examples that prove KM.t{nwt} means Black Community so you flood the thread with banalities to hide and bury what frightens you to no end. But you will not succeed. We will block off the first and last posts of each page so that surfers immediately see what you cannot put under.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Betty, If a person does not agree with the top scholars in a field ALL THEY HAVE LEFT is to call them a biased liar. It is the weakest argument under the sun and it is dishonest.
When someone here uaes thjat argument what we have is not JUST a poorly educated person but a flawed character as well.
#1. A person is not entitled to agree with anyone even a supposedly "top scholar."
#2. People don't disagree with others just to call them biased liars. People disagree because their evidence and/or proof contradicts what is 'agreed' upon.
#3. Calling someone a bias liar doesn't denotes dishonesty-- it can well be the truth.
#4. "Top Scholars" are not holy or untouchable and everyone and anyone have the right to question their work, evidence, findings, reasons, purpose, motivation, education, intellect, and what-have-you.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote: The ACCEPTED definition of Kemet is black land, in opposition to the red land of the desert. [/QB]
What red land of the desert? What the hell made the desert red? What was this desert, red clay? Where is this desert, and is it still red? If not, why? You white people remind me of your fanatic beliefs of red people; pale skin as meaning red skin; white as meaning red; brown as meaning red; fair, which means beautiful, as meaning red. What the hell is up with white people and their fascination with the color red.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: The argument is over. Egyptologists do not agree with you, that is enough for me. There is no worse combination than ignorance combined with arrogance. If you cannot post the scholars you shut up.
KEMET means black land, period.
You can't say Egyptologists don't agree with him because there are Egyptologists and historians that do agree of what he is teaching. Eurocentrics and white people aren't the only Egyptologist, and they can't claim a patent to Egyptology history as if only what they say and teaches is correct and should be studied and believed. Though there are patents in secrecy amongst egyptologist, primarily those of prominent institutions and secret societies, no one don't have to agree with them or go along with their coverted brainwashing of humanity. "Egyptologist" certainly have pre-conceived notions.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Betty, I am weary of this argument. Egyptologists of all races agree it is black land. Egyptologists are scholars and are not biased. That idea is complete silly nonsense.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: You guys are all fools chasing Pat's ding-a-ling. The goal is not to convince Pat or keep catering to him as if he's the credential certifier. One thing and one thing only settles this whole issue:
quote: Crust of the bisquit:
primary documentaion exists for KM.t as a community, ethnonym, and as an adjective for body parts
no primary documentation exists connecting the word km.t and any AEL word for land/soil, to my knowledge.
Everything else is nonsense. Until one, just one, shred of valid evidence in the form of contextual primary documentation written by the Ancient Egyptians themselves is shown with km.t affixed to a glyph or word for land is presented then the fact remains there is no expression 'Black Land' in the Pharaonic Egyptian Language, bottom line.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug, You are wrong because you are making assumptions you do not understand. Instaed of getting into an argument with scholars that know vastly more than you it is best to study their work. History seems easy to people but it is a very very complex and difficult subject. Things are not always what they seem by any means.
Getting on her and telling me over and over it is black people is not going to change the reality. The ACCEPTED definition of Kemet is black land, in opposition to the red land of the desert.
Mr Patriot the point is that I don't care what non ancient Egyptians ACCEPT. Europeans ACCEPTED that the world was flat for a very long time. Just because it is ACCEPTED does not make it correct. Therefore, to prove it is INCORRECT one has to do actual linguistic analysis. And if one wishes to DEBATE the linguistic analysis one must provide the facts and evidence.
YOU are no linguist. YOU have done no research linguistically and YOU are in no position to refute anything posted thus far. Therefore your argument is moot. If you have a disagreement then YOU need to support it with your own research and facts. Otherwise your pathetic whining is meaningless.
And that is all you do is whine because people do not agree with Europeans and their views on everything. NO scholar is above reproach and ALL scholars are and should be challenged on their views. And when challenged those who are challenging need to support their claims with well researched facts and evidence. Likewise the scholar defends their views with their own facts and evidence. This isn't about cheer leading. It is about presenting the facts and evidence for or against a given position which is called a debate. Whining, complaining and cheer leading are simply irrelevant to a debate.
If you want to do cheer leading go try out for the cheer leading squad.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I am not a linguist Doug so I depend on the views of people that are and those people say it is "black land." I am not going to debate you doug, it would be the blind leading the blind. You have to sustain your point by depending on the scholars. You people amaze me. If the scholars agreed with you you would be crowing about it all day but since they do not you back peddle.
It is not a matter of europeans and their views.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: You guys are all fools chasing Pat's ding-a-ling. The goal is not to convince Pat or keep catering to him as if he's the credential certifier. One thing and one thing only settles this whole issue:
quote: Crust of the bisquit:
primary documentaion exists for KM.t as a community, ethnonym, and as an adjective for body parts
no primary documentation exists connecting the word km.t and any AEL word for land/soil, to my knowledge.
Everything else is nonsense. Until one, just one, shred of valid evidence in the form of contextual primary documentation written by the Ancient Egyptians themselves is shown with km.t affixed to a glyph or word for land is presented then the fact remains there is no expression 'Black Land' in the Pharaonic Egyptian Language, bottom line.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: You dim wits have not demonstrated anything. The appeal to authority is what academic discourse is based on...
Of course we've demonstrated something. How many times do we have to post hieroglyph definitions from Budge's dictionary using Gardiner's standards?? Also appeal to authority is NOT what academic discourse is about! Appeal to authority is the logical fallacy which presumes that not only do those in authority are infallable and without error but also a presumption that they all agree on a certain notion when that is not the case. Academic discourse is simply debating using pure logic supported by a body of evidence. Again one does not necessarily be a scholar to take part in this, yet we as laypeople have demonstrated enough using the works of actual scholars, so your point is null.
quote:...You are not going to research the question because of the answer you would get...
Then how do you think we came up with all these definitions for hieroglyphs and Egyptian words?? You think we made it up?? LOL
quote:This is just a racist feeble attempt to prop up a group of people who were throwing spears at the British in 1867. It is a disgusting display of ignorance from people who should know better...
As usual your accusation of 'racism' is just mere projection of your own problem.
And as far as a group of people throwing spears, this would include the Egyptians themselves...
A black African people who built the earliest and most sophisticated civilization in ancient times long before the 'British' even existed.
Now..
quote:The only consolation is that it is going nowhere.
Nope. YOUR argument is going nowhere and has never been anywhere.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
again djehuti, you are not qualified to make those judgements. Either present the journal articles, the ones that do not exist, or drop the subject. If I have a choice between an Egyptologist from Yale or you the choice is clear. You have no portfolio and simply pigheadedly refuse to follow historiographic procedure. You just sound like a num skull.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: I am not a linguist Doug so I depend on the views of people that are and those people say it is "black land." I am not going to debate you doug, it would be the blind leading the blind. You have to sustain your point by depending on the scholars. You people amaze me. If the scholars agreed with you you would be crowing about it all day but since they do not you back peddle.
It is not a matter of europeans and their views.
No Mr Patriot. You sustain an argument in a debate by facts, evidence and logic. Scholars can and should be referenced when they support your argument, but still it is facts, evidence and logic that determine who wins a debate. References can help but they are not going to win over logic, facts and evidence. And common sense says that if you are going to reference a scholar you will reference a scholar who supports your point of view. That is for the opposing side to reference.
Stop trying to interject meaningless innuendo to a fundamental debate of facts, evidence and logic. Nobody needs cheer leaders who do nothing but root for their own "team" but in reality are not part of the "team" to begin with. Which means your views are your own, you are not a representative of any scholars and therefore nothing you say has any merit in terms of defending their views, because YOU cannot defend their views. The ONLY views you can defend are YOUR OWN and nothing else.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: again djehuti, you are not qualified to make those judgements. Either present the journal articles, the ones that do not exist, or drop the subject. If I have a choice between an Egyptologist from Yale or you the choice is clear. You have no portfolio and simply pigheadedly refuse to follow historiographic procedure. You just sound like a num skull.
Mr Patriot as you are not a scholar you cannot pretend to represent the scholarly community. And as such your views are nothing more than your own opinions, whether or not they agree with those of scholars or not.
Scholars represent themselves and don't need you to represent them as you ARE NOT one.
If someone decides to challenge the views of a scholar then it is between the one challenging and the scholar. YOUR VIEWS are irrelevant to this.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
bull **** Doug. I am a scholar, or at least it pays my bills. Now look, cut the crap. Get off your lazy butt and go to the nearest university and ask the first history professor you can find about the historiographic method.
You may be too ignorant to educate. the argument is outlined by showing where the top scholars agree and disagree. Nobody gives a rats ass what you think, you have no portfolio.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: You guys are all fools chasing Pat's ding-a-ling. The goal is not to convince Pat or keep catering to him as if he's the credential certifier. One thing and one thing only settles this whole issue:
quote: Crust of the bisquit:
primary documentaion exists for KM.t as a community, ethnonym, and as an adjective for body parts
no primary documentation exists connecting the word km.t and any AEL word for land/soil, to my knowledge.
Everything else is nonsense. Until one, just one, shred of valid evidence in the form of contextual primary documentation written by the Ancient Egyptians themselves is shown with km.t affixed to a glyph or word for land is presented then the fact remains there is no expression 'Black Land' in the Pharaonic Egyptian Language, bottom line.
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
What I don't understand is that people are still debating Patriot when they should be ignoring him until he shows where in KM.T is the word for land?
People just ignore him until he finally shows where the Land is in KM.T.
Peace
Posted by Ayisha (Member # 4713) on :
quote:Originally posted by KING: What I don't understand is that people are still debating Patriot when they should be ignoring him until he shows where in KM.T is the word for land?
People just ignore him until he finally shows where the Land is in KM.T.
Peace
OMG king you even stir up and act like a child in here. If he did show you, or if he has, you would still miss it as you're blind
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: You dim wits have not demonstrated anything. The appeal to authority is what academic discourse is based on. You are not going to research the question because of the answer you would get. This is just a racist feeble attempt to prop up a group of people who were throwing spears at the British in 1867. It is a disgusting display of ignorance from people who should know better. The only consolation is that it is going nowhere.
This is a lame response to a question that I asked. I see nothing is this post which address the question that I posed. You wrote and I quote:
quote:You dim wits have not demonstrated anything. The appeal to authority is what academic discourse is based on.
I'm really having a hard time with this comment because your basically telling me that the people who run this world TODAY are the authorities on past events, people, places and things. They are only the authorities on modern history (if that). The true authorities of the past would have flared their nostrils at the ignorance that is being display by eurocentric academics.
Modern so-called scholars have rejected the knowledge of their own people (white Europeans) who have described the Egyptians as a black people. The Egyptians called themselves black and their nation black but you base your opinions without facts on modern academics? Why are you here? You have no intentions on debating your cause on a linguistic, anthropological and historical level. My first post to you was general in the sense of asking for legitimate irrefutable proof which states your case. All of the babbling doesn't make a difference and its taking up space which admittedly this post does.
Prove your point or be quite and let the scholars speak. There is a difference between a scholar and a liar, and sense you haven't provided any proof that would back your claim - that makes you and your scholars; liars!!! However, it would be nice if you can make me eat my words and show me some irrefutable proof that 'Kemet' meant 'Black Soil/Land'.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: bull **** Doug. I am a scholar, or at least it pays my bills. Now look, cut the crap. Get off your lazy butt and go to the nearest university and ask the first history professor you can find about the historiographic method.
You may be too ignorant to educate. the argument is outlined by showing where the top scholars agree and disagree. Nobody gives a rats ass what you think, you have no portfolio.
Scholar on what? You have not presented one fact or piece of evidence to contradict anything said in this thread or on this board to date. If you are a scholar we are waiting to see your scholarly knowledge, because you have presented NONE.
IMO you are a phony and a fraud who wastes time talking ABOUT scholarship yet provides NONE.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
look brainless, I am losing patience with you. A scholar uses the historiograpic method to examine arguments to try to arrive at the best conclusion possible. What is about this concept that you cannot understand? I honestly do not understand how you get up in the morning and put your pants on.
Let me make it simple. It is not about YOU presenting facts. You do not have the skills to use facts in that way. You present the arguments of top scholars WHO DO have the skills.
When the kemet issue came up I looked to see how top scholars in that field treated the issue. If they had said it was 'black people' then it would have been black people....they did not. That is the way you handle these issues.
Thus Doug, it is your job, in line with good historiography, to show what top scholars think and frankly YOU SHOULD NOT CARE IF IT IS BLACK LAND OR PEOPLE.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
LOL! Language is not history. Genetics is not history. Biology is not history.
You are a dunce. We have different fields of study because NO ONE SCHOLAR can pretend to know everything. A historian is not a biologist, is not a geneticist and is not qualified to reject scientific studies of biology and genetics by the "histriographic method". Any attempt to do so would be most likely ridiculed as NON SENSE.
Stop trying to act as if you know what you are talking about because you don't.
Not once have you defended ANYTHING on this board and the only stuff that comes out of your mouth is NON SENSE.
You are not a historian, linguist, biologist or anything else. Therefore what YOU feel as being valid is irrelevant.
When someone questions the validity of a linguistic analysis the only response is linguistic analysis of facts and evidence not the "historiographic method".
And if you knew what you were talking about you would know that Historiography refers to HOW history is written in terms of different WAYS of interpreting past events as opposed to the ACTUAL events themselves. Historiography is not actual HISTORY it is HOW history is written.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I'm done doug, our conversation is over. You are truly a stupid man.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
LOL! You were done when you started because you never had anything to say to begin with.
You call yourself a scholar yet haven't produced one inch of scholarship. You don't even know the difference between historiography and history. Therefore, the only one that is stupid based on ignorance of the facts is YOU my man.
By definition:
Stupid
quote: 1. Slow to learn or understand; obtuse. 2. Tending to make poor decisions or careless mistakes. 3. Marked by a lack of intelligence or care; foolish or careless: a stupid mistake. 4. Dazed, stunned, or stupefied. 5. Pointless; worthless: a stupid job.
All of which apply to you. You refuse to learn, make poor decisions on interacting in threads, show carelessness in your replies and act dazed and stunned when presented with facts you cannot refute, all of which proves your posts as pointless and worthless.
Thank you very much and have a nice day.
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
Ayisha
You have very little knowledge. If you think I am wrong then tell me Where In Km.T is the word for land.
It seems no matter how much time passes you are still lovin me. You sure can't help but comment when I post.
Peace
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
KING, The view of top scholars all give the definition as land. You need to present scholarly articles backing up your view. If you are correct that should not be hard to do.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: LOL! You were done when you started because you never had anything to say to begin with.
You call yourself a scholar yet haven't produced one inch of scholarship.
If this is true then why are you arguing with him for so long? Are you just as stupid as he?
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: KING, The view of top scholars all give the definition as land. You need to present scholarly articles backing up your view. If you are correct that should not be hard to do.
It does not matter how many scholars reiterate it, it is still incorrect. And no all scholars DO NOT repeat that nonsense. And in fact many scholars don't. As an example, Champollion, the father of modern Egyptology and the first to translate the rosetta stone was the FIRST to translate KMT as being literally a reference to the "black nation" meaning black people. And he was not the last SCHOLAR to make such a suggestion.
NO linguist of any merit would seriously claim that KMT means LITERALLY black land, because it does not. The most literal translation is BLACK NATION. Those who refer to KMT as "black land" are paraphrasing and NOT providing a literal translation.
Definition of literal:
quote:
Main Entry: 1lit·er·al Listen to the pronunciation of 1literal Pronunciation: \ˈli-t(ə-)rəl\ Function: adjective Etymology: Middle English, from Middle French, from Medieval Latin litteralis, from Latin, of a letter, from littera letter Date: 14th century
1 a: according with the letter of the scriptures b: adhering to fact or to the ordinary construction or primary meaning of a term or expression : actual <liberty in the literal sense is impossible — B. N. Cardozo> c: free from exaggeration or embellishment <the literal truth> d: characterized by a concern mainly with facts <a very literal man> 2: of, relating to, or expressed in letters 3: reproduced word for word : exact, verbatim <a literal translation>
The translation for KMT meaning "black land" as a literal translation CANNOT stand, because in order for it to BE LITERAL there HAS to be a word for word basis of the translation from ancient Egyptian to English. That means that EVERY word in the ENGLISH translation must also exist in the Egyptian. Therefore, seeing as the Egyptian word for LAND does NOT occur in the term KMT, it is IMPOSSIBLE to claim that KMT literally says black land. It does not.
The claim for KMT meaning "black land" is not literal it is a result of paraphrasing:
quote:
Main Entry: 1para·phrase Listen to the pronunciation of 1paraphrase Pronunciation: \ˈper-ə-ˌfrāz,ˈpa-rə-\ Function: noun Etymology: Middle French, from Latin paraphrasis, from Greek, from paraphrazein to paraphrase, from para- + phrazein to point out Date: 1548
1 : a restatement of a text, passage, or work giving the meaning in another form
NOTHING in KMT literally says land. It only says black nation and those scholars who claim otherwise are giving a meaning based on INTERPRETATION of other words and texts, some NOT even from the Egyptians, in order to come to such a meaning. However, linguistically, such a meaning is NOT LITERAL at all.
Therefore, those who keep saying this is a literal translation are doing nothing but LYING.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
MAN: See that wise student arguing with that unlearned fool? WOMAN: Which is which? Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
alTakruri
Hence why I don't respond to Patriot. I just wait for him to actually post where KM.T has the word for land in it. His ally Ayisha can also respond, but she is only use to insulting others and has no clue about Ancient Egypt.
Peace
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: look brainless, I am losing patience with you. A scholar uses the historiograpic method to examine arguments to try to arrive at the best conclusion possible. What is about this concept that you cannot understand? I honestly do not understand how you get up in the morning and put your pants on.
Let me make it simple. It is not about YOU presenting facts. You do not have the skills to use facts in that way. You present the arguments of top scholars WHO DO have the skills.
When the kemet issue came up I looked to see how top scholars in that field treated the issue. If they had said it was 'black people' then it would have been black people....they did not. That is the way you handle these issues.
Thus Doug, it is your job, in line with good historiography, to show what top scholars think and frankly YOU SHOULD NOT CARE IF IT IS BLACK LAND OR PEOPLE.
I know this is directed toward Doug, but I've been asking for information as to which scholars are you talking about that has undeniable proof that the word KM.T has the word[s] 'Land/Soil' in it.
So what I've been asking is - can I see this information that you speak so highly of which identifies the word 'Land/Soil' in the word KM.T ... its really that simple. All of the rambling doesn't do anyone any good so lets try it again. Can I have the information that will debunk everything that has been written on this forum in regards to the word KM.T. If you have this information and you feel confident in it as you say you feel then this request shouldn't be a problem.
You don't have to debate - let them debate through their literature. Just post how they found that the word KM.T has land/soil in it.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
My last post is riddle with request so anyone who comes to this forum seeking an answer will see that you have willfully denied information that suggest you and your scholars have a legitimate claim if my request remains unanswered. This question wasn't asked by someone who has the knowledge that any of these posters have and I've been objective in the matter so without a proper explanation based upon my question, you have given up the rights to calling yourself and those whom you call scholars; scholars.
You cannot call yourself a scholar without scholarly information that provides answers to the foundation from which you stand upon. You haven't even given adequate proof to so-called intelligent racist who depends upon your responses. So again - information please!!!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
No , you are wrong. A scholar does not have all of the answers, scholars seek the answers. If you go to college in any country in the world you will find in place a system for seeking the truth. That system starts with historiography. The pulling together the views of the top people in the field to arrive at the best conclusion possible. That is why in the typical college graduate level class you will often be asked to write a 20-40 page paper comparing the views and arguments of top historians.
What you find on this board is mostly nonsense. Most of these guys have put together a position, often from talking to each other. It is as far removed from scholarship you can get. They are ideologues and their black focused views have to be defended at all costs. If I asked them to do scholarship on something that supported their views they would do it quickly. They are very much like religious fanatics in that their dogma is more important than truth. In reality the world is not watching and they are the stars of egyptsearch and for many of them that is good enough.
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
Isn't there some debate as to the actual meaning of the symbol used for black? The stairstep symbol. It seems like I read somewhere that it could also mean the limit or end of something. Perhaps it meant the limit of where they resided was along the black soil of the Nile and no further as to beyond the black soil and into the red desert?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Learn mdr ntjr and remove ignorance It's not a stairstep it's crocodile scales (some say it's charcoal -- totally charred wood).
Ain'tcha evuh seed a Nile croc croc Crocodile? Black baby black.
Black as charcoal. Black as KM.t{nwt}. The Black Community, the Black Nation.
Tain't nuthin' evuh gunna chainj dat no matter how times yo mind keeps goin' thru Them ChangesBuddy gal.
Oh Simple Girl, you Simple Sister, you!
Posted by rasol (Member # 4592) on :
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Isn't there some debate as to the actual meaning of the symbol used for black?
No. There is no debate amongst linguists over the word and symbol for Black in mdw ntr.
Now, there is much ignorance and confusion on the internet.
But that's another issue.
quote:It's not a stairstep it's crocodile scales
^ And Black Face is also a reference to the crocodile in mdw ntr, and a reference to Osirus, and for the same obvious reason.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
@TheAmericanPatriot:
I am very familiar with the 20-50 page disquisition/Dissertation personally as I've had to write two of them. I understand what you are saying but it does not give a solution to the question that I posed. It has been agreed that KM.T has a religious connotation based upon the fact that 'black' was a color of spiritual superiority unlike the concepts European countries carried. It should be extremely clear that those whom we call 'black people' are by majority 'brown'in skin color.
Here's the questions once more.If the word 'KM.T' was seldom used as it was then what was the alternative that they used to identify KM.T and its people? The question just posed was a two fold question.
If you look at the ancient Kemetic arts you will see that they used a wide range of colors to properly identify each person, place or thing. They've even painted outsiders the so-called color white so I know that its not an issues of loose color interpretations.
I use this picture to show that they had the paint to draw their skin colors properly so I'm looking for a logical explanation as to why the ancient Egyptian, Grecian and Roman didn't know what they were talking about and secondly a logical reason as to why the word 'Kemet' has the word 'Land/Soil' in it.
Thanx in advance.
As a side note What I've learned up to this point is that 'KM' means black which is something that all scholars agree to. Again, I do not debate this issues but I'm only giving you what ALL scholars agree to and that is the word 'KM/KEM/KAM' means 'Black'. Can we agree to this TheAmericanPatriot as do all of the scholars? If so then please tell me how does the 'T' in KM.T describe land?
I've heard scholars say that the word has only been used in a context that is dealing with 'land or soil' but under those condition it seems logical that it would be talking about a peoples land. I come to this assumption based on the fact that .et or .t represents the plural so then 'blacks land' would be logical as to say the 'land of black people.' If this not so then please give a logical rebuttal.
Again, thanx in advance
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
I didn't know 'rasol' and 'alTakruri' gave responses - I was writing while they responded but please TheAmericanPatriot give me the dignity of answering the questions.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
There is no AmericanPatriot here only a TexasReactionary.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
So Meti if you are correct show me the papers published by egyptologists agreeing with what you guys say, that is what I am asking. I posted data from leading Yale scholars which said that kemet meant black land. I could care less what you guys think the word means. Most of the experts I am reading say black land over and over. They say it means dirt, soil etc if a professor assigned you a paper on the subject what Doug, rasol, Djehuti etc would not work.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Primary documentation beats everything else. Produce primary documentation from whoever that show KM.t in association with any hieroglyph that means dirt/soil.
Irks you to no that neither you or the bruised reeds you lean on can do no such thing.
Failing that produce a dictionary or lexicon that lists soil/dirt as a translation for nwt as in KM.t{nwt}. We've been waiting for years and we're still waiting.
Anything less is more filibustering* from the gentleman from Texas. No matter how lengthy, all filabustering comes to an end and the session resumes its work.
* filibuster -- a tactic for pirating or hijacking debate.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
From Erman and Grapow's Wörterbuch der ägyptischen Sprache Vol 5
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: There is no AmericanPatriot here only a TexasReactionary.
lol
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: So Meti if you are correct show me the papers published by egyptologists agreeing with what you guys say, that is what I am asking. I posted data from leading Yale scholars which said that kemet meant black land. I could care less what you guys think the word means. Most of the experts I am reading say black land over and over. They say it means dirt, soil etc if a professor assigned you a paper on the subject what Doug, rasol, Djehuti etc would not work.
I have a full understanding as to what these scholars are saying but that's not what I'm asking from you. I'm asking you to show me where does the word[s] land and or soil enter into the equation? Its not enough to tell me that these scholars,"They say it means dirt, soil etc ...". What disturbs me about the position you are taking is that you have no reasonable explanation for why you accept these scholars writing except the fact that they teach at prestigious universities. The theme of your post and responses up to this point has been, "if they say, then I believe ... .
Your beliefs are based on hear-say with no personal research to verify their illogical and what seems to be distorted information. All I've asked you to do is to give me a reason why I shouldn't believe the posters on here and you have not given me any informative information but if they say, then I believe ...
Thank you for sharing I guess but I cannot be as you are by accepting information without any personal research.
This is how your information should be presented so that all can make a clear decision as to what is and isn't true:
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri:
You proclaim to be a professor so then you should know better then to use the tactics you're using. You would not accept a students paper who brings you hear-say when you are asking for facts. Since my level of education is equal to if not surpassing that of yours I will tell you teacher to teacher that your methods deserve a 'F' for lousy presentation and illogical reasoning.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
Ignorance driven at full speed will lead to a fatal wreck - Dr. Herman Patton Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
Meti Sutn Anu
Your post was good. I have to say that you ain't the only person waiting for Patriot to show what he really knows about Ancient Egypt. Welcome to egyptsearch.
Peace
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Well Meti, there is a lot of ignorance around here, for sure. Let me try to be more clear because this is obviously wizzing right over your head. You displayed several pages of Egyptian writing and it looks good BUT the point is it is worthless to you and me. We are not specialists in Egyptian writing. Now listen closely.....we do not have the skills to discus it at the highest level. That is why we use the historiographic method to work our way thrugh problems that are out of our field. What is it about this concept you do not understand??? To understand the issue you gather the views of TOP SPECIALITS to reach some understanding of the issue. When this subject came up that is what I did. The top people in the field, as you noted, say it means black land. Data from top scholars is NOT hear-say, the views of Doug and the other guys ARE hear-say.
You guys know you are out of step with mainline thinking on this issue. Now find me tracks on the issue from top mainstream scholars who say it means black people. If you could do that, you would.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Still waiting for actual data in the form of a primary document written by the Ancient Egyptians or failing that a dictionary or lexicon entry for black soil/dirt in hieroglyphic.
The three dictionary/lexicon examples above are ample displaying scores of KM terms none of which remotely resemble the word 'black' with a 'land' determinative.
Why is that? Oh, yes. The compilers of these works used by Egyptologists and linguists must not be 'top scholars.' And true they are not. They do not roll dried leafy vegetation in Top papers, light up and puff as you most assuredly have been doing for pages already.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
The choice paper of 'top scholars' like TexasReactionary.
Unfortunately these are not the kind of papers we reference around here. Our papers are not full of
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Then again considering what's coming out your ... maybe Bull Durham is your choice of smokes.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Takruri, Primary documents are great WHEN you have the ability to work with them. When you take a position that is out of step with mainstream scholars we have to question your ability to use those documents.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:. Now listen closely.....we do not have the skills to discus it at the highest level. That is why we use the historiographic method to work our way thrugh problems that are out of our field. What is it about this concept you do not understand??? To understand the issue you gather the views of TOP SPECIALITS to reach some understanding of the issue. When this subject came up that is what I did
Now that I've read closely what you've had to say, it time for you to listen up.
When gathering information you review the information, test the information and analysis the information with a fine pick. Egyptology is a subject of choice for me and thus I've been studying it for 5 years + (been on this site for 5 years) as a hobby but it wasn't until a few years ago that I actually started learning something. If the subject of choice means enough to you then grab books, dictionaries, translators, etc ... and spend time going through text - word for word until you've come to an understanding on the subject of choice. Using your logic, listen closely to what people say and you will become an expert in your area of choice like a street mechanic who can fix a car just as proficient as one who went to school for it.
You have neglected to do as such and therefore you cut and paste, providing debunked information as though your on to something big. You bring a sense of naive Egyptomania to a list of well read and studied student of Egyptology yet you speak as though you have the answers. I spotted this much earlier so I decided to test your knowledge and you have presented absolutely nothing even in the face of one whom you thought knew absolutely nothing about Egypt. This is a testament to the purpose of your being here. You are not in the business of teaching or learning for that matter because your intents are surround with a disruptive nature. I figured you would present something to someone who doesn't know much but that wasn't the case which was most surprising to me given the fact that as a teacher you should be INSTINCTIVELY inclined to teach. This cause for concern which should make one challenge your Ph.D or whatever professorship you claim to have.
Now to point number 2, you said I said and I quote:
quote:The top people in the field, as you noted, say it means black land
When I said:
quote:Originally posted by Meti Sutn Anu:
What disturbs me about the position you are taking is that you have no reasonable explanation for why you accept these scholars writing except the fact that they teach at prestigious universities. The theme of your post and responses up to this point has been, "if they say, then I believe ... .
Please if your going to misuse what I say as though I'm going along with your ideal of "top people", please do a better job. When I say "prestigious universities" this does not translate as 'competent teachers'. I don't believe mainstream scholars (which is what they call themselves) want the truth out which is why they neglect or just don't have an answer to their 'black land' philistinism.
I've made enemies not intentionally on this site and friends but to those who know me, know I don't give into Afrocentrism nor do I give into Ethnocentrism because I actually study content objectively so don't try to make me into an Afrocentric; that argument doesn't work with me. I've been on this site longer then a lot of old timers but I have the least amount of post because I'm always in the learning mode which is something you should try. I leave you with this, there are three things which you can do:
1.) Shut up and learn something 2.) Keep talking kemetic illiteracy 3.) Go to your stormfront and spread your b/s
Either which way you have placed yourself in this position and sooner or later you will pick one. I will be in the shadow waiting to see which is it.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:Originally posted by KING: Meti Sutn Anu
Your post was good. I have to say that you ain't the only person waiting for Patriot to show what he really knows about Ancient Egypt. Welcome to egyptsearch.
Peace
Peace bro
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Meti, You are NOT an Egyptologist, nor do you have the skills to deal with complex primary sources. I commend you for your interest but I question your motives. Are you actually interested in Egyptian history OR are you interested in a black Egypt? Many on this board could care less about Egypt except to the extent that they can use it to further their racial politics. Anytime you hear someone talk about "Eurocentrics" you have a full blown black racist on your hands. In any event you have no advanced degree in the subject nor have you come anywhere close to getting one.
If you did get one your professors would require you to do EXACTLY what I am asking you to do.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Meti, You are NOT an Egyptologist, nor do you have the skills to deal with complex primary sources.
First let us start of with reviewing your reading comprehension. What I said is that I've been studying for a little over 5 years but I didn't start learning anything until the last few years. Where and how did you get that I was proclaiming to be an Egyptologist out of this? Reading comprehension exercise it.
quote:I commend you for your interest but I question your motives. Are you actually interested in Egyptian history OR are you interested in a black Egypt?
Are you actually interested in Egyptian history OR are you interested in a White Egypt?
Secondly, my true interest in Egypt has absolutely nothing to do with color but purely religion and its traditions so then my motives have been brought to the forefront. What is your purpose for being her?
quote:Many on this board could care less about Egypt except to the extent that they can use it to further their racial politics.
As far as being a pyschic I'm not so I couldn't tell you the intention of the posters on here and neither can you, but I can tell you my intention as I have done and now I'm waiting to hear yours.
quote:Anytime you hear someone talk about "Eurocentrics" you have a full blown black racist on your hands.
Does this also apply to someone who always talk about Afrocentrics? Are they full blown white racist? What makes a so-called white man who talks about Afrocentrics any thing less then an Afrocentric who talk's about you? You talk about Afrocentrics - are you a full blown racist?
quote:[/QB]In any event you have no advanced degree in the subject nor have you come anywhere close to getting one.
If you did get one your professors would require you to do EXACTLY what I am asking you to do. [/QB]
Now at what point in our discussion did I tell you that I was going to go back to school to study Egyptology? I thought I laid out the ground rules to the method I use to study Egypt. There was nothing more or less. I also told you I hoover in the background listening and learning which is what I do on this and other sites.
Now that I've answered your question - please answer mine. Where is the word LAND or SOIL in KM.T
Next what did you ask me to do?
Posted by Whatbox (Member # 10819) on :
People, community, & spirituality.
Posted by The Gaul (Member # 16198) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Meti, You are NOT an Egyptologist, nor do you have the skills to deal with complex primary sources. I commend you for your interest but I question your motives. Are you actually interested in Egyptian history OR are you interested in a black Egypt? Many on this board could care less about Egypt except to the extent that they can use it to further their racial politics. Anytime you hear someone talk about "Eurocentrics" you have a full blown black racist on your hands. In any event you have no advanced degree in the subject nor have you come anywhere close to getting one.
If you did get one your professors would require you to do EXACTLY what I am asking you to do.
Parrot, stop running your middle-school educated trap and present the evidence/reasoning/dogma/agenda of the "top scholars" that say Km.t means black soil. Nobody is asking you, the non-scholar, non-historian, non-professor for anything personally, and CERTAINLY not asking your personal opinion.
Simply asking you to bring to the forum the REASONS/EVIDENCE these scholars you parrot call it "black land/soil". Surely they didn't just say/write this and leave you hanging did they? Surely they provided their exhaustive evidence for this didn't they? Sure they did. BRING IT HERE for us to see. (Pssst...I already know why they do it, but I want you to bring it).
This should be an easy homework assignment for a "professor"...shouldn't it?
You squawk the squawk, but can you walk the walk?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
No Gaul. if I am involved we are going to do this correctly. If you want to prove the point provide information from at least six top scholars and some who disagree with them when possible. The burden is on you since you are talking a position that seems counter to the mainstream accepted view and that is that Kemet means black land.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Our goal is not to convince you. As far as any kind of debate over this topic you are clearly the loser. All unbiased surfers who weigh evidence presented to them have declared you not only a loser but a clueless parrot to boot.
It is you who need present primary text, dictionary/lexicon entries, and AEL grammar to support your point of view.
Do that and cease filibustering with your Bull Durham unsustainable opinion. The request is a quite simple one. One your ghostly silent anonymous 'top scholars' should be able to give you as readily and easily as they could give you the time of day.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Takruri, Being judged the loser by the regulars here is almost a badge of honor. I have offered scholars who maintained that position, I have recieved none from you. I do not believe they exist. I have been looking at this board for a long time and you guys almost NEVER suppy what scholars would call adequate historiograpical explanations.
Posted by Bogle (Member # 16736) on :
^ "you are uneducated" - ES
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
What has been received from me is a perfect model of original objective scholarship.
Look up word in dictionary. Examine word's usage in lexicon. Obtain lexicon's primary document sources. Locate word within proper context in primary documentation. Transliterate, literal translate, and grammatically translate the subject word/phrase.
It is you who need present primary text, dictionary/lexicon entries, and AEL grammar to support your point of view.
This request is a quite simple. Your sources must be able to show how they arrived at their opinion by direct investigation and analysis. I'm sure they can do no more than say they got it from some other book that said so but not from using primary texts and application of the tools of translation against those texts.
Repeating a handed down lie doesn't make it true no matter how much it may protect their tenure.
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Takruri, Being judged the loser by the regulars here is almost a badge of honor. I have offered scholars who maintained that position, I have recieved none from you. I do not believe they exist. I have been looking at this board for a long time and you guys almost NEVER suppy what scholars would call adequate historiograpical explanations.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
It is not Takruri. You need the historioraphic study. Ideally that would be a 30-40 pae paper comparin the views of at least six top scholars, both pro and con. Your views are worthless in this situation, as would be the views of any layman.
Posted by Bogle (Member # 16736) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: You guys are all fools chasing Pat's ding-a-ling. The goal is not to convince Pat or keep catering to him as if he's the credential certifier. One thing and one thing only settles this whole issue:
quote: Crust of the bisquit:
primary documentaion exists for KM.t as a community, ethnonym, and as an adjective for body parts
no primary documentation exists connecting the word km.t and any AEL word for land/soil, to my knowledge.
Everything else is nonsense. Until one, just one, shred of valid evidence in the form of contextual primary documentation written by the Ancient Egyptians themselves is shown with km.t affixed to a glyph or word for land is presented then the fact remains there is no expression 'Black Land' in the Pharaonic Egyptian Language, bottom line.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
bogle, you have no qualifications to make those judgements. grow up and demonstrate some maturity.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Every hear of intellectual property? It's the result of original thought, something you're incapable of having.
Laymen like me are where professors find new avenues and breakthroughs. How many a post-secondary student has seen his work appear in his prof's course the following year or two later or has had a decent enough prof ask him to fill in a class? Who? Those of us chosing not to use the assigned text but skillful and imaginaive enough to uncover works unknown to prof that then appear in prof's next bibliography.
Of course never having gone to university you wouldn't know about that.
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: It is not Takruri. You need the historioraphic study. Ideally that would be a 30-40 pae paper comparin the views of at least six top scholars, both pro and con. Your views are worthless in this situation, as would be the views of any layman.
Posted by Kemp (Member # 16733) on :
Khemet translates to white people.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
OK who's going to be fool enough to give this hater the reaction and attention he so doesn't deserve?
quote:Originally posted by Kemp: Khemet translates to white people.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
CHEIKH ANTA DIOP Parenté génétique de l'égyptien pharaonique et des langues négro-africaines Dakar: IFAN-NEA, 1977
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
The pages from Diop show seven usages of KM.t and km.t in words for people.
. . . .
Diop didnt do the translation. The translation comes from two European sources, one German the other French, they being 1. the Worterbuch der Agyptischen Sprache and 2. the Prolegomenes a letude de la religion egyptienne.
. . . .
The determinatives seated man and\or seated woman mean people.
. . . .
In direct literal translation km.t.nwt means black nation, where the root km (black) is an adjective suffixed by t which makes km.t a feminine noun whose meaning 'black nation' is indicated by the determinative nwt. Since km.t.nwt is a noun it can't be an adjective referring to the color of soil since no determinative for soil is given. When km.t.nwt is literally translated as the black land, the word land can only mean 'country' in the sense of 'nation.' If land in the sense of soil was meant, the word ta would precede km.t, something I have yet to see in a mdw ntr text.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t can appear with other determinatives not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
From Erman and Grapow's Wörterbuch der ägyptischen Sprache Vol 5
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
[img reserve ]
Kahun Papyri - Literary Texts - Plate 2 Fragments of a Hymn to Usertesen III see outlined red rectangle at stanza 2 line 4
Kahun Papyri - Literary Texts - Plate 3 Fragments of a Hymn to Usertesen III stanza 4 lines 3 & 5
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Transliteration and translation of the 1st 5 columns of the Book of Gates the Gate of Teka Hra vignette 30
Col4: k-m.t{nwt} d-sh-r.t{nwt} AKH [Black community. Red community.
Col5: (+kh){scroll} n t-n{plural} HQA.w{plural} RA [Beatification to ye subjects (of) Ra!
The "four types" -- or better, the "subjects of Ra" -- scene depicts the sun in the 5th night hour with Heru addressing the dead. He verbally divides them into the blacks (Nile Valley folk, i.e., Egyptians and Nehesis) under his protection, and the reds (folk dwelling east or west of the Nile) under Sekhet's protection.
Heru is addressing all four types, first with a general intro to the entire party of the afterlife dead (who died that day) still in their shrouds. He "beatifies" them, reanimates them with "spirit" (breath/wind), and releases them from their shrouds. Then after all that he addresses each group in turn speaking of the origins of their creation and assigning their "patron" deity. First the RT RMTW and then in from sunrise to sunset order the AAMW, NHHSW, and TMHHW .
The NWT ideogram means neither 'people' nor 'land.' This has been explained a few times already and there's a post in the archive with the subject header "KMT NWT" detailing this. The glyph depicts a crossroads indicating a village or city, i.e. a settlement or habitation. thus the use of it to mean 'community' in its broad application for the corpus of the dead. It always appears as the determinative following the name of a city.
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: OK who's going to be fool enough to give this hater the reaction and attention he so doesn't deserve?
quote:Originally posted by Kemp: Khemet translates to white people.
Posted by Kemp (Member # 16733) on :
I'm just speaking the jew free truth KHEMET TRANSLATES TO WHITE people.
Posted by BrandonP (Member # 3735) on :
IIRC, the argument for Kmt being a reference to soil comes from the belief that the glyph for Kmt represents a riverbank.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
And you obviously are no Paul Bogle.
The astute among us instantly see I've successfully commandeered the intial posts of this page making my tour de force the first thing a surfer will see and not allowing scholarship to be burried under fearful filibustering from ferengi fools who no nothing.
Capice?
quote:Originally posted by Bogle: You, obviously.
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: OK who's going to be fool enough to give this hater the reaction and attention he so doesn't deserve?
quote:Originally posted by Kemp: Khemet translates to white people.
Posted by Bogle (Member # 16736) on :
^ and you've done an excellent job.
Posted by Apocalypse (Member # 8587) on :
Thanks alTakruri very exhaustive and irrefutable presentation of the facts.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
This is why any book you'd write on Egypt would be less worth than the paper it'd be printed on. You're too new to the topic to contribute anything worthwhile or new.
In this instance instead holding to clarity you introduce more confusion. Now listen and learn.
Since the beginning of translating hieroglyphics the glyph for KM was known as representing crocodile scales. Centuries before your people ever saw and recognized the hieroglyph for KM they were calling Egypt the black land due to an assessment by Herodotus on Egypt being the gift of the Nile from the silt deposited on its shores after its traveling downstream from the Black Nile in the season of inundation.
This is the only thing 'top scholars' have to back themselves up on KN.t meaning black land. They cannot do it from the AEL texts, only from Greek observations.
But our interest is not on continuing Greek assessments but on proper translation of hieroglyphics refering to KM.t as the name of a people, a nation, and a region belonging to the black community.
quote:Originally posted by BrandonP: IIRC, the argument for Kmt being a reference to soil comes from the belief that the glyph for Kmt represents a riverbank.
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
I believe the crossroads symbol also refers to fertile soil. Thus the symbol for black{the crockadile skin) and the crossroads symbol meaning also fertile soil would be the equivalent to black fertile soil. The symbol for black has also a possible meaning as for the limit of something. This could mean the limit of the black fertile soil as being the limit of their homeland. The limit being the black fertile soil of the Nile and never the red sand of the desert.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Move beyond simple belief (this is not religion we're dealing with here but etymology) to facts. From the dictionary ungrasped by your simple mind
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t can appear with other determinatives not just only with nwt.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective.
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
Remetch en kermit or people of the black land. There is more than one reference to how the people of Egypt viewed their homeland. The reference to black land is how they percieved the color of their land which was black as to the color of the soil.
Posted by Simple Girl (Member # 16578) on :
Shall we discuss the alternatives? The version you present is open to interpretation.
Posted by Meti Sutn Anu (Member # 4547) on :
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Remetch en kermit or people of the black land. There is more than one reference to how the people of Egypt viewed their homeland. The reference to black land is how they percieved the color of their land which was black as to the color of the soil.
Here's the thing, We can talk about how the ancient Kamu viewed their land but this discussion is about a word which is KM.T. The issue still stand, how does one find the word 'Land/Soil' in the word KM.T. How one viewed his land deals with their traditions, religious affiliations and politics. The Egyptians called their land 'Ta Mery'. The 'black Soil/Land' would have read 'Kam Ta' and nothing different.
What do you propose to be the answer and can you accomplish what Pat couldn't?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Obviously you are incorrect Meti. Top scholars do not agree with you.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
So show me an Ancient Egyptian hieroglyphic text with the words/phrase 'black land' if you please. I've waited over four years and no one layman or professional has done it yet.
BTW your mispelled 'Remetch en kermit' translates literally as 'People of black' i.e., black people. 'Remetch en kermit' contains no word for land, thus land is only an interpretive interjection based on previous bias.
Now get to work fulfilling my above request!
quote:Originally posted by Simple Girl: Remetch en kermit or people of the black land. There is more than one reference to how the people of Egypt viewed their homeland. The reference to black land is how they percieved the color of their land which was black as to the color of the soil.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
This didn't come out right before so here it goes again.
Kahun Papyri - Literary Texts - Plate 2 Fragments of a Hymn to Usertesen III see outlined red rectangle at stanza 2 line 4
Kahun Papyri - Literary Texts - Plate 3 Fragments of a Hymn to Usertesen III see outlined red rectangles at stanza 4 lines 3 & 5
Posted by Kemp (Member # 16733) on :
have never denied a Black presence in Egypt. The question is what position they had in the empire. Were they servants, slaves, mercenaries, soldiers, etc? Did they have important positions in Egypt like architect, scientist, scribes, etc? You can find Blacks in ancient Greece and Rome as well but they were not the builders of these civilizations and the same can apply to Egypt.
Posted by Brada-Anansi (Member # 16371) on :
They were all of the above plus being the majority population, It was the lite-skinned forigners you should ask that question of.Add to your job list the majority of rulers and upper classes untill the Assyrians,Persians,Greeks,Romans,Arabs,French,English,took direct control of the country.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Betty, I am weary of this argument. Egyptologists of all races agree it is black land. Egyptologists are scholars and are not biased. That idea is complete silly nonsense.
Egyptologist of ALL races don't agree that it is black land; those who do agree that it is black land have the context wrong. Egyptologists and/or Scholars are definitely bias that is why their specialty is EGYPT and EGYPTOLOGY. Everyone is bias; you can't escaped that. Egyptologist and scholars are still human. What I said wasn't an idea it is hard core facts and you know it. Your thoughts are complete silly nonsense.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Find me mainstram Egyptologists who say it is something other than Black land.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Find me mainstram Egyptologists who say it is something other than Black land.
Search yourself...you keep asking people to present something to you but I haven't yet see you present anything. Find me ALL "mainstream" Egyptologist who say it is Black Land.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I have already done that. Go back to the top of the thread.
Posted by phenelzine (Member # 15694) on :
I have a question. Does anyone here have an advanced degree in one of the following:
1)Linguistics 2)Afro-Asiatic languages 3)Ancient Egyptian
If not, how did you learn AE?
Posted by BrandonP (Member # 3735) on :
We quote people who ARE experts in the ancient Egyptian language.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
no you do not Brandon.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Then where do we get our sources from??! Are you telling me all those documents we post as well as definitions were all made up?! Are you saying those do not come from scholars in the field of Egyptian language like Budge or Gardiner??!
Posted by mentu (Member # 14537) on :
Let us close this topic
A challenge to eurocentrists was proposed to prove kemet means black people or black nation rather than black land.Nobody here has been able to prove the black land non sense other than non sense appeal to authority.
This topic has shown us how eurocentrism rests not in scientific investigation of facts but falsification of history right from taking Kemet out of afrika to the fabrication of Greece.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Ninsense? the only thing that is nonsese is you mentu. Every mainstream scholar says it is black land. They have obviously already put the issue to rest. Nobody is debating but you.
Posted by Wally (Member # 2936) on :
TheAmericanIdiot - (arms folded across chest, defiant) - The King sayeth that the earth is flat! You disputeth His Majesty?
CommonSense - No, I will not argue against His Majesty, but...
TheAmericanIdiot - But what peasant?
CommonSense - ...this man Magellan, his ships sailed months ago from Spain in one direction and arrived a few days ago from the opposite direction! How could he do that if the earth is flat?
TheAmericanIdiot - The King sayeth that the earth is flat! Do you or this Magellan disputeth His Majesty?
...
Posted by Whatbox (Member # 10819) on :
quote:Originally posted by Kemp: have never denied a Black presence in Egypt. The question is what position they had in the empire.
They *were* the empire. Furthermore the empire was black (i.e. Km.t nwt).
We would see them as scribes, viziers, monarchs, farmers, bakers, brewers, soldiers, spies, doctors, lawyers and mercenaries.
And they also hired Medjay mercenaries and Ta Seti experts in archery as bowmen.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Wally, You can live in this fantasy land you have created if it makes you feel good. Mainstream academia have already established it is "black land." Your lack of ability to post work by a single mainstram scholar exposes your silly position or lack there of. The world is not listening to you son.
Posted by Bogle (Member # 16736) on :
quote:Originally posted by mentu: A challenge to eurocentrists was proposed to prove kemet means black people or black nation rather than black land.Nobody here has been able to prove the black land non sense other than non sense appeal to authority.
This topic has shown us how eurocentrism rests not in scientific investigation of facts but falsification of history right from taking Kemet out of afrika to the fabrication of Greece.
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: I have already done that. Go back to the top of the thread.
Actually, you haven't because I know a few and you haven't list them. I said find me ALL...
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Well Betty, if you know them , post them.
Posted by Bogle (Member # 16736) on :
^ what a retard! since you have no answer to bettyboo you throw it back at her. I just don't know why anybody takes your dumbass seriously here. lol
Posted by Bettyboo (Member # 12987) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Well Betty, if you know them , post them.
Your mind is so cunning--just like a whitey. I asked you to post them and I will not do that favor for you.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by Bogle: ^ what a retard! since you have no answer to bettyboo you throw it back at her. I just don't know why anybody takes your dumbass seriously here. lol
Who said anyone here takes him seriously??! LOL Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The illogical argument and folly of the word Kmt meaning black land can also be seen in the fact that Kmt or Km, meaning black, is alleged to be the basis of the Hebrew word Ham, which is supposed to represent the black father of North East Africans. At some point it was associated with Min, who was often depicted as a black diety with an erect penis. Now of course Min was also deification of the fact of the seed of the black man is what populated the Nile as an ancestor, as well as the fertile silt that came from inner Africa that made plants grow. The two things go together. Yet and still in recounting the Hebrew tradition, that nonsense of land again comes into play, even when obviously we are talking about a word used in reference to people, not land.
quote: According to the bible, Ham was one of the sons of Noah who moved southwest into Africa and parts of the near Middle East, and was the forefather of the nations there. The Bible refers to Egypt as "the land of Ham" in (Psalms 78:51; 105:23,27; 106:22; 1Ch 4:40). The Hebrew word for Egypt was Mizraim (probably literally meaning the two lands), and was the name of one of Ham's sons. The Egyptian word for Egypt was Kemet (or Kmt), meaning "black land" (in reference to the fertile dark soil along the Nile Valley).[4][5][6] Ham could plausibly be a name derived from Khem, or vice versa, via sound change, due to the change in language between Egyptian and Hebrew, corresponding to the well known phonological change of /k/ into /x/ (voiceless velar fricative) into /h/. The names of Ham's other children correspond to regions within Egyptian influence - Kush, Canaan, and Phut (probably identical with the Pitu, a Libyan tribe, though often associated with Punt, an ancient name for Benadir). ... Nevertheless, since Khem (meaning black) was normally used to describe the fertile soils by the Nile, it was sometimes used as an epithet for Min, as the god of fertility. Since Khem was also an Egyptian name for Egypt (precisely because it described the soil of the Nile valley), there is also an association with Ham, who represented the forefather of the north-east African nations including Egypt.
From: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ham_(son_of_Noah)
Obviously Khem as the basis for the word Ham has nothing to do with soil, as HAM is a reference to black people, not soil. It is a symbol of a person as the eponymous ancestor of a people and the first person to carry their traits or features. This is EXACTLY how the ancient Kemities viewed their deities, including Min.
Min is the universe itself and a symbolic reference to the seed or semen of creation or infinite creative force latent in the substance of the infinite universe. In that sense he is the symbolic aspect of Amun or "the gods" who created all things. He is the essence of male sexuality and male reproduction. He is symbolic of the creation of mankind and reproduction through the seed. He is symbolically and literally a reference to the fact of the black African origin of all humans and therefore the basis of gods seed ("will power") in man. In that sense he is the eponymous ancestor of the Egyptians themselves.
But again, note that the symbolic nature of Hebrew myth in trying to center the entire world and creation around HEBREW patriarchs is simply a reflection of a people's belief in themselves as the center of the world. However, the Egyptian belief of the black EARTH that was the basis of the seed that created the first man, the black man as the ancestor of all humans and the genetic basis of all mankind is a reflection of fact.
But this form of symbolism and national identity are the cause for all of this controversy over these terms. It is a dichotomy between the "black nation" as the literal father and mother of all nations and the "white nation" as the rebellious offspring determined to remake the earth in its own image. But in order to make their rule and national identity legitimate they must somehow claim to be the fathers because that is the basis of their national mythology. Hence they have to lay claim to Egypt and downplay the "black nation" as meaning anything other than soil, because to do otherwise would contradict the whole symbolic Abrahamic inspired concept of the "white nation" that is symbolic of any notion created and populated by god's "chosen" people, the "white nation". It is this sense of agency that causes them to lash out and decry anything that will challenge their ability to act on their own behalf. But at the end of the day it is still all simply a fake memory based on inherited and appropriated symbolism from cultures more ancient than their own that they DID NOT originate.
In fact this symbolic form of ancestral origins and family lineage symbolizing the right to rule of the King goes straight back to Africa. The earliest palettes from Egypt contained symbolic references to both the placenta of the Kings Mother and Min as the seed of the king's father. This is associated with the king smiting his enemies and bringing them under his rule. In this sense the king eventually becomes literally the seed of the earth and power of the earth itself. He is the power of the inundation, the power of the life force and the Nile. THAT is what you see in the Hymns posted above. The Pharaoh is the power of Maat to keep the world in balance, where the black Nation is the basis of the ORDER in the universe (I am sure you have seen that before). Hence the Egyptian view of the world as order and chaos, where Egypt symolised order and the territories surrounding Egypt represented chaos.
Chaos in this sense became synonymous with the lands of the foreigners and the desert, which was a symbol of death. Therefore just as the king and the people of Egypt (his seed or flock) represented Egypt and the fertility of the Nile itself (the people of the nation), so to did the people of the deserts and foreign land represent chaos and a challenge to the cosmic order. Hence when you read that the King took hold of the "red lands" they aren't talking about the deserts east and west of Egypt, they are talking about the ENEMIES who had invaded Egypt. The deserts they are talking about aren't the deserts OF EGYPT, but the deserted foreign lands of CHAOS that lie outside of the borders of Egypt, from which foreigners as agents of chaos came and destroyed the fertility and order of the land and the nation (the people) itself, causing the people to starve. Hence the King "swept down the nile LIKE A FLOOD" and "FED THE PEOPLE" and took hold of the RED LANDS and put them in their place (according to Maat).
quote: From Egypt's theological and ideological perspectives, all lands and people have value, as products - like the Egyptians themselves - of the creator, so long as they function in accordance with the hierarchical position assigned them in cosmos, the created order often referred to as the personification, Maat. That hierarchy runs from the deities and their ruler, the lord of the cosmos - typically the sun god Ra in a variety of manifestations - down through Egyptians, then foreigners and finally the world of nature. Thus foreigners, in terrestrial terms, lie on the frontier between human (the Egyptians) and non-human(nature, with its beasts, birds and reptiles). Like the world of nature, foreigners are expected to provide support and sustenance to Egypt and its deities, under whose control they, in theory, lie.
However, any land can be rebellious, i.e. can refuse to service the interests of the Egyptian king; it may resist, perhaps militarily, Egyptian influence, control or attack, and may even take the initiative, attacking Egyptian forces abroad, or attempting to invade Egypt itself. In all three circumstances 'rebels', from the cosmographic and ideological perspective, take on the character of Isfet, the limitless formlessness surrounding cosmos and generating hostile forces - demons and monsters - that ceaselessly attempt to abort the orderly, live giving cycle of the sun god around cosmos and thus bring cosmos as a whole, and its carefully structured hierarchy, to an end. In these circumstances, rebellious, defiant or invasive foreigners become equivalent to the wild beasts and birds of the natural world, and the demons and monsters that manifest aggressive chaotic force on the cosmic level.
Apep the serpent as a symbol of Apep the Hyksos king are good examples of this.
quote: The alien nature of the foreign, and the affinity to that which relates to chaos, is manifest in the generic terms the Egyptians applied to them. A foreign land was a word written with a depiction of a three peaked, desert mountain ridge with a strip of green - the Nile Valley - at its foot. This indicates that foreigners lay beyond the ideal environmental and human order, i.e. the Egyptian Nile Valley and its inhabitants, and hence were on the frontier between order and chaos; and they lay behind the mountains defining the horizon, in a region wherein the sun god prepared himself for his renewal and re-ascent every day, but also had to be defended against the particularly intensive attack of the demonic, with which foreigners were to be identified. Another term which included foreign lands was "the nine bows", written as a bow with nine strokes underneath, which, however, can also be read as the 'diffuse and multiple lands', highlighting chaotic aspects of foreigners that could be taken to distinguish them from the order presented by Egypt AND ITS PEOPLE.
Hence the "red lands" symbolizes the lands of chaos AND THE PEOPLE IN IT as forces of chaos, RED DEMONS and SERPENTS intent on destroying the order of the NATION itself and its people. It is not simply a reference to the desert outside the fertile areas of the Nile.
This association between the Red people and RED LANDS conquered by the King as enemies of order and a threat to his rule is seen plainly here:
Hence the popular passages tying Kmt as soil to Deshret as "red desert" meaning desert next to the fertile valley and NOT references to people ARE NON SENSE. Kmt means black nation and black people as much as 'red land' is a reference to the land and PEOPLE who are foreign to Egypt and a threat to its stability. It does not simply mean the deserts IN EGYPT on either side of the Nile Valley as a reference to SOIL. It is a symbol of contrasts, order/chaos, black/red, native/foreign and black/white.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
again Doug, since top scholars do not agree you are obviously wrong.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
^The logic inherent in this statement is so loony that I can't even entertain it other than to refer to it as such. You obviously have never finished your GE classes in CT, assuming that you've ever attended a college or university in your life (which I doubt VERY seriously).
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Again to point out the obvious:
The red land is LITERALLY obvious in this image. This image from a temple for Ramses II at Abydos is a pictorial representation of what is TEXTUALLY written in the Hymn to Senwosret III. It LITERALLY shows the hieroglyph for land with a red color, the LITERAL meaning of what RED LAND refers to and right above it you see the PERSONIFICATION of those RED LANDS the PEOPLE themselves. Above this is the pharaoh, shown with the green vegetation of the Nile, along with Cows and other signs of earthly prosperity and LIFE, as a symbol of the PROTECTOR of the seed and the LIFE and NOURISHMENT of the country. The RED LANDS are not a reference to the deserts IN EGYPT, they are a reference to FOREIGNERS from FOREIGN LANDS and FOREIGN DESERTS surrounding Egypt THE NATION.
Again, a translation of the Hymn to Senwosret III from the hieroglyphic passage to the right of the image below. Read right to left top to bottom to follow the translation below:
quote: (1) He came to us to take the Southland: the Double-Crown was fastened to his head!
He came and gathered the Two Lands: he joined the Sedge to the Bee!
He came and ruled the Black Land: he took the Red Land to himself!
He came and guarded the Two Lands: he gave peace to the Two Shores!
(5) He came and nourished the Black Land: he removed its needs!
He came and nourished the people: he gave breath to his subjects' throats!
He came and trampled foreign lands, he smote the Bowmen who ignored his terror!
He came and fought [on] his frontier: he rescued him who had been robbed!
He came and [showed the power of his arms]: glorying in what his might had brought!
(10) He came [to let us raise] our youths: inter our old ones [by his will].
You will see that where they have translated "black land" there is no heiroglyph for land at all. Look at the third line down from the top and you will see the sign being referred to as black land. It is the sign with the man and woman over 3 tick marks and a lump of coal. The Niwt determinative for nation or polity isn't present. Hence, the determinitive is PEOPLE following the term KM which means black + people= black people. Now a little more to the left on the same line you will see an Ibis and an Eye and a symbol for land with three hills (as in the image above). THAT is where it says "red land", but that the hieroglyph for LAND is used.
The translation provided says: He came and ruled the Black Land: he took the Red Land to himself!
It SHOULD say:
He came and ruled the black people: he (conquered) the red lands himself.
Meaning he conquered the lands of the foreigners as seen in the image at the top of this post.
And again, two lines down (5) you see the same pattern, a lump of coal followed by PEOPLE, which means BLACK PEOPLE and the translation below: (5) He came and nourished the Black Land: he removed its needs!
Which is silly. You don't feed dirt and you don't nourish it. You feed and nourish PEOPLE.
Hence it LITERALLY says:
He came and nourished the BLACK PEOPLE: he removed their needs.
More scenes from Abydos showing Ramses with offerings as symbolic of his role of protector and responsible for the nourishment and well being of the people and protector of the seed (animal husbandry and agriculture Min/Geb/Osiris):
^ It's amazing the great depths of denial these fools are in that they deny basic logic!!
The word 'land' is represented by certain glyphs. So how can Kmt mean 'black land' if there is NO glyph for 'land' present?!!
But hey, what do you expect from loons who claim that these Egyptian royals below are "caucasians"
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
CHEIKH ANTA DIOP Parenté génétique de l'égyptien pharaonique et des langues négro-africaines Dakar: IFAN-NEA, 1977
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
The pages from Diop show seven usages of KM.t and km.t in words for people.
. . . .
Diop didn't do the translation. The translation comes from two European sources, one German the other French, they being 1. the Worterbuch der Agyptischen Sprache and 2. the Prolegomenes a letude de la religion egyptienne.
. . . .
The determinatives seated man and\or seated woman mean people.
. . . .
In direct literal translation km.t.nwt means black nation, where the root km (black) is an adjective suffixed by t which makes km.t a feminine noun whose meaning 'black nation' is indicated by the determinative nwt. Since km.t.nwt is a noun it can't be an adjective referring to the color of soil since no determinative for soil is given. When km.t.nwt is literally translated as the black land, the word land can only mean 'country' in the sense of 'nation.' If land in the sense of soil was meant, the word ta would precede km.t, something I have yet to see in a mdw ntr text.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t can appear with other determinatives not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads, village, town, city, nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Knock yourselves out guys. You can impress each other all say if you wish with these theories but the fact reamins top scholars do not agree with you. That gives the rest of us a choice, we can believe them or you.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
From Erman and Grapow's Wörterbuch der ägyptischen Sprache Vol 5
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Kahun Papyri - Literary Texts - Plate 2 Fragments of a Hymn to Usertesen III see outlined red rectangle at stanza 2 line 4
Kahun Papyri - Literary Texts - Plate 3 Fragments of a Hymn to Usertesen III see outlined red rectangles at stanza 4 lines 3 & 5
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Transliteration and translation of the 1st 5 columns of the Book of Gates the Gate of Teka Hra vignette 30
Col4: k-m.t{nwt} d-sh-r.t{nwt} AKH [Black community. Red community.
Col5: (+kh){scroll} n t-n{plural} HQA.w{plural} RA [Beatification to ye subjects (of) Ra!
The "four types" -- or better, the "subjects of Ra" -- scene depicts the sun in the 5th night hour with Heru addressing the dead. He verbally divides them into the blacks (Nile Valley folk, i.e., Egyptians and Nehesis) under his protection, and the reds (folk dwelling east or west of the Nile) under Sekhet's protection.
Heru is addressing all four types, first with a general intro to the entire party of the afterlife dead (who died that day) still in their shrouds. He "beatifies" them, reanimates them with "spirit" (breath/wind), and releases them from their shrouds. Then after all that he addresses each group in turn speaking of the origins of their creation and assigning their "patron" deity. First the RT RMTW and then in from sunrise to sunset order the AAMW, NHHSW, and TMHHW .
The NWT ideogram means neither 'people' nor 'land.' This has been explained a few times already and there's a post in the archive with the subject header "KMT NWT" detailing this. The glyph depicts a crossroads indicating a village or city, i.e. a settlement or habitation. thus the use of it to mean 'community' in its broad application for the corpus of the dead. It always appears as the determinative following the name of a city.
We invite those of independent thought to objectively evaluate the above evidence which is replicable and falsifiable to point out any errors based on the rules of language.
We also solicit primary textual documentation for the use of t3 with either KM.t or km.t. Lacking such text we must reject any notion of a "black land" bearing meanings of soil or dirt regardless of who puts forth that so far unsupported by AEL source idea.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
We have gone toe to toe with Griffis-Greenberg, Goelet, and Allan, each of whom have failed to cite an AEL text in support of black soil.
The only passage remotely close to that states quite literally "lands of the Black Community."
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Knock yourselves out guys. You can impress each other all say if you wish with these theories but the fact reamins top scholars do not agree with you. That gives the rest of us a choice, we can believe them or you.
Posted by rasol (Member # 4592) on :
Good thread to note for future reference. Thanks.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
quote:Originally posted by rasol: Good thread to note for future reference. Thanks.
Posted by Red,White, and Blue + Christian (Member # 10893) on :
Why black people or black land?
Why not both?
When you say the name of any modern country, you refer to both land and people.
TIME TO GO!
Posted by argyle104 (Member # 14634) on :
Red,White, and Blue + Moron wrote: -------------------------------------- --------------------------------------
LOL! Its interesting to see how the more intelligent and scholarly posters pay your numbskull mindless posts no attention.
Some things never change. LOL! : )
Nor should they.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
The mainstream getting in line?:
Wednesday, February 17, 2010 Egypt and Nubia--More Influences According to Necia Desiree Harkless, the author of Nubian Pharaohs and Meroitic Kings, ancient Egypt was known as Kemet, but the "formal name seems to have been Tawy (The Two Lands) that means the black lands along the banks of the Nile River. The people called themselves the Kemites (The Black Ones). (p. 5)"
Egyptologists are now beginning to realize with the new evidence that "...the ancient Egyptiasn civilization is rooted in Africa... (p.8)"
When a friend asked me to assist her with an art project on the Nubians, we went to the local library and found--nothing. Two shelves on Egypt. Ten books on Ethiopia and Sudan. Nubia? Nothing. So, of course, if you know me at all, I decided to discover everything I could on the Nubian--or is it the Kushites (one book in the children's library)--culture.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
I hate to break it to the people, but the word /km.t/ means "land, farm, place, village." The earliest determinative for the hieroglyph is the "irrigated land" symbol (Gardiner sign N23). I discussed it briefly in my 2009 book _The Bakala of North America_ pg. 59. But I will be doing a full treatment of the controversy in an upcoming book:
If you look at the glyph on the cover, this is the earliest attestation of the word km.t and as you can see it has the irrigated land determinative. And for the record, the N23 det. is pronounced /tA/ in Egyptian: in other words "land." That means your read it km.t tA, just like you would read tA mrj.
KM.T (in Tshiluba ciKam) is cognate with:
Basa kaam "farm" Doai kaam "farm" Esitako ekaam "farm" Ngodzin kam "farm" Runda kumadin "farm"
and
Balue kom "country, region" Okam ekoma "city" Ndzem kom "rural area" Bateteka komwa "country, region" Bakweri kumi "country" Zulu khumbi "nation" Pende guma "country, region" Dewoi gumo "village, city" Caga gumi "rural area" Lingala gumba "city" Galla/Oromo gomdji "land which grows warm and is healthy cultivated"
The k-m root denotes land that has water, livable land. It has nothing to do with the color black. The word /km/ "black" in Egyptian is a homograph (not homonym). So while researches in the mainstream are coming to a conclusion similar to early African-centered hypotheses, they are still wrong. It has nothing to do with black soil or black people. The "people" determinatives is another way to say "people, community" or "nation" as the cognates in related languages support.
Again, a more fuller analysis will be given in the upcoming publication.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Went over this with you years ago where I demonstrated AEL words for farm none of which were KM.t in any of its forms but will recheck AEL dictionaries. All AEL dictionaries agree KM's primary definition is black.
`hh.t; a word for farm land, i.e., a 'roped off' piece of arable land
But you are certainly entitled to your own private definition.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
It's not an issue of my own private definition. I am looking directly at the hieroglyphs with the N23 determinative and know its earliest attestation. I let the glyphs speak for themselves. Demonstration beats conversation. This is not an argument you can win based on your ideology and what you believe. The texts kills any argument. The comparative data reaffirms its meaning. This is an issue of philology and linguistics; both prove km.t is a word for "livable land space" (land with a river running through it). Again, the variation of km.t that is on the cover of my book is the earliest form of km.t, before there was ever a km.t ni.wt. This is no longer a debate. Obenga and Diop had it wrong because they didn't have access to the earliest attestation (during the end of the First Intermediate period going into the 11/12th dynasty).
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
OK, but I will stick to the lexicon and am not about to go the rounds with you so go ahead knock yourself out proving all the texts using KM or k-m never ever mean black.
BTW I posted the first known "text" with KM.t:nwt in a post years ago The use of nwt precludes unimproved land used for cultivation.
Let's look at some hieroglyphs of Ancient Egyptian Language words for "farm".
`hht; the word for farm land
prw; the word for land emerged from inundation -- the fabled so-called 'black land'
3hht; the word for irrigable land
p3`t; the word for soil or field, i.e. arrable land
Notice not one of these actual AEL words has either KM or KM.t in them.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
No one said the word km doesn't mean black. What you don't understand is the principle of "paronymy" and the "rebus principle" used in ancient Egyptian texts, as well as other African languages.
The word km.t "the nation Km.t" is not the same word as km "black." They are homographs: i.e, the same graphemes are used for separate words that are not etymologically linked.
The word km.t ni.wt follows the Proto-Western-Sudanic model of word formation. Westermann (1927) notes the following suffix: PWS *-ni "person, plural." This suffix is found in ethnic names such as:
In Linear A (Greece) it occurs on the name KUDO-NI “Cydonians” (see Campbell-Dunn 2006: 128).
The Egyptians reanalyzed the word and added their own pluralizing suffix .wt to the root which means "people, person." The -t in all of the Egyptian place-names are not feminine -t; they are the PWS *-ti "locative suffix: in, at" (e.g. Te-shi, Ki-shi > in Nigeria). There ti > th > shi (palatalization). Another form is given by Westermann as PWS *-ci (= -si)"ethnic group" (e.g. Te-shi, Abin-si). Thus km.t has either the locative (denoting a place) or ethnic group suffix.
Place-names in early times referred to the actual people, thus the ethnic/people suffixes to the names. The concept of people/land are interchangeable in African languages, which is why in Egyptian N23 /tA/ "irrigated land" and O49 ni.wt and the people determinatives are interchangeable.
As I note in my upcoming book:
quote:The usage of the ni.wt determinative was associated with later usages of km.t, but its usage and association was built off the concepts embedded in the N23 determinative which preceded it. The interchangeability of the two determinatives can be seen in the following examples:
Again, both determinatives are associated with geographical space and they both refer to land. It can no longer be argued that kmt doesn’t refer to land because of the absence of the tA glyph. The very O49 and N23 determinatives mean “land, earth, country (city, town).” The N23 is vocalized as tA. We have already established that the same word for land is the same word for people, not only in Egyptian, but in the many Black African languages.
Before this quote I go into the evidence using living African examples where "land" and "people" interchange. The underlying theme is "a place where humans can live." This is in contrast to /dSr.t/ "the desert" or in common terms "a place with no life" or "a place where humans cannot live."
Even tA-mrj "the beloved land" is misinterpreted. It too means "farm, livable land, farmable land." From the Tower of Babel Database:
Semitic: *mVrr- 'hoe', *myr ~ *mrmr 'to plow' Central Chadic: *mur- 'native hoe' East Chadic: *mir- 'hoe' High East Cushitic: *mVrar- 'the hook of the plough'
Proto-Afro-Asiatic: *mar- Meaning: earth, land Semitic: *mar- 'earth' Berber: *-mur- 'earth, land, soil' Egyptian: mr 'pasture' (OK) East Chadic: *mār- 'humid land' Notes: Cf. Sem. *ʕumr- 'ashes'
Your analysis isn't thorough and you do not consult the earliest texts. The knowledge of the earliest glyphs have been published since 1999 and we are still having these debates.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
What you don't understand is that dictionaries and lexicons of AEL have no entries for KM or k-m defined as farm.
Why did you post if not to negate what I presented about KM.t:nwt meaning black community? Did you post just to drum up sales of your book?
1st you say
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep:
I hate to break it to the people, but the word /km.t/ means "land, farm, place, village."
then you turn around and say
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep:
No one said the word km doesn't mean black.
.
Sitting on two horses with one ass?
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
You're of the opinion that they have in the dictionaries all of the words correct. Because you do not do primary research on the subject, your only fall back is to go to the dictionaries: dictionaries that did NOT consult African languages.
We can end this right here. From my book (and for the record, I wrote this actually in a paper in 2010, an internet paper titled: "Could the Kongo be Modern-Day KMT?"):
quote: The earliest forms of the word km.t have the Alan Gardiner sign N23 as the determinative (see Gardiner 2007:33). It is a sign of “irrigated or cultivated land.” Adolf Erman and Hermann Grapow in their Wörterbuch der Aegyptischen Sprache state that the earliest form of kmt belongs to a Dynasty VI Old Kingdom inscription in Dendarah. Ogden Goelet (in the book Ki Baruch Hu: Ancient Near Eastern, Biblical and Judaic Studies in Honor of Baruch A. Levine, 1999: 32)argues the earliest is the XI or XII Dynasty. The following appears in the Hammamat graffito of an early Dynasty XII official Antef which referred primarily to the Nile Valley as the place people dwelled (Hammmamat 199, temp. Amenemhat I).
Couyat and Montet, Quadi Hammamat, 100-102.
KM.T with N36 Determinative
KM.T preceded by land (ta) signs with N23 determinatives
FOOTNOTE: Adolf Erman, Hermann Grapow: Das Wörterbuch der ägyptischen Sprache. Zur Geschichte eines großen wissenschaftlichen Unternehmens der Akademie. Berlin 1953.
****
The determinative signs bring our attention to the inspiration behind the word. The N23 sign is an image with two strips of land connected by irrigation channels: a procedure one does to bring necessary water to areas needed for planting crops or drinking. This is an indicator that this land is being occupied by human beings as irrigation is an activity of urban development. Later on the niw.t determinative was used instead of the irrigated/cultivated land symbol.
End of discussion. But to ensure that I am not "making up" anything as Tukuler claims, here is an entry from the Grapow Worterbuch
WB v5 p126-127
Notice in the first image how the authors note the interchangeability between N23 and O49? Notice the other determinative {mr} N36? Notice that it too is interchangeable with N23 and O49? Note as well that this is a glyph denoting WATER. You can continue to argue this path all you want. I've been researching this question for over ten years and know where to find the glyphs. You are just regurgitating Diop who didn't come across the Hammmamat graffito. The watered land determinatives, including ni.wt (which isn't a city plan, but a sign of irrigation channels crossing each other), shows and proves that km.t (with ni.wt determinative) has nothing to do with "black" and definitely not "black land" or "black people." It is a word meaning "farm, livable land, watered land, land with a river or canal." It's not that hard. We must change our perspectives with new evidence.
I've been saying this for years and you guys keep rehashing old outdated arguments on the km.t question. And so you get it in your heads again, the African cognates:
Basa kaam "farm" Doai kaam "farm" Esitako ekaam "farm" Ngodzin kam "farm" Runda kumadin "farm"
and
Balue kom "country, region" Okam ekoma "city" Ndzem kom "rural area" Bateteka komwa "country, region" Bakweri kumi "country" Zulu khumbi "nation" Pende guma "country, region" Dewoi gumo "village, city" Caga gumi "rural area" Lingala gumba "city" Galla/Oromo gomdji "land which grows warm and is healthy cultivated"
So, when the "modern" researcher argues km.t now means "black ones/people," they are still WRONG. They did not consult the glyphs and they did not look for cognates in related African languages. We have to be more rigorous in our research efforts or we will continue to look like amateurs because we refuse to study.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
Going back to my cover for the upcoming book, you see it is based on actual texts. The km glyph was originally written "backwards" and the determinative was the N23 irrigated land symbol. There was no "black water" in which they were referring to. The word has nothing to do with Black. Plain as day. This discussion ends now.
km.t mr km.t ni.wt km.t tA
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Talk about plagiarism!
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep:
Adolf Erman and Hermann Grapow in their Wörterbuch der Aegyptischen Sprache state that the earliest form of kmt belongs to a Dynasty VI Old Kingdom inscription in Dendarah.
KM.T with N36 Determinative
KM.T preceded by land (ta) signs with N23 determinatives
End of discussion. But to ensure that I am not "making up" anything as Tukuler claims, here is an entry from the Grapow Worterbuch
WB v5 p126-127
This is exactly what I posted years ago and today you say I did not post the earliest instance of KM.t:NWT
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri April 13, 2010: (link)
Long ago I asked for examples of KM used with determinatives for land. I did so knowing that none of the black land/soil proponents knew how to read hieroglyphics and would fail to produce definitive support.
I am reticent to do what I am about to do because now those proponents will have a source to work with but the matter at hand dictates I proceed.
This is the oldest usage of KM.t as a name for Egypt/Egyptians and with it is a determinative for land. Also notice what it juxtaposes. I don't have the full context so not really sure if this refers to a polity or just the literal ground.
AEs were fully capable of appending glyphs for land to KM.t and did so as seen here.
In the above two examples, both signifying land of the Black community, we find two different glyphs for land use simultaneously. The 't' suffix has nothing to do with ta as ta plainly preceeds KM.t.[nwt] in each phrase.
You also plagiarized Erman & Grapow from me beginning here Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Why did you ignore and try to sidestep your doubletalk? You think everybody but you is stupid.
Again
1st you say
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep:
I hate to break it to the people, but the word /km.t/ means "land, farm, place, village."
then you turn around and say
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep:
No one said the word km doesn't mean black.
.
Sitting on two horses with one ass?
Anybody buying your book then let 'em.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
Please, my text has full citations. The point is here you were wrong. End of story. In the text I also cite Oscar Pfouma. I have a video on Youtube with Dr. Mubabinge Bilolo saying the same thing. And now we also have Jean Claude-Mboli discussing the same thing and have come to the same conclusion: all of us independently because we actually looked at the glyphs:
quote:
pg. 174 Voyons maintenant ce que nous donnent les autres langues de la comparaison. Ici c'est le zandé qui nous fournit le plus d'informations sur la nature du terme M-E km, qui d'après les correspondances ci-dessus – le lecteur comparatiste peut aisément s'en rendre compte – correspond au mot zandé n.gbı̦̃31. Nous reproduisons ci-après in extenso la définition que donnent de celui-ci Mgr C. R. Lagae et V. H. Vanden Plas dans leur
pg. 175 dictionnaire zandé-français : « ngbĩ s. terre ferme ; plaine. Par extension se dit de toute terre visible. Ngbĩ aña : plaine de gibier, (plaine giboyeuse). Ngbĩ ku sinziri yo wẽ : combien de plaines jusqu'au gîte, (c'est-à-dire : combien de rivières devrons-nous traverser pour arriver au gîte – les Azandé calculent les distances d'après le nombre de rivières à traverser, et conséquemment d'après le nombre de plaines séparées par les rivières). Kpwoto ngbĩ : le corps de l'univers, toute la terre ferme. Gbera-ngbĩ calamité, (de gbera : mauvais; ngbĩ : univers, donc calamité publique) ».32 On ne saurait mieux définir le terme km tel qu'il ressort des textes M-E euxmêmes. On est donc en face de l'alternative suivante : Ou bien les Zandé ont d'abord vécu dans la vallée égyptienne du Nil et ont apporté avec eux le mot avec sa signification de « vallée, plaine » – ce que rien ne permet à l'heure actuelle de prouver, ou bien les ancêtres des Zandé et ceux des anciens Égyptiens ont vécu à une époque reculée dans des plaines parsemées de lacs et de rivières avant de migrer dans leurs habitats respectifs, ce qui correspond parfaitement aux données archéologiques actuelles. L'expression Kpwoto ngbĩ que Lagae et Vanden Plas ont traduit par « corps de l'univers » – en se basant sur le terme kpwoto, kpɔtɔ « corps, peau » – est également d'une très grande importance. En effet il est l'exact équivalent zandé de tA km.t « le Pays d'Égypte » (voir correspondance suivante). Le terme kpɔtɔ est d'ailleurs utilisé tout seul – sous la forme kpɔrɔ – pour signifier « village, pays », exactement comme le fait le terme M-E tA.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Yep, comic book stuff.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
There was no side stepping. It was an illogical question.
My first comment tells you what the meaning of km.t, as far as the title of the country. The following comment dealt with the word km, no -t suffix, and its meaning "black." Again, you are trying to argue stuff here you have no clue as to what you're talking about. Did you even take the time to look up the word paronymy and how it is used in linguistics? Do you even get what's going on here? Do you know what the rebus principle is in writing scripts? Do you see how all of this is related? Please don't tell me you are confused here between the difference of km.t and km?
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler: Why did you ignore and try to sidestep your doubletalk? You think everybody but you is stupid.
Again
1st you say
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep:
I hate to break it to the people, but the word /km.t/ means "land, farm, place, village."
then you turn around and say
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep:
No one said the word km doesn't mean black.
.
Sitting on two horses with one ass?
Anybody buying your book then let 'em.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Yeah, sure you right.
And no I don't have the time to look up anything you posit and for your info you are not the only person with a vocabulary beyond secondary school.
What you need to do is get unstuck on yourself and realize you don't know it all.
We did this very same argument years ago and I'm not going to rehash it all over again now.
Over and out.
Carry on.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
Please, this is from WB which everyone has access to. It's cited in the Goelet article, which I cited in my paper. And again here you are not comprehending. I didn't say anything about the earliest km.t reference with ni.wt as a determinative. I referenced the earliest usage of km.t in relation to the name of the country in Egyptian texts. THAT reference, given above has N23 as a determinative, NOT O49 (ni.wt). You did NOT post the earliest variation of this glyph, because if you did, you'd know the N23 determinative which is NOT in the Grapow dictionaries, but in the Hammamat graffito and a few other texts before km.t ni.wt came into existence.
Research is done in Egyptology by reading the glyphs. The WB dictionary is an extensive dictionary, but it does not have all the Egyptian words or variant spellings in them. This you would know if you did your own research.
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler: Talk about plagiarism!
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep:
Adolf Erman and Hermann Grapow in their Wörterbuch der Aegyptischen Sprache state that the earliest form of kmt belongs to a Dynasty VI Old Kingdom inscription in Dendarah.
KM.T with N36 Determinative
KM.T preceded by land (ta) signs with N23 determinatives
End of discussion. But to ensure that I am not "making up" anything as Tukuler claims, here is an entry from the Grapow Worterbuch
WB v5 p126-127
This is exactly what I posted years ago and today you say I did not post the earliest instance of KM.t:NWT
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri April 13, 2010: (link)
Long ago I asked for examples of KM used with determinatives for land. I did so knowing that none of the black land/soil proponents knew how to read hieroglyphics and would fail to produce definitive support.
I am reticent to do what I am about to do because now those proponents will have a source to work with but the matter at hand dictates I proceed.
This is the oldest usage of KM.t as a name for Egypt/Egyptians and with it is a determinative for land. Also notice what it juxtaposes. I don't have the full context so not really sure if this refers to a polity or just the literal ground.
AEs were fully capable of appending glyphs for land to KM.t and did so as seen here.
In the above two examples, both signifying land of the Black community, we find two different glyphs for land use simultaneously. The 't' suffix has nothing to do with ta as ta plainly preceeds KM.t.[nwt] in each phrase.
You also plagiarized Erman & Grapow from me beginning here
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
What you need to do is humble yourself. You're so used to debating Euronuts here and are always ready for a fight. But instead of humbly asking for citations, you want to argue something for which you had little to no knowledge of. No one is insulting your intelligence here. Just don't be so quick to argue against something because it's not familiar to you. That's what scholars do.
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler: Yeah, sure you right.
And no I don't have the time to look up anything you posit and for your info you are not the only person with a vocabulary beyond secondary school.
What you need to do is get unstuck on yourself and realize you don't know it all.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Take your meds and go to bed.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: I hate to break it to the people, but the word /km.t/ means "land, farm, place, village." The earliest determinative for the hieroglyph is the "irrigated land" symbol (Gardiner sign N23). I discussed it briefly in my 2009 book _The Bakala of North America_ pg. 59. But I will be doing a full treatment of the controversy in an upcoming book:
If you look at the glyph on the cover, this is the earliest attestation of the word km.t and as you can see it has the irrigated land determinative. And for the record, the N23 det. is pronounced /tA/ in Egyptian: in other words "land." That means your read it km.t tA, just like you would read tA mrj.
KM.T (in Tshiluba ciKam) is cognate with:
Basa kaam "farm" Doai kaam "farm" Esitako ekaam "farm" Ngodzin kam "farm" Runda kumadin "farm"
and
Balue kom "country, region" Okam ekoma "city" Ndzem kom "rural area" Bateteka komwa "country, region" Bakweri kumi "country" Zulu khumbi "nation" Pende guma "country, region" Dewoi gumo "village, city" Caga gumi "rural area" Lingala gumba "city" Galla/Oromo gomdji "land which grows warm and is healthy cultivated"
The k-m root denotes land that has water, livable land. It has nothing to do with the color black. The word /km/ "black" in Egyptian is a homograph (not homonym). So while researches in the mainstream are coming to a conclusion similar to early African-centered hypotheses, they are still wrong. It has nothing to do with black soil or black people. The "people" determinatives is another way to say "people, community" or "nation" as the cognates in related languages support.
Again, a more fuller analysis will be given in the upcoming publication.
This is very interesting. Especially, the cognates in modern African languages. It shows again how African languages share a common original language.
Maybe the language spoken by, among other haplogroups, our common E-P2/PN2 ancestors. E-P2 recoup much of the modern Cushitic, Chadic (possibly erroneously classified as afro-asiatic) and Niger-Congo languages speakers. So since most of the Cushitic, Chadic and Niger-Congo speakers are E-P2 carriers, it means they once were 1 people and they spoke one language. The language of the man who had the P2 mutation in the first place and his people. So it can't be surprising for anybody to find similar words from an ancient common root between Cushitic, Chadic and Niger-Congo languages, because we know for sure they were one people at one time or another in the past (after OOA).
Niger-Congo, Cushitic and Chadic speakers share a common genetic history (E-P2/PN2) and thus a common language in the past.
What you say about KM meaning black and KMT meaning I would say 'arable land'/farm is interesting.
I'm not a linguist so I will use this definition of paronymy.
quote: 2. (linguistics) the relationship between words with related derivations but different syntactic use
So of course, I may be wrong and misunderstanding things. What I retain from the definition above is it's possibly words with "related derivations".
I imagine Km and kmt can have related derivations even if they eventually meant different things (black and farm).
So isn't it possible, even before the language was written, that first KM meant black, then kmt referred to good arable land with black soil, to later on mean good arable land in general (as some land can be arable without being black)?
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
Here is the definition of paronymy. There are two definitions:
quote: (1) A word that is derived from the same root as another word. Adjective: paronymous.
(2) A word linked to another by similarity of form.
Definition (2) is what applies here. The Egyptians "linked" words strictly on the similarity of the forms. This is what Egyptologists call "punning" in the Egyptian language. An example can be seen in the following Egyptian words.
rmT(w) "people, humanity" rmyt "tears."
Here is how it is used in the Egyptian texts.
sXpr.n.i nTrw m fdt.i I created the deities from my sweat, rmT m rmyt n irit.i and humans from the tears of my eye.
Because the word rmT sounds similar to rmyt, the Egyptians "linked" these two terms in the myth of Ra and said that humanity came from his tears. This connection was only made because the words sound alike. We should also note the Egyptian word rmj "Sun God" [Wb II 417]. The word rmj (another name for Ra) sounds similar to rmT and rmyt. This is how "Ra" gets connected to the story. The word for sun, tears and humanity are not from the same root. These are totally different words. However, the Egyptians, not being linguists, saw a connection between the terms and connected them.
This practice was utilized in the script as well, which is why you can use bi- and tri-literal graphemes to write dozens of words in the Egyptian language. KM.t is one of those words. There are dozens of words in Egyptian with the k-m root that have NOTHING to do with "black." A quick browsing through the WB dictionary will demonstrate this.
This is something that those who don't actually engage the script, or study African languages, always miss; so they get into these circular arguments which can easily be cleared up by studying African languages and/or the primary glyphs.
In the case of Tukuler, he refuses to do both but wants to engage in a debate over the issue.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
^^^You didn't answer the question. So isn't it possible, even before the language was written, that first KM meant black, then kmt referred to good arable land with black soil, to later on meant good arable land in general (as some land can be arable without being black)?
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
You don't get it. They are totally separate words all together. There is not connection other than there having the same consonant phonemes. The word km.t is actually two words. The first is PWS *ka "place, to dwell, to sit." This is the actual root. It has an old suffix -m that stands for "water, liquid." It is the same suffix that is found in Hebrew -dam- "blood." The root it *da "life, blood." Some languages will have this prefixed to the root. For instance, in Yoruba, we are familiar with the goddess YeMoja. The word Ye- is a word for "life, mother." The word Moja is a Niger-Congo word for "water." However, the root is -oja, in Proto-Bantu it is *jiji "water." The m- is a prefix denoting "liquids," just as it is suffixed in Egyptian.
da-m m-oja k-m
have the same linguistic structure. The word km "black" has nothing to do with this root, as it derives from a word for "fire": i.e., PWS *ka, *kal, *kan "charcoal, fire, burn" (per Westermann, 1927).
Again, you have to study the rebus principle and paronymy to understand this feature of the script. If you ever read Mboli's work, he talks about this throughout the text. If you read Campbell-Dunn, Alan Gardiner, Bilolo, or any knowledgable scholar of hieroglyphics, you will get a better understanding of this. Again, these two words are not linked other than they sound alike.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: You don't get it. They are totally separate words all together.
So, it's possible, but you don't agree with it. Your position even oppose the interpretations of Diop and Obenga and most linguists for that matter.
It's also important to be open to all possibilities.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
It's important to be open, but it is more important to base your conclusions on the evidence. The evidence is always going to trump your assumptions. That is how science works. The science tells us:
1) km "black" and km(t) "farm, land, nation" are two different words. 2) that neither one came before the other. They were both inherited from their predialectical ancestor. It is no different than "their" and "there" in English. You wouldn't try to make an argument concerning if "their" came before "there" and if they belong to the same root. We know they are not.
The problem with many of us is that we want to be stuck in our ways. The evidence doesn't support either the Afrocentric or Eurocentric positions. However, a new Afrocentric consensus has emerged and I am not the only African linguist who has written on and argued this position. Like I said before, the linguists Mboli, Bilolo, Pfouma, Anselin, and I think Ndigi have written on this and come to the same conclusion. So to argue "linguists" differ in this opinion, the question is "which linguists?" And what is the reasoning for their assumptions. The African school uses both linguistics and philology to make this point. The glyphs shown above kills all of the other arguments. It is supported by the actual related African languages. The problem has been solved and we can move on.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: There is not connection other than there having the same consonant phonemes. The word km.t is actually two words. The first is PWS *ka "place, to dwell, to sit." This is the actual root. It has an old suffix -m that stands for "water, liquid." It is the same suffix that is found in Hebrew -dam- "blood." The root it *da "life, blood." Some languages will have this prefixed to the root. For instance, in Yoruba, we are familiar with the goddess YeMoja. The word Ye- is a word for "life, mother." The word Moja is a Niger-Congo word for "water." However, the root is -oja, in Proto-Bantu it is *jiji "water." The m- is a prefix denoting "liquids," just as it is suffixed in Egyptian.
da-m m-oja k-m
have the same linguistic structure.
I must admit this point of view makes more sense in the perspective that all those languages share a common language and the root km is genetically shared (not a loan). Pre-agricultural people, separated by distance and time, couldn't both by coincidences innovate black soil toward meaning arable land, as I said, it seems farfetched (unless it's a loan word, which I would guess is possible, but would change everything in this perceptive).
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: The problem with many of us is that we want to be stuck in our ways. The evidence doesn't support either the Afrocentric or Eurocentric positions. However, a new Afrocentric consensus has emerged and I am not the only African linguist who has written on and argued this position.
Personally, I don't really mind it that much if kmt doesn't really mean black people, black soil or land. I would guess 'eurocentric' as well as mainstream egyptology would have less problem with the interpretation of kmt meaning land than 'black people land' (while black soil is their current position). 'Black people land' sounds more like a name outsiders would give to a nation (like Sudan, Mauritania, Zanzibar, etc).
I'm more concerned about the relationship with other African languages (is it an AE innovation, common roots, loan from AE or another language, which and how many African languages have the same cognates? etc).
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
KM.t meas neither black people nor black land.
KM.t can be either the feminine of KM or KM as an adjective.
KM (biliteral), spelled k-m (two uniliterals) can mean black and can mean complete/completion.
It takes either a determinative or phrase context to yield black people (rm.t km.t) or black land (ta km.t)
Still I have doubt that people would name their country after the color of their skin. As I said, it sounds more like what outsiders would do like in Sudan, Mauritania, Zanzibar, etc. Naming a country after the color of their soil makes more sense, as well as after the name, in their language, for good livable/arable land. A bit like "The valley" and people from the Valley.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate: 'Black people land' sounds more like a name outsiders would give to a nation (like Sudan, Mauritania, Zanzibar, etc).
yes, one has to consider black compared to what that is a context problem
And look at the premise of the thread topic
the assumption is that Kemet must mean one of only two things
a) black colored land
or
b) black skinned people,
Only two choices a) or b) are given
, not an open question as to what Kemet means
-for example, what about
c) people of the black colored land
or what about other meanings not pertaining to skin or soil ?
People assume that if you can't find evidence of a) that the answer is therefore b) by default It's a flaw in logic additionally, another assumption, that "black people" in an ancient Egyptian context itself pertains to skin color
To prove that Egyptians had a tradition of labeling people by skin color needs more examples from their written texts.
lioness
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
@ ARtU
Fine with me. Everyone's entitled to their opinion.
Just remember the common names they used for their nation were TaWy and TaMery.
BTW I can't believe you digested those reference threads so quickly.
@Lyin'Ass
It has been explained to you KM.t can mean black or complete so stop your bullshit distortion. There are plenty usages of KM.t as shown in the Diop, Budge, and Erman&Grapow quotes.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler:
@Lyin'Ass
undoubtedly
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate: Still I have doubt that people would name their country after the color of their skin.
quote:Originally posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate: Personally, I don't really mind it that much if kmt doesn't really mean black people, black soil or land.
No one cares about what you like, think, want, desire, etc. It just doesn't seem to register with you that, on a scientific message board, you don't get to choose what you like and what your whims are. You either back up what you say and understand what you talk about or not. It's that simple. You clearly do neither, so just stay out of it like the rest of us, and let those who've actually put some thought into this do the talking.
Faith-based partisans aside, I will say this to those in the forum who actually use their brain when it comes to weighing interpretations, rather than sentiment, whim and dogma: since the earliest Egyptians would have interacted with light skinned populations in the Levant and elsewhere, they could have been made self-concious of their dark skin through interaction and have adopted this external view as an exonym, really no different from how African Americans began to take up the "black" self-label through interaction with non-Africans.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
^^ Don't lie to us, I know you care Sweety.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet:
I will say this: since the earliest Egyptians would have interacted with light skinned populations in the Levant and elsewhere, they could have been made self-concious of their dark skin by them and have adopted this external view as an exonym, really no different from how African Americans began to take up the "black" self-label.
then how would the Nahasi fit in ?
also many of the Levantines have somewhat dark skin
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,: then how would the Nahasi fit in ?
also many of the Levantines have somewhat dark skin [/QB]
What is the inconsistency? Nehesi has nothing to do with it and may even be a relatively new term, for all we know. I'm talking about proto-Egyptic speakers interacting with lighter skinned groups outside of Africa. Proto-Egyptic speakers encounter light skinned groups x, y and z and start to mould their self-image accordingly.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet:
Faith-based partisans aside, I will say this to those in the forum who actually use their brain when it comes to weighing interpretations, rather than sentiment, whim and dogma: since the earliest Egyptians would have interacted with light skinned populations in the Levant and elsewhere, they could have been made self-concious of their dark skin through interaction and have adopted this external view as an exonym, really no different from how African Americans began to take up the "black" self-label through interaction with non-Africans.
Yes, it's technically possible. Those are all assumptions. That's not the point of view of most linguists and egyptologists.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
^I have nothing to say to you, other than pointing out the blatant pretentiousness in your posts, when I see fit.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: ^I have nothing to say to you, other than pointing out the blatant pretentiousness in your posts, when I see fit.
Funny coming from somebody who tries to convince people that most linguists and egyptologists are wrong with some "could have" "would have". You're a cry baby and an idiot.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: Faith-based partisans aside, I will say this to those in the forum who actually use their brain when it comes to weighing interpretations, rather than sentiment, whim and dogma: since the earliest Egyptians would have interacted with light skinned populations in the Levant and elsewhere, they could have been made self-concious of their dark skin through interaction and have adopted this external view as an exonym, really no different from how African Americans began to take up the "black" self-label through interaction with non-Africans. [/QB]
Those who can read got the general gist of my post and know that I haven't said anything definite here about any of the interpretations laid out in this thread, and that my proposal wasn't meant to be anything more than a potential answer to the sentiment expressed in this thread that it would somehow be odd for proto-Egyptic speakers to self- identify as black in continent where dark is the norm. Those with some sense in them know that going beyond such a proposal and imply certainty in regards to that proposal, where it can't be given, would be more like partisans who habitually choose interpretations based on whims and faiths. It's up to anyone to form their own judgements about it; I really don't care whether the next man finds it credible.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: Those who can read got the general gist of my post and know that I haven't said anything definite here about any of the interpretations laid out in this thread,
I didn't either. That's why I used 'personally', 'I', 'could' and 'sounds like'. As I said, your point of view is technically possible but it's all based on assumptions. It's your personal opinion. It's NOT the the point of view of most linguists and egyptologists and it would take more than 'could have' 'would have' to convince me otherwise.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet:
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,: then how would the Nahasi fit in ?
also many of the Levantines have somewhat dark skin
What is the inconsistency? Nehesi has nothing to do with it and may even be a relatively new term, for all we know. I'm talking about proto-Egyptic speakers interacting with lighter skinned groups outside of Africa. Proto-Egyptic speakers encounter light skinned groups x, y and z and start to mould their self-image accordingly. [/QB]
Ok maybe but at least in recent times there are many Middle Easterners not that far off in skin tone from some of the AEs so the light skinned groups would have to be particularly specified and of enough power that Egyptians would feel need to distinguish themselves from them based on skin color.
It's too speculative. It would have to be a way of speaking about people, their skin and skin as a people identifer as a tradition in the Egyptian texts
usually the ancients might refer to a person's skin tone when the context is skin tone
"black skinned person"
But it seems it a relatively modern practice to call somebody a "black person" as a type of person directly and without context to a discussion on skin color or other physical attributes
I haven't seen examples in ancient writing where a color is put directly besides a word for person (or man or woman) perhaps until relatively later time, example Al-Jahiz's 9th century item Superiority Of The Blacks To The Whites
There has to be an established tradition in far earlier Egyptian texts to describe a people by skin color but where are the people of the South described this way, Kushites and so on ? I don't see it
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
We've already been through this. These people are genetically NOT carriers of as many ancestral skin colour related alleles as you're making it out to be. A good deal of their dark skin comes from tanning, whereas the Egyptians would have been dark, independent of any tanning. This has been both genetically confirmed by testing mummies for skin related genes, as well as microscopic observations of quote: "cells packed with melanin". I don't plan on going back and forth on this non- sense w/you. Additionally, you seem to be lost on my earlier proposal that this self-view would have originated with early Egyptic speakers, not dynastic Egyptic speakers.
quote:Originally posted by Wally: ...this posting, which I inadvertently started as a new topic, should have actually been posted here because it reflects the continuing scientific investigations stemming from the 1974 Cairo conference...It's an update:
quote:Originally posted by Wally: This site was provided by Nehesy. I used Google translate to give us the English translation from the French...
Letter from Cairo
quote:SOME GENETIC FEATURES OF ANCIENT EGYPTIANS
As part of research conducted by the Cairo University in collaboration with the Higher Council of Antiquities, it has been possible to achieve the anthropological characteristics of the Pharaohs.
According to preliminary indications, we reached a number of traits of the Pharaohs. It was possible to identify genes for size, color and eye color and hair of the king in the Pharaonic era in which samples were collected. They were placed on mummies in sarcophagi. A group of researchers has been able to separate those genes that have proven that the ancient Egyptians were not taller as previously thought. Their size was rather average, with the exception of Ramses II, whose analysis of genes has proven to be cut.
It has also been demonstrated that his skin was brown and his hair was black, not red. The color red has been found on his mummy is due to a dye (probably henna). His eyes were black with a slight tinge of brown.
Amenhotep III was short of stature, the color of his skin was a light brown. His eyes and his hair was black dark. These features show that the kings were related. All the kings at that time had a common origin in the family tree of the royal family. It is possible to determine a precise dates and times in the future. This research will confirm certain anthropological traits that have been studied before on the Pharaonic mummies. This will give preliminary indications about the traits, diseases and characteristics of the Pharaohs.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: We've already been through this. These people are genetically carriers of as many ancestral alleles as you're making it out to be. They're tanned, whereas the Egyptians would have been dark, independent of tanning. This has been both genetically confirmed by testing mummies for skin related genes, as well as microscopic observations of quote: "cells packed with melanin". I don't plan on going back and forth on this non-sense w/you.
You assume the people above are pale skinned but but they have suntans. I'm not sure you're correct about that.
But anyway the fact is that if all these people are sun tanned that's the way they look in the everday, dark.
So then the assumption is the the Egyptians considered not how they appeared on the everyday level but they still considered them pale skinned people and that innate skin color was important to them as identitiy and that therefore they, the Egyptians felt compelled to therfore distinguish themselves by calling themsleves black skinned people
It's a nice theory but I haven't seen Egyptian texts discussing skin color and ethnicity in this manner
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: I'm talking about proto-Egyptic speakers interacting with lighter skinned groups outside of Africa. Proto-Egyptic speakers encounter light skinned groups x, y and z and start to mould their self-image accordingly.
which light skinned groups of this predynatsic period could be candidates?
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
Great, now you're derailing the thread. I'm out.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: the Egyptians would have been dark, independent of any tanning. This has been both genetically confirmed by testing mummies for skin related genes, as well as microscopic
It may be true but the sample size and technology used to make this assumption broadly about most pre-late ancient Egyptians in general is miniscule. The "packed with melanin" article isn't even mentioned in current or old Egyptology texts. And Diop's methods haven't been verified by other researchers. I say this in context of current Egyptologists who support African origins of Ancient Egypt
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
The problem with this analysis is that km.t, when referred to a country, is never without the suffixal -t. Secondly, one has not addressed the concept of paronymy in the Egyptian language. Thirdly, and the most important, the hieroglyphs clearly show the determinatives with irrigated land signs in its earliest attestation. All other variants from that point on is based on that model, nothing to do with blackness. You never see km.t written with ANY of the determinatives which would indicate color, like the curly piece of hair.
When reviewing the living texts, they are always used in reference to a place/location.
Here are all the instances of km.t in the WB.
quote: kmtjw Ägypter Wb V S 128 kmtj [großes Gefäß aus Granit] Wb V S 128 kmt Ägypten Wb V S 126 kmt Ägypter Wb V S 127 kmt (vollständig) Bezahltes Wb V S 128 kmt Schwanz (des Krokodils) Wb V S 130 kmt [Bezeichnung für heilige schwarze Rinder] Wb V S 125 kmt [Göttin (schwarze Kuh)] Wb V S 125 kmt [Gerät] RdE 30 (1978) S 20; Meeks: AL 784397; Meeks: AL 793237 kmt [Krankheit] Wb V S 122 mdt-kmt ägyptische Sprache Wb V S 127 pt-n-kmt [Heliopolis] Wb I S 491 rA-n-kmt ägyptische Sprache Wb V S 127
Notice that km.t with the -t suffix is never defined as the word "black." This is because you will never find in an Egyptian text the word km.t used to describe any color. Like all European Egyptologists who don't understand African languages, they tried to force "black" on every reference of km; the same way all instances of nTr means "god." For instance, let's take the word kmt "the name of sacred black cattle." This is a misinterpretation. It is simply a word for "cattle." It is cognate with the word for cattle in the Nguni languages, ngombi. The /g/ sound is the result of the preceding nasal which weakened the plosive. It's just a word for cow. Examining African languages puts all of these false entries to rest. This is why we need our own dictionaries that corrects these mistakes made by people like Gardiner, Grapow and others who did not examine African languages in the process. Dr. Mubabinge Bilolo has done a good job in starting with his Tshiluba/Egyptian/Coptic dictionary. Also, Dr. Kipkoeech Sambu has a sizable lexicon with Kalenjiin/Egyptian/Coptic. Only by exploring the African languages do we get at the heart of the matter.
km.t = place/land/location/farm/livable land/land with water
km.t DOES NOT = black;
quote:Originally posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate:
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler: KM.t meas neither black people nor black land.
KM.t can be either the feminine of KM or KM as an adjective.
KM (biliteral), spelled k-m (two uniliterals) can mean black and can mean complete/completion.
It takes either a determinative or phrase context to yield black people (rm.t km.t) or black land (ta km.t)
Still I have doubt that people would name their country after the color of their skin. As I said, it sounds more like what outsiders would do like in Sudan, Mauritania, Zanzibar, etc. Naming a country after the color of their soil makes more sense, as well as after the name, in their language, for good livable/arable land. A bit like "The valley" and people from the Valley.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,:
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: the Egyptians would have been dark, independent of any tanning. This has been both genetically confirmed by testing mummies for skin related genes, as well as microscopic
It may be true but the sample size and technology used to make this assumption broadly about most pre-late ancient Egyptians in general is miniscule. The "packed with melanin" article isn't even mentioned in current or old Egyptology texts. And Diop's methods haven't been verified by other researchers. I say this in context of current Egyptologists who support African origins of Ancient Egypt [/qb]
Congratulations: you've stooped to a new low of whim-based denial.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: Great, now you're derailing the thread. I'm out.
To call me asking you a direct question about a statement you made is physically impossible to be derailing
Anyway this thread was a weak ass bump, just what you had complained of, the same tired old topics gone over and over again, same racial politics
It's like another Godzilla movie, they cant think of anything new
Don't like lioness replies? If I get 4 votes to not post I'll stay away for a week and others can carry on unencombered by my challenges
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,:
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: I'm talking about proto-Egyptic speakers interacting with lighter skinned groups outside of Africa. Proto-Egyptic speakers encounter light skinned groups x, y and z and start to mould their self-image accordingly.
which light skinned groups of this predynastic period could be candidates?
^^^ you're out because I called your bluff, next batter
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: The problem with this analysis is that km.t, when referred to a country, is never without the suffixal -t. Secondly, one has not addressed the concept of paronymy in the Egyptian language. Thirdly, and the most important, the hieroglyphs clearly show the determinatives with irrigated land signs in its earliest attestation. All other variants from that point on is based on that model, nothing to do with blackness. You never see km.t written with ANY of the determinatives which would indicate color, like the curly piece of hair.
When reviewing the living texts, they are always used in reference to a place/location.
Here are all the instances of km.t in the WB.
quote: kmtjw Ägypter Wb V S 128 kmtj [großes Gefäß aus Granit] Wb V S 128 kmt Ägypten Wb V S 126 kmt Ägypter Wb V S 127 kmt (vollständig) Bezahltes Wb V S 128 kmt Schwanz (des Krokodils) Wb V S 130 kmt [Bezeichnung für heilige schwarze Rinder] Wb V S 125 kmt [Göttin (schwarze Kuh)] Wb V S 125 kmt [Gerät] RdE 30 (1978) S 20; Meeks: AL 784397; Meeks: AL 793237 kmt [Krankheit] Wb V S 122 mdt-kmt ägyptische Sprache Wb V S 127 pt-n-kmt [Heliopolis] Wb I S 491 rA-n-kmt ägyptische Sprache Wb V S 127
Notice that km.t with the -t suffix is never defined as the word "black." This is because you will never find in an Egyptian text the word km.t used to describe any color. Like all European Egyptologists who don't understand African languages, they tried to force "black" on every reference of km; the same way all instances of nTr means "god." For instance, let's take the word kmt "the name of sacred black cattle." This is a misinterpretation. It is simply a word for "cattle." It is cognate with the word for cattle in the Nguni languages, ngombi. The /g/ sound is the result of the preceding nasal which weakened the plosive. It's just a word for cow. Examining African languages puts all of these false entries to rest. This is why we need our own dictionaries that corrects these mistakes made by people like Gardiner, Grapow and others who did not examine African languages in the process. Dr. Mubabinge Bilolo has done a good job in starting with his Tshiluba/Egyptian/Coptic dictionary. Also, Dr. Kipkoeech Sambu has a sizable lexicon with Kalenjiin/Egyptian/Coptic. Only by exploring the African languages do we get at the heart of the matter.
km.t = place/land/location/farm/livable land/land with water
km.t DOES NOT = black;
Interesting thanks for all the info.
How many attestations is there of KMT with the determinative of irrigated land that you know of? What do mainstream linguists and egyptologists say about it? Did they missed it? Is it too new for them?
I agree that having knowledge of African languages can provide knowledge not explored by most linguists and egyptologists (because they don't reconsider the classification of language families and their interrelation). As I said, it's more than probable that African populations sharing a common genetic history (like E-P2/PN2) also shared a common language in the past.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
I am not sure in total. But I cited one study in one of my previous posts. Here is the full citation:
GOELET, Ogden. (1999). "Kemet and Other Egyptian Terms for Their Land." In: R. Chazan, W.W. Hallo, L.H. Schiffman (Eds). Ki Baruch Hu: Ancient Near Eastern, Biblical, and Judaic Studies in Honor of Baruch A. Levine. Eisenbrauns. Winona Lake, Indiana. pp. 23-42.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: I am not sure in total. But I cited one study in one of my previous posts. Here is the full citation:
GOELET, Ogden. (1999). "Kemet and Other Egyptian Terms for Their Land." In: R. Chazan, W.W. Hallo, L.H. Schiffman (Eds). Ki Baruch Hu: Ancient Near Eastern, Biblical, and Judaic Studies in Honor of Baruch A. Levine. Eisenbrauns. Winona Lake, Indiana. pp. 23-42.
It there a few or a lot found yet? Are we talking 1? 2? as much as a dozen?
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
.
Deshret means red desert land
.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: I am not sure in total. But I cited one study in one of my previous posts. Here is the full citation:
GOELET, Ogden. (1999). "Kemet and Other Egyptian Terms for Their Land." In: R. Chazan, W.W. Hallo, L.H. Schiffman (Eds). Ki Baruch Hu: Ancient Near Eastern, Biblical, and Judaic Studies in Honor of Baruch A. Levine. Eisenbrauns. Winona Lake, Indiana. pp. 23-42.
Ogden Goelet. Clinical Professor of Middle Eastern and Islamic Studies.
I would assume just a few, but there aren't that many documents in the early period in which km.t was used as a political designation. Both km.t and tA-mrj wasn't used as a place-name until the middle kingdom. Before then Egypt was simply known as xnw "the residence," literally "the interior" (inside).
Even still. Much of the time km.t didn't have any determinative at all. The O49 glyph came later and became the standard. But as I demonstrated before, the N23, N36 and O49 determinatives were interchangeable. In words dealing with land, these determinatives are interchangeable for the same words, as demonstrated with spA.t.
So it wouldn't matter if it was one, two or tweenty. The earliest usage of this term in regards to Egypt, the polity, had the N23 determinative that is vocalized as tA and whose symbol means irrigated land. What people don't realize either is that the version of km.t with the people determinitive only has one instance in the known Egyptian records.
But even this is based off of paronymy. It is a pun. The two people representing "people," but also denoting a "place." In African languages, to "live" anywhere is to be able to "sit" some place. As I stated earlier, the word km.t is two words: *ka "to sit, place, dwell" + -m "an affix denoting water/liquid." The word for to "sit" in many African languages is also repreented as k-m. For example:
ciKomo, nkum, nKam, muKam "to sit, location" shi-Kama "sit, be seated"; "wait, be quiet" –iikala “to sit, to remain, be still”
A synonym in ciLuba is somba “sit, live, reside, conduct, sit down to chat, retire, relax;” Shaali, sòmba1-> el-Badil ⇒ cisòmbelu ≋ cisòmbedi "living room, lounge, residence;" lusòmbèlà ≋ cisòmbedi "where one sits, shelter."
As I note in my publication on kmt
quote: A few terms we want to highlight, that when combined with certain affixes, help to reinforce the k-m root as a territory, land or political entity: shikama (⇒badila) budishikamine(a) "independence, freedom, sovereignty [political] dishikamina "be autonomous, independent;" (Reflective in…) lunshikaminu (<shikama [n + i>nyi] ⇒Badila) "way to stay long in one place or near the same person, being sticky." Km.t (ciKam) therefore is an “independent, autonomous nation.” It would make sense given that this term was used as a national designation after the internal turmoil of the first intermediate period. If we assume that the first intermediate period was a kind of “civil war/strife,” then it would make sense that the uniters sought a name which captured their new found independence.
Remember, before the first intermediate period, according to Diodorus, Egypt was a colony of Nubia/Kush. When they got their indepedence, this is when km.t and tA-mrj become names for Egypt.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: Remember, before the first intermediate period, according to Diodorus, Egypt was a colony of Nubia/Kush. When they got their indepedence, this is when km.t and tA-mrj become names for Egypt. [/QB]
what dynasty? 7th ?
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
The testimony from Diodorus Siculus in his Histories book III, is that Egypt itself was a colony of the Kushites. That means from dynasty I to dynasty 11/12 it was under Kushite control. The first intermediate period is a time of internal struggle and civil war set forth by a drought which devastated the country.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: The testimony from Diodorus Siculus in his Histories book III, is that Egypt itself was a colony of the Kushites. That means from dynasty I to dynasty 11/12 it was under Kushite control.
do you believe that? It doesn't correspond to Manetho of a couple centuries earlier
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
Yes I believe it because the language and archaeological evidence supports Didodorus' statements. Cemetery L at Qustul supports this contention.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: Yes I believe it because the language and archaeological evidence supports Didodorus' statements. Cemetery L at Qustul supports this contention.
"The earliest known examples of Egyptian royal iconography, such as, e.g., the representation of the Red Crown on a late Naqada I (c. 3500 BC) pottery vessel from Abydos or the triumphal scenes in the painting from Hierakonpolis Tomb 100 (c. 3400-3300 BC) are much older than the Qustul censer. It seems thus that it was the Qustul rulers who adopted symbols of royal authority developed in Egypt and not vice versa."
Török, László. Between Two Worlds : The Frontier Region Between Ancient Nubia and Egypt, 3700 BC-AD 500. In Probleme Der Ägyptologie. Leiden: Brill. 2009. ISBN 9789004171978
Vessel, Predynastic Period, Naqada II, ca. 3450–3300 B.C.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Of course w/t fucking bitch Lyin'Ass back from hell all discourse is liable to get derailed and hi-jacked because posters will not be able to ignore him.
Nehesi? Explained long ago, using scene 30 of the Gate of Teka Hra from the Book of Gates, they too are part of the Black Community(KM.t:nwt). The DSR.t:nwt of that text includes the "Eastern Libyans" and the "Asiatics."
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
This says nothing as the "red crown" was a symbol of the polity of what we now call lower Egypt. There was no "lower Egypt" then. The polity of Egypt didn't come from the Delta down, it came from Nubia up and the "white" crown is the one under examination. When the kingdoms united, the "red" crown became an icon of Egypt as whole along side the white crown. In other words, the White crown was NOT a symbol of the Delta and they didn't "borrow" this icon from those in the Delta. Neither did they borrow the other elements that became emblematic of Egypt. The red crown could be older and still wouldn't have any bearings on the fact that the culture of Egypt, including its form of government and language, comes from Sudan as is well known in the historical record. The red crown inclusion is just the Nubians amalgamating the Delta kingdom's iconography into the confederation that the Nubians set up. So one has to be able to know how to read the documentation.
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,:
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: Yes I believe it because the language and archaeological evidence supports Didodorus' statements. Cemetery L at Qustul supports this contention.
"The earliest known examples of Egyptian royal iconography, such as, e.g., the representation of the Red Crown on a late Naqada I (c. 3500 BC) pottery vessel from Abydos or the triumphal scenes in the painting from Hierakonpolis Tomb 100 (c. 3400-3300 BC) are much older than the Qustul censer. It seems thus that it was the Qustul rulers who adopted symbols of royal authority developed in Egypt and not vice versa."
Török, László. Between Two Worlds : The Frontier Region Between Ancient Nubia and Egypt, 3700 BC-AD 500. In Probleme Der Ägyptologie. Leiden: Brill. 2009. ISBN 9789004171978
Vessel, Predynastic Period, Naqada II, ca. 3450–3300 B.C.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
To understand what is black or what is complete one must pay strict atention to the determinative.
If one cannot read hieroglyphics one does a great disservice to the unknowing who read incorrect and false posts claiming to demonstrate KM.t = black is not in THE Woerterbuch.
Beware of people disagreeing solely due to personality conflict.
Here let' get it right, about Erman & Grapow's Woerterbuch enries for KM.t (which in fact equals black and it equals complete), for those who refused to follow the earlier given links I will present fresh copies in another thread.
It has all of the WB entries. In the section that says "Enter the transcription to be searched for:" enter the word "kmt" (without the quotation marks).
See what entries come up for the tri-consonantal root. The entries will be displayed in German. If you can't read or speak German, then just use Google translate.
Now, do the same for the bi-consonantal root "km." All entries with k-m will come up, including kmt. But only pay attention to the words that are just "km." Notice that you will NEVER see the word "km" used to denote "Egypt." Only "kmt" is used.
Tukuler lacks methodology on this question and is trying to hold on to outdated ideas. For the record, the WB dictionaries is the most extensive single set of dictionaries. Although it is extensive, it does not have ALL of the ancient Egyptian terms. One can see that it does not have "kmt" from the Ogden examples. It even lacks kmt variation with the nTr determinative. Did you all know there is a variant of kmt with a nTr determinative? Does this word then men "the black gods land?" If you limit yourself to WB dictionary, your analysis is incomplete.
Here I brought Dr. Mubabinge Bilolo, foremost Egyptologist of Africa and linguist, to the University of Houston to speak on his work. Starting around 45 min. into the lecture is where he starts talking about km.t.
He is speaking in French, but we have a translator for you all. See what he argues, based on the comparative data with his own language. To my knowledge, he doesn't have the Ogden data, he's never heard of Mboli and he is not citing data from Pfouma. This is his own analysis and he too came to the same conclusions as I and other scholars who looked at this question.
Anyone attempting to make a kmt = "black" nation doesn't know jack and can't read mdw nTr.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
kmt is not the root km is the root
There are many woerterbuchen. Woerterbuch is simply the German or ictionary.
Erman&Grapow is old thus missing words found after its publication.
I don't have Hannig.
I don't think anyone has published an exaustive unabridged dictionary of the Ancient Egyptian Language.
Here's Beinlich translation of schwarz into AEL
an epic fail for deniers of km not meaning black.
As or the asinine coment below I have something like 10 or more threads involving KM.t, so enjoy
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler: KM.t does not mean black skin.
KM.t means black and it means complete.
It takes a determinative to ascertain what is black or what is complete.
Asar his Tukular character is so desparate he's got three separate threads going on about this. What do you make of this remark?
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
When we reference the Grapow dictionary in Egyptology, we always write the reference WB. This is customary in the field.
k-m is a root, but km doesn't only mean "black." It also means disease and it uses the same glyph. As noted in the video, the k-m root means 15 different things. Again, the European lexiographers created dictionaries without consulting African languages. Only African languages help explain the glyphs.
As Bilolo noted in his lecture, km also denotes a "wet land" in his native language. This is without the knowledge of the Hammamat graffito and other texts. When I showed him the actual glyphs with N23 determinative, I confirmed for him something that still exist in his native language.
Tukuler and others can deny this all he wants. The facts are undeniable and no one has EVER found any determinative to denote color of any kind or found the usage of kmt as an adjective to describe anyone. Once you try to apply their method to other words in the Egyptian language, their method crumbles because they cannot justify such a reading.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: km.t = place/land/location/farm/livable land/land with water
km.t DOES NOT = black;
--Leonard H. Lesko, A Dictionary of Late Egyptian
The entries from this dictionary don't seem to support your claims. The only word remotely related to several of the proposals you made is 'vinegard', all the other entries don't seem to relate km to what you translate it as. Thoughts?
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by mentu: The argument is that kemet means 'black people' although euros maintain it means 'black land', however ancient kemetans used determinatives to indicate the exact meaning of words, and the word 'kemet' has no determinative of land,a drawing of a man and a woman is idicated.
For those who have a deeper knowledge of medu neter,where did euros get the land issue?
Is there any word in medu neter with indicating determinatives of land and people on the same word to indicate 'black people of the black land'.Hence euros clinging to this definition?
I will appreciate your input.
quote:Originally posted by mentu:
Topic: » Black land or black people »
Obviously when mentu said "black people" he meant people who are black due to dark skin color
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler: KM.t does not mean black skin.
KM.t means black and it means complete.
It takes a determinative to ascertain what is black or what is complete.
KM.t[rmt.st] = Black[people] i.e., Word + [determinative] Page
^^^ therefore Tukular means they are black people for some reason other than dark skin
This is why I'm needed I blow away the smoke from his cigar
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Yes you blow!
But I wouldn't let you 100 meters near my cigar.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
He is still under the impression that someone is arguing that km doesn't mean black. My argument that km = black is only ONE meaning for this k-m root given in Egyptian. This is why it is important to follow directions so you don't get bamboozled by those who refuse to use proper methodology. I informed you all to type in km. Here are some results:
quote: km Beiwort des Gottes von Athribis Wb V S 125 km Dienst Wb V S 130 km Haufen brennender Holzkohlen, Meiler Wb V S 122 km Pupille Wb V S 124 km Schwarzes Wb V S 124 km Serapeum in Memphis Wb V S 125 km [Krone von Unterägypten] Wb V S 122 km klagen Wb V S 130 km schwarzes Leder Wb V S 124 km schwarz Wb V S 122 km vollenden Wb V S 128 km wie Wb V S 122
Here we are ONLY looking for words with the km root, with no affixes or additional words. Now, you can go to the WB and look at the primary glyphs.
Let's take for example the WB entry km Dienst Wb V S 130. The word dienst means "service, duty." Now go to page 130 of the WB for the letter [k]. Notice this word is spelled with the same glyph as km.t "Egypt." Why would it be erroneous to interpret this word as "black service?" What would indicate that the service is "black." Is there such a thing as a black service? What does that look like?
As we can see, the word km DOES NOT mean black. There is A word km that means black, but every instance of this word does not mean "black." So to insert black into every entry is lazy scholarship and obviously someone doesn't know anything about African languages.
We can do this for other words. Go to km "klagen" Wb V S 130. The word klagen means "to complain." Is this "black complaining?" What the hell is "black complaining?" Notice, when you go to page 130 of the [k] part of the WB, it too is spelled with the same glyph as km.t.
We can do this all day. Just admit, you haven't studied this well. Let it go.
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler:
Here's Beinlich translation of schwarz into AEL
an epic fail for deniers of km not meaning black.
As or the asinine coment below I have something like 10 or more threads involving KM.t, so enjoy
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
A Tiparillo is a shorter, thinner and milder cigar
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
Are you slow too? Did you even read where you can find the earliest known glyphs for km.t = "Egypt"
Here it is again from my earlier article:
quote: The earliest forms of the word km.t have the Alan Gardiner sign N23 as the determinative (see Gardiner 2007:33). It is a sign of “irrigated or cultivated land.” Adolf Erman and Hermann Grapow in their Wörterbuch der Aegyptischen Sprache state that the earliest form of kmt belongs to a Dynasty VI Old Kingdom inscription in Dendarah. Ogden Goelet (in the book Ki Baruch Hu: Ancient Near Eastern, Biblical and Judaic Studies in Honor of Baruch A. Levine, 1999: 32)argues the earliest is the XI or XII Dynasty. The following appears in the Hammamat graffito of an early Dynasty XII official Antef which referred primarily to the Nile Valley as the place people dwelled (Hammmamat 199, temp. Amenemhat I).
Couyat and Montet, Quadi Hammamat, 100-102.
Your dictionary entries mean nothing against the primary documentation. Go to the actual documents and try and make that argument.
quote:Originally posted by Swenet:
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: km.t = place/land/location/farm/livable land/land with water
km.t DOES NOT = black;
--Leonard H. Lesko, A Dictionary of Late Egyptian
These entries from this dictionary don't seem to support your claims. The only word remotely related to several of the proposals you made is vinegard, all the other entries don't relate km to what you translate it as. Thoughts?
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
Asar what does this form mean:
KM.t[rmt.st]
.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
Thank you Swenet.
A lot contained in your entry copies was looked into many years ago when Jamie Petrol tried to use Erman&Grapow against me like Asar but both to no effect except their own embarassment of their ignorance.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: Are you slow too? Did you even read where you can find the earliest known glyphs for km.t = "Egypt"
No need to get your panties up in a bunch. I simply asked you for your thoughts and why the dictionaries don't reflect your claims.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: Your dictionary entries mean nothing against the primary documentation. Go to the actual documents and try and make that argument.
What is against N23 pointing to kmt simply meaning 'Egypt' in this instance? The way the author mentions ascending to 'place x' and descending to "kmt" is highly reminiscent of how they spoke of going into the desert and going back to Egypt, given that the part of Egypt they inhabited (i.e. the Nile Valley) is situated in a basin. It seems like nothing is against it, and that you're invoking explanations of this text that fit what you want it to say, because even IF something is unique about these early uses of kmt, determinatives don't create new meaning not inherent used words themselves. And since they don't create new meaning, there is no way a determinative can make kmt have all these meanings you attribute to it if the said meanings don't appear in the dictionaries.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
This is why I give references. Even Lioness posted a link where you can read the whole study. I don't have time to scan the whole article for the forum. This is a simple logic.
The earliest attestation of km.t in reference to the country doesn't occur until the beginning of the middle kingdom. These designations either do not have a determinative, or has the N23 determinative. Therefore, when any claims that km.t refers to "black nation" is not based on the evidence. Only later is O49 /nj.wt/ used with the word km.t. This designation is built off the N23 designation. We know they refer to the same thing because the signs are interchangeable. This means that the same word that uses N23 will also use O49 in another variation of the word. The example given in this thread is spA.t (Vygus, 2012: 801).
N23 is pronounce /tA/ as in tA-mry. It is a sign for irrigated land. In other words wetland, land with rivers. The other African languages confirm this meaning:
Basa kaam "farm" Doai kaam "farm" Esitako ekaam "farm" Ngodzin kam "farm" Runda kumadin "farm"
and
Balue kom "country, region" Okam ekoma "city" Ndzem kom "rural area" Bateteka komwa "country, region" Bakweri kumi "country" Zulu khumbi "nation" Pende guma "country, region" Dewoi gumo "village, city" Caga gumi "rural area" Lingala gumba "city" Galla/Oromo gomdji "land which grows warm and is healthy cultivated"
This word k-m is also in Indo-European and is attached to many place-names as a suffix. However, Negro-Egyptienne /k/ becomes /h/ in Indo-European. It is found in the following place-names:
You say the word "kmt" everyday in English: it is the word "home" in English. Let's prove it. Here is the etymology of "home" from the Online Etymological Dictionary:
quote: HOME: O.E. ham "dwelling, house, estate, village," from P.Gmc. *khaim- (cf. O.Fris. hem "home, village," O.N. heimr "residence, world," heima "home," Ger. heim "home," Goth. haims "village"), from PIE base *kei- "to lie, settle down" (cf. Gk. kome, Lith. kaimas "village;" O.C.S. semija "domestic servants").
The word kmt meaning a "place" is OLD and is older than Egypt. You wouldn't say Billing-ham is the "Black Billing." Or Knotting-Ham palace is the "Black Knotting palace." The terms -ham, -ing and -ton/-tun are suffixed to many place names in Indo-European and are used to mean “farm, manor, estate” or “village.”
This is why in Hebrew Abraham means "Father of a Nation." Ab is the word for "father," -r- connective, with -ham meaning NATION. It is the same word as KMT and all of the other words we find in Africa. But we know we didn't get the term from I-E because /h/ does not morph into /k/. The order is k>h. Compare with Berber (Tamazign) akham “home.” All the word km means is a HOME, a place where you DWELL, where you can LIVE. Life/home is where the WATER IS.
You are harping on dictionary entries when the African linguists, including myself, am telling you the dictionaries are WRONG. We who engage in primary research can say such things with confidence because we have the glyphs to back us up. You guys have conjecture. Now please, stop this nonsense.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: You are harping on dictionary entries when the African linguists, including myself, am telling you the dictionaries are WRONG.
There has to be a way to test your claims and if your answer is that "the dictionaries must be wrong, then", your theory is not falsifiable and unscientific. Can you give me an independent source that verifies your claim that kmt can mean "place/land/location /farm/livable land/land with water"? My bet is that you can't because your interpretation relies on the false notion that determinatives ought to be read, judging by:
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: N23 is pronounce /tA/ as in tA-mry.
Posted by Trollkillah # Ish Gebor (Member # 18264) on :
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,:
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: the Egyptians would have been dark, independent of any tanning. This has been both genetically confirmed by testing mummies for skin related genes, as well as microscopic
It may be true but the sample size and technology used to make this assumption broadly about most pre-late ancient Egyptians in general is miniscule. The "packed with melanin" article isn't even mentioned in current or old Egyptology texts. And Diop's methods haven't been verified by other researchers. I say this in context of current Egyptologists who support
African origins of Ancient Egypt
What are talking about, it hasn't been verified?
I have posted the study, repeatedly. Where mummies from the Valley Of Kings have been tested on the melanin dosage. And where Diop's study was confirmed to be correct. I think that you are delusional.
Posted by Trollkillah # Ish Gebor (Member # 18264) on :
quote:Originally posted by Swenet:
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,:
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: the Egyptians would have been dark, independent of any tanning. This has been both genetically confirmed by testing mummies for skin related genes, as well as microscopic
It may be true but the sample size and technology used to make this assumption broadly about most pre-late ancient Egyptians in general is miniscule. The "packed with melanin" article isn't even mentioned in current or old Egyptology texts. And Diop's methods haven't been verified by other researchers. I say this in context of current Egyptologists who support African origins of Ancient Egypt
Congratulations: you've stooped to a new low of whim-based denial.
Correct. But I honestly think that person is senile.
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
SMH. Because you do not do primary research, I understand your limitations. My question to you is, how do you know the dictionary is right? The Egyptians didn't have dictionaries. How can you verify that Gardiner, Erman & Grapow, Vygus, Allen and others are correct when they claim a word means this or that? Where is your research where you verified their claims? You are asking the wrong questions.
And as far as N23, it is pronounced as tA. Do you have the JSesh program? If you do, go to the HIEROGLYPHIC PALATTE and go to the N's and click on N23. What is the vocalization for this word? Remember, JSesh is a program professionals use to transliterate and to type out ancient Egyptian texts for their publications (including myself).
It is no different than O49 being pronounced nj.wt and is a determinative. All determinitives are vocalized. The modern researcher doesn't know all the vocalizations, but they have discovered some. You'd know this if you did your own research.
quote:Originally posted by Swenet:
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: You are harping on dictionary entries when the African linguists, including myself, am telling you the dictionaries are WRONG.
There has to be a way to test your claims and if your answer is that "the dictionaries must be wrong, then", your theory is not falsifiable and unscientific. Can you give me an independent source that verifies your claim that kmt can mean place/land/location /farm/livable land/land with water?
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: N23 is pronounce /tA/ as in tA-mry.
This is false. N23 is not pronounced. One doesn't pronounce determinatives.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Trollkillah # Ish Gebor: What are talking about, it hasn't been verified?
I have posted the study, repeatedly. Where mummies from the Valley Of Kings have been tested on the melanin dosage. I think that you are delusional.
Show me one book by a trained professional Egyptologist or forensics expert who validates Diop's melanin dosage or that this test can be applied with accurate results on ancient mummies
Posted by Trollkillah # Ish Gebor (Member # 18264) on :
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,:
quote:Originally posted by Trollkillah # Ish Gebor: What are talking about, it hasn't been verified?
I have posted the study, repeatedly. Where mummies from the Valley Of Kings have been tested on the melanin dosage. I think that you are delusional.
Show me one book by a trained professional Egyptologist or forensics expert who validates Diop's melanin dosage or that this test can be applied with accurate results on ancient mummies
Are seriously saying it hasn't been posted before?
I am wondering, are you the same poster or someone else who makes use of the same account?
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: My question to you is, how do you know the dictionary is right?
In this instance I know the dictionary is right, because per your own admissions, the only reason why your reading of kmt differs from the dictionaries is because you're (wrongly) attributing "place/land/location /farm/livable land/land with water" etc. to a glyph that has no phonetic value, the way it is implemented in that text. Going against a dictionary with that sort of an interpretation makes it a no-brainer that the fault lies with your reading of the text.
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: And as far as N23, it is pronounced as tA.
If what you're saying were true (i.e. that it has sounds attached to it), it would also have to function as an ideogram, but it doesn't look like an ideogram. In any case, in the context in which the piece you cited used it, it's clearly a determinative and has no phonetic value.
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: All determinitives are vocalized. The modern researcher doesn't know all the vocalizations, but they have discovered some. You'd know this if you did your own research.
You're obviously wrong because determinatives were optional. You can see this in your own cited piece where kmt is written without N23 in one instance, and with N23 in another, without it affecting it's translation into "black land" on both occasions. But, just for the hell of it, what is your source for this claim?
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
Nevermind. It's obvious you don't read hieroglyphs and this is a waste of time. Good luck.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
^Cop out, but sure, do as you please.
^As the entire forum can see, your own text indicates that N23 ( ) doesn't affect the translation of kmt when it is or isn't used. In both instances, with and without it, the author translates kmt as "black land". This is utterly impossible if, as you wrongly claim, should be read out loud as "land".
Moreover:
quote:A determinative, also known as a taxogram or semagram, is an ideogram used to mark semantic categories of words in logographic scripts which helps to disambiguate interpretation. They have no direct counterpart in spoken language, though they may derive historically from glyphs for real words, and functionally they resemble classifiers in East Asian and sign languages.
quote:Determinatives are non-phonetic glyphs which give extra information about the meanings of words, distinguish homophones and serve as word dividers.
quote:The Egyptian writing system is complex but relatively straightforward. The inventory of signs is divided into three major categories, namely (1) logograms, signs that write out morphemes; (2) phonograms, signs that represent one or more sounds); and (3) determinatives, signs that denote neither morpheme nor sound but help with the meaning of a group of signs that precede them.
Mdw ntr 101. But I guess, just like the fast one you pulled earlier, where you tried to make Egyptian dictionaries out to be wrong because they don't reflect your theories (circular reasoning), these sites are all wrong and you're right!
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
Brother, you can't read hieroglphs. Your claim is that km.t nj.wt means "Black people/nation." If that is the case, then km.t tA (N23) would mean "Black water/land." The determinative reaffirms the meaning of the primary word. Thus, if the determinitive has to deal with LAND, then the word is about LAND, not BLACKNESS. The same with nj.wt which is used as city, nation, etc. The word isn't kemet nation, it is NATION because the determintive (the classifier) DETERMINES the meaning. Do you know what DETERMINE means? In this script, the word by itself means NOTHING. The determinitives DETERMINE the meaning of the word. And since the determinative has nothing to do with COLOR, but LAND and NATION, one has NO argument for kemet meaning "black" anything.
This is why the African terms support that km.t nj.wt, which you just admit isn't vocalized, means "nation":
Balue kom "country, region" Okam ekoma "city" Ndzem kom "rural area" Bateteka komwa "country, region" Bakweri kumi "country" Zulu khumbi "nation" Pende guma "country, region" Dewoi gumo "village, city" Caga gumi "rural area" Lingala gumba "city" Galla/Oromo gomdji "land which grows warm and is healthy cultivated"
This tells me you that you do not know how to read hieroglyphs. You need to stop and learn and then come back and try to debate me on this topic. As argued before, mainstream Egyptologists try to force "black" on the word when the glyphs do not support such a claim. When you see km as black, you often see the determinative of black hair. You NEVER see this determinitive with kmt (Egypt). EVER! This signals it has NOTHING to do with color and everything to do with LAND; livable land with water.
You guys cannot be this slow. And I know that is ad hominem, but you guys are serious and can't read the glyphs to save your life. Nonsensical arguments and your only rebuttal is an appeal to authority. That is a logical fallacy and a sign that one doesn't know the field enough to make an informed critique. Learn how to read mdw nTr first, then come back to argue. When you learn, I guarantee you that you won't have an argument.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
Answer this post in a logically coherent way and we'll see if there is any merit to what you're saying.
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: ^Cop out, but sure, do as you please.
^As the entire forum can see, your own text indicates that N23 ( ) doesn't affect the translation of kmt when it is or isn't used. In both instances, with and without it, the author translates kmt as "black land". This is utterly impossible if, as you wrongly claim, should be read out loud as "land".
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
My point has been proven. You have yet to tell us what a determinitive is. Saying that a determinitive is not pronounced is not the same thing as telling what a determinitive is. I asked you a specific question. What does the word DETERMINE mean? When you can answer that question for us, try to apply your logic to the Egypt question.
For example, here is a real life example of a determinative. In Egyptian the word sn means "brother." How would I DETERMINE if this word was masculine or feminine in Egyptian? I'd know it was feminine if it had a -t suffix. Thus, sn.t "sister." The gender suffix DETERMINES how the word is to be interpreted.
In English, how would I know that a word was plural or not? Often, the word is suffixed by -s. I know the difference between a BLOCK vs. BLOCKS because the -s suffix DETERMINES the plurality.
In Bantu, the noun-classifiers are DETERMINITIVES. They DETERMINE the meaning of the word. For example, NTU means "Being." But NTU doesn't exist as a word by itself in Bantu. It must be preceded by a DETERMINITIVE. So if the MU- determinitive is placed in front, I know that the word deals with a singular HUMAN. The word MU- means "person." If the determinitive BA- is placed in front, then the word deals with "people" in the plural. Thus:
MU-NTU = PERSON BA-NTU = PEOPLE
We can also had HA- "locative prefix" meaning "a place." SO HA-NTU is a PLACE OF BEING. All determinatives are grammatical. The Egyptian determinatives are classifiers. The graphical determinatives DETERMINE how the nature of the word.
km.t tA (N23) = kemet (land/place). It is the equivalent to Bantu HA- "place."
The determinative tells us what kind of word it is. The N23, N36 and O49 classifiers tell us that KM.T is a PLACE, not a COLOR. As noted by Sir Alan Gardiner, the N23 and N36 signs may also be used to denote the earth, the country (A. Gardiner, Egyptian Grammar, 488). It is able to do so because it is pronounced tA, the same as "earth, country" and it is a sign of irrigated land. As I demonstrated (and Gardiner notes), N23, N36 and O49 are interchangeable. Thus, N23 = O49 and both mean "country, land, city, location, etc." Also noted by Gardiner is that N23 was also interchangeable with N21. N21 is also a LAND determinative.
Now, go back to your JSesh program and hit the hieroglyphic palette. We are going to go to school for a moment. Go to the N's and hit N21. What is the sound value? You are going to be given two values: wDb and jdb. The wDb form is the older form. /D/ merged into /d/ in the New Kingdom. The capital /D/ is the /dj/ sound. This sound derives from a /g/ sound. This fact is well known in Egyptology. Therefore, wDb = wgb, which actually should be gwb, given the Law of Belova (look it up).
Now, this is a dialectical variant of the word gbb "earth" in Egyptian. This is personified as the god Geb "the earth god" among the Egyptians. The word km and gb are the same word. The issue here is a matter of voicing. Thus, k > g, and m > b. We see this reflected, again, in our African examples:
Balue kom "country, region" Okam ekoma "city" Ndzem kom "rural area" Bateteka komwa "country, region" Bakweri kumi "country" Zulu khumbi "nation" Pende guma "country, region" Dewoi gumo "village, city" Caga gumi "rural area" Lingala gumba "city" Galla/Oromo gomdji "land which grows warm and is healthy cultivated"
Are you paying attention? Notice how we go from k-m to g-mb or kh-mb? We argue that Egypt was a mixed African society. This is how you tell beyond "skulls." The language reveals ALL. This is why the African school is big on linguistics because without it you are powerless.
This is what I mean by you need to study. You are out of your league here.
Posted by Clyde Winters (Member # 10129) on :
Asar you wrote
quote:
Now, this is a dialectical variant of the word gbb "earth" in Egyptian. This is personified as the god Geb "the earth god" among the Egyptians. The word km and gb are the same word. The issue here is a matter of voicing. Thus, k > g, and m > b. We see this reflected, again, in our African examples:
Balue kom "country, region" Okam ekoma "city" Ndzem kom "rural area" Bateteka komwa "country, region" Bakweri kumi "country" Zulu khumbi "nation" Pende guma "country, region" Dewoi gumo "village, city" Caga gumi "rural area" Lingala gumba "city" Galla/Oromo gomdji "land which grows warm and is healthy cultivated"
Are you paying attention? Notice how we go from k-m to g-mb or kh-mb? We argue that Egypt was a mixed African society. This is how you tell beyond "skulls." The language reveals ALL. This is why the African school is big on linguistics because without it you are powerless.
This is what I mean by you need to study. You are out of your league here.
Asar you don't know how to use comparative linguistics and you are misrepresenting Africalogical African linguist. The linguistic evidence you provide does not show that ancient Egypt was a mixed society, they only show that African languages share cognate terms for 'city,country'.
The comparison of these terms could inform us as to possible paleo-African term(s) for city,state etc, but it can not tell us the meaning of an Egyptian word. The only way to use comparative linguistics to recover Egyptian terms is to ompare the known Egyptian terms from the various stages of Egyptian. You can then use this information to make inferences about the meaning of Egyptian words.
Asar give it up. You can not say that dictionary entries are false where as your interpretations are correct when dictionary entries are based on epigraphic evidence from Egyptian text.
We learn ancient languages based on the text relating to that language. The words we recover for dead languages are placed in dictionaries.
You can not replace the meaning of a term related to a dictionary entry unless you have primary verbal evidence that contradicts the dictionary term. We can not go back in time and acurately get the meaning of km,from living ancient Egyptian speakers, therefore we have to accept the dictionary meaning of km.
Asar if you are claiming that the dictionary entries are wrong we must reject your "new" interpretation of the term km(-t), because you can not support your "new" intertation of km(t), with primary evidence from Egyptian speakers because they are all dead. As a result, Asar, the only evidence you can use are dictionary entries which you claim are inaccurate.
Moreover, I would like to see citations of the African authors who support your new interpretation of km(t). You are contradicting Diop and Obenga, the African linguist who write in this area do not dispute Obenga and Diop's identification of the meaning of km(t),that you dispute.
Moreover, where are the Indo-European sources that claim; -ham, means black. I have assumed that -ham, represents a Hebrew loan word into I-E languages.
Ancient Near Eastern, Biblical, and Judaic Studies in Honor of ... edited by Baruch A. Levine, Robert Chazan, William W. Hallo, Lawrence H. Schiffman
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by Clyde Winters: The linguistic evidence you provide does not show that ancient Egypt was a mixed society,
That's true
quote: they only show that African languages share cognate terms for 'city,country'.
True also. There's only 2 ways they can share such cognate (beside coincidences). Common origin or loan. Both are possible but we know African languages, including AE of course, are genetically related, so many words in African languages including Ancient Egyptian have a common origin .
quote: The comparison of these terms could inform us as to possible paleo-African term(s) for city,state etc, but it can not tell us the meaning of an Egyptian word.
Sure it can because if for example you don't know the meaning of a word in Ancient Egyptian. Let's say (invented word), we find the word tkb (maybe pronounced Takaba) in Ancient Egyptian but we don't know what tkb/takaba means.
But if we find Takaba in other sister languages (descendant of Negro-Egyptian) like other African languages and it seems to mean (lets say) bird/flying thing in most instances.
Then we just found the (possible) meaning of TKB/Takaba in Ancient Egyptian!! We can verify it by reading AE text. It's all possible because Ancient Egyptian and those African languages share a common origin .
quote: The only way to use comparative linguistics to recover Egyptian terms is to ompare the known Egyptian terms from the various stages of Egyptian.
As I just said that's not true. If Ancient Egyptian and other African languages are descendant of a common language we can find the possible meaning of Ancient Egyptian terms in other related languages from the same family (the Negro-Egyptian family).
quote: Asar give it up. You can not say that dictionary entries are false where as your interpretations are correct when dictionary entries are based on epigraphic evidence from Egyptian text.
I don't think 'black soil land' vs land/farm/place change the meaning of any AE text/literature.
Dictionary entries is not something fixed (hard data) but something determined by human beings (often European speakers in this case, with limited knowledge of other African languages) analyzing AE text/literature.
Asar demonstrated how even the earliest attestations of kmt, as the name for land, used the determinant for irrigation. Combined with the cognates in other African languages of the same family, it's completely possible that the word kmt designating land has nothing to do with the color black but more to do with land, place to live, place to settle, land with water, place to sit, arable land, farm, etc. We know this is a possibility because that's the meaning in many African languages of the same family than Ancient Egyptian.
Bottom line is many words in African languages including Ancient Egyptian have a common origin. So we can use modern African languages to evaluate the meaning of Ancient Egyptian words.
Posted by the lioness, (Member # 17353) on :
quote:Originally posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate:
Bottom line is many words in African languages including Ancient Egyptian have a common origin. So we can use modern African languages to evaluate the meaning of Ancient Egyptian words. [/QB]
There are thosuands of African language and the continent is huge.
You could look randomly at Eurasia and find similar words to ancient Egyptian words. Some may even fit by meaning into the context on an Egyptian text. But this would likely be coincidence Likewise with many African words. You can't assume there is a connection because you can fit a meaning and phoenetic. This is why comparitive lingusitics is so specualtive
Posted by Asar Imhotep (Member # 14487) on :
I'm not going to have a long drawn out debate with Dr. Winters, the same man who cannot read. Dr. Winters, my exact words were that, "We argue that Egypt was a mixed AFRICAN society." You just tried to make an argument against me by trying to say the exact same thing. Egypt had many African cultures in its territory whose vocabulary entered the main lexicon.
Do you know what a "doublet" is in Linguistics? How are doublets formed and how do they become present in any given society? I don't want a drawn out copy and paste fest. Just give me the definition of a doublet and examples for how they enter into the vocabulary of a people. From there we will discuss how the presence of kmt and gbb (> wDb) demonstrates that different African groups were present in ancient Egypt (because these words were used simultaneously in Old and Middle Kingdom literature).
Posted by Clyde Winters (Member # 10129) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: I'm not going to have a long drawn out debate with Dr. Winters, the same man who cannot read. Dr. Winters, my exact words were that, "We argue that Egypt was a mixed AFRICAN society." You just tried to make an argument against me by trying to say the exact same thing. Egypt had many African cultures in its territory whose vocabulary entered the main lexicon.
Do you know what a "doublet" is in Linguistics? How are doublets formed and how do they become present in any given society? I don't want a drawn out copy and paste fest. Just give me the definition of a doublet and examples for how they enter into the vocabulary of a people. From there we will discuss how the presence of kmt and gbb (> wDb) demonstrates that different African groups were present in ancient Egypt (because these words were used simultaneously in Old and Middle Kingdom literature).
quote: In etymology, two or more words in the same language are called doublets or etymological twins (or possibly triplets, etc.) when they have different phonological forms but the same etymological root. Often, but not always, the variants have entered the language through different routes. Because the relationship between words that have the same root and the same meaning is fairly obvious, the term is mostly used to characterize pairs of words that have diverged in meaning at least to some extent.
For example English pyre and fire are doublets. Modern words with similar meaning but subtle differences contribute to the richness of the English language, as exemplified by the doublets frail and fragile (both from the Latin root, fragilis): one might refer to a fragile tea cup and a frail old woman, but never frail tea cup and rarely fragile old woman.
I don't see your use of km(t), as an example of a doublet, it would appear more as a homophone, African languages, including Egyptian have plenty of homophones.
Your method can not confirm your proposition "We argue that Egypt was a mixed AFRICAN society." The comparison of vocabulary items can be used to show a linguistic relationship between languages-- not if a society was mixed, unless you can identify direct examples of loan words in the target language.
Egyptian was a lingua franca as a result you find that many terms in Egyptian represent a culture term used by many Black African (BA) languages.
Let's look at the Egyptian term for 'cow,cattle'. The Egyptian terms for cattle/ cow were ng and nag .
CATTLE/ COW
Egyptian ng, nag
Wolof nag
Peul/Fulfulde nag
Angas ning
Ankwe ning
Susu ninge
Nuer yang
Baguirmi m-ang, mang
Gbea m-angu, mangu
Sar(a) m-ang, mang
Serere nak
Mande nika
Burma nak
Jarawa i-nak
Kagoro nyak
Kaje nyak
Burak nyek
Kagoma nyak
Bobo nyanga
Kono-Vai nige
So.W. Mande ninke
Sembla nigi
Congo-Benue *i-nak
Duala nyaka
Mpongwe nyare
Fang nyar
Kwa nare
Azer(Azayr) na
Soninke na
Gourmantche nua, nue
Senufo nu
Ewe nyi
Niellim nya
Boua (Bwa) nya
Tarok ina
Iregwe nya
Dadiya nee
Amo na
Baya nday
Bobofing nya-nga
Gera ndiya
Koro indak
Hausa nagge
Dravidian Languages
Tamil naku
Tulu naku
The correspondence between African terms for cattle support the archaeological evidence for the early domestication of cattle in the Proto-Sahara (Winters 1985). This view is supported by the similarity in the terms for cow/cattle by speakers of the Mande, Niger-Congo, Chadic, and Afro Asiatic Supersets.
The oldest written evidence from Africa comes from the Egyptian language. The Egyptian terms for cattle/ cow were ng and nag . In other African languages we find either the consonant n-, before the consonant g/k , e.g., n/v______(v)g/k ;or the nasal consonant n- , before the vowels -i,-y , and -a , e.g., n+i+a = nia , or n+y+a = nya .
This evidence of cognition in African terms for cattle/cow shows considerable correspondence in consonants and vowels within roots.
As a result it is almost impossible to talk about Black African loan words in Egyptian because the Egyptian term for many culture items is analogous to words used in other BA languages.
We are not trying to determine if there were different African groups in Egypt, because this can not be determined by your method. Your method can only show a cognate language and indicate a genetic relationship between Egyptian and other Black African languages. The best method to determine the presence of African ethnic groups in Egypt is Wally's method of looking at the names Egyptians gave to the various sepats/nomes and the gods they worshipped.
Posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate (Member # 20039) on :
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,:
quote:Originally posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate:
Bottom line is many words in African languages including Ancient Egyptian have a common origin. So we can use modern African languages to evaluate the meaning of Ancient Egyptian words.
There are thosuands of African language and the continent is huge. [/QB]
The continent is huge but most African languages, thus people, have their common origin in the same much smaller geographic region in North-Eastern Africa.
Indo-European is another "large" language family and I don't see you whine about it. Linguists have rules to determine if words are really cognates, etc. So the bottom line still stand.
Posted by Clyde Winters (Member # 10129) on :
quote:Originally posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate:
quote:Originally posted by the lioness,:
quote:Originally posted by Amun-Ra The Ultimate:
Bottom line is many words in African languages including Ancient Egyptian have a common origin. So we can use modern African languages to evaluate the meaning of Ancient Egyptian words.
There are thosuands of African language and the continent is huge.
The continent is huge but most African languages, thus people, have their common origin in the same much smaller geographic region in North-Eastern Africa.
Indo-European is another "large" language family and I don't see you whine about it. Linguists have rules to determine if words are really cognates, etc. So the bottom line still stand. [/QB]
The relationship of I-E languages can be explained by the expansion of the Romans and Greeks throughout Europe. As a result, their origin does not go back to 4kya. Marcantonio has explained this phenomena expertly in her paper:
I have done the same thing with Sanskrit. I have explained that the relationship between Sanskrit and Greek does not go back to prehistory. I illustrate that they are related because Sanskrit was a lingua franca and when Panini, wrote the grammar for this language he included Greek elements, since Greek was a principal language in Indo-Pakistan at this time.
Since modern European languages, the so-called Indo-European, are derived from the Indian languages of the Dravidians, plus the East Asian languages of people like the Persians, plus whatever the Aryans and other White Central Asians spoke, plus the languages of the native Black Europeans that they melded with.
Point being, that modern languages are modern combinations of ancient languages - the English language is a perfect example. Therefore a case can be made for just about any connection. [/qb][/QUOTE]The relationship between English and ancient language is mainly due to literacy, not the combination of ancient and modern languages. Speakers of the Germanic languages (which) include English) lexicalized many Greek and Roman terms as they became literate in these languages.
Blacks spread civilization around the world. As other people came in contact with these bLacks they adopted cultural traditions and the terms that came along with the new way of life introduced to Europeans by the Blacks. This is evident in the relationship between Greek, and the two major lingua francas of Central asia and South Asia: Tocharian and Sanskrit.
It is important to remember that the relationship between Indo-European and Indo-Aryan language, especially Sanskrit is via the Greek language. Greek influenced other European languages because it was recognized as a language of culture and civilization by the Romans.
It was in Pakistan that the Greek language was probably incorporated into Sanskrit. Many of the rules for Sanskrit were codified by Panini, who was born in Salatura, in Northwest Pakistan. Panini’s grammar contains 4000 rules.
When Panini wrote his grammar of Sanskrit, it was spoken by the elites in the area. Greek was also popular when Panini wrote the Sanskrit grammar. The Greeks were called Yunani or Yavana. Thus we learn from Agrawala (1953) that the Yavanani lipi (edict) was well known in Gandahara, and even Panini mentions the Yavana in his grammar . The term Yauna meant Ionian (Woodcock, 1966).
The history of Greeks in the area is quite interesting. When Alexander entered the HinduKush region in 327 B.C., Greek settlements were already in the area. By 180 BC, as the Mauryas fell into decline, the Greek Kings of Bactria took control of Western Punjab and Gandhara up to the Indus River. Under King Menander (d.130 B.C.) the Greeks had their capital at Taxila. The center of Greek culture in the area was Charsadda near Peshawar (Woodcock,1966).
Many Greek terms were probably already incorporated in the Prakrits of Northern India-Pakistan and Central Asia. Here the Greeks minted their coins with Kharoshthi, Brahmi and Greek inscriptions.
Greek was used for commercial purposes and served as a patrician lingua franca of the Kabul valley and of Gandhara. During the rule of Pushyamitra many Greeks settled in India. Due to the long history of Greeks in India, Ashoka had some of his edicts written in Greek and Aramaic bilinguals. In 44 A.D., Appolonius of Tyana when he visited Taxila found that merchants and kings learned Greek “as a matter of course” (Rahman, 2004; Woodcock,1966).
Given the popularity of Greek in the region it is not surprising that Sanskrit would show such a strong relationship to the Indic languages, since it was spoken throughout the area of a couple of hundred years. Commenting on the Greek rulers of India, Kulke and Rothermund (1998), said that “They are referred to as ‘Indo-Greeks’, and there were about forty such kings and rulers who controlled large areas of northwestern India and Afghanistan….They appear as Yavanas in stray references in Indian literature, and there are few but important references in European sources. In these distant outposts, the representatives of the Hellenic policy survived the defeat of their Western compatriots at the hands of the Parthians for more than a century” (p.70). The greatest of the Indo-Greek rulers was Menander, who is mentioned in the famous Milindapanho text. The Shakas adopted many elements of Indo-Greek culture which they perpetuated in India for over 100 years (Rahman, 2004).
It is impossible to argue for a genetic relationship between Vedic and Greek languages based on the fact that speakers of these languages formerly lived in intimate contact in historical times. Secondly, we know the Dravidians were in Greece before the Indo-Europeans enter the country. These non-I-E speakers were called Pelasgians. As a result, Anna Morpurgo Davies, The linguistic evidence:Is there any?, in Gerald Cadogan, The End of the early Bronze Age in the Agean (pp.93-123), says that only 40% of Greek is of Indo-European etymology (p.105). Since only 40% of the Greek terms are of I-E origin, many of the Greek terms that agree with the Indic languages may be from the 60% of the Greek lexical items that came from non-I-E speakers which as noted by Lahovary in Dravidian origins and the West, were people who spoke either Dravidian languages, or other languages from Africa, genetically related to the Dravidian group.
In conclusion, as a result of the Greek influence in Bactria and India-Pakistan , Indians and Bactrians had to acquire "Greek Culture" to enhance their position and opportunity in North India and Bactria during Greek rule. Greek rule placed prestige on status elements introduced into the region by the Greeks, especially the Greek language. Status acquired by Bactrians and Indian-Pakistanis was thus centered around acquisition of Greek language and Greek culture. This supported by the evidence that Indian elites used Greek in business and government (Rahman, 2004). This would have inturn added pressure on the Bactrians to incorporate Greek terms into a Bactrian lingua franca (i.e., Tocharian).
Given the fact that Greek administrators in Bactria and Northern India-Pakistan ,refused to fully integrate Bactrians and Indians into the ruling elite, unless they were “well versed in Greek culture and language) led to subsequent generations of native Bactrians and Indian-Pakistanis to progressively incorporate more Greek terms into their native language. This would explain why Tocharian has many features that relate to certain IE etymologies and Panini’s Sanskrit grammar, present many terms that are associated with the Greeks, but illustrates little affinity to Indo-Iranian languages which are geographically and temporally closer to Tocharian.
Some researchers might dispute the influence of the Greek language on Sanskrit because Panini’s grammar was suppose to have been written around 400 B.C. This date for the grammar might be too early, because Rahman (2004) and Agrawala (1953) maintains that Greek was spoken in Gandahara in Panini’s time.
The influence of colonial Greeks in Central Asia would explain why the most important evidence of an I-E relationship with Sanskrit. The historical connections between the so-called Indo-European languages probably respect an areal linguistic relationship—not genetic relationship.
In the paper below I discuss in detail the relationship between Greek and Sanskrit
see pages 70-77. .
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: You have yet to tell us what a determinitive is. Saying that a determinitive is not pronounced is not the same thing as telling what a determinitive is. I asked you a specific question. What does the word DETERMINE mean?
I’ve posted three definitions of what determinatives are, but since you've ignored them and I don't want to give you an excuse to ignore them again, I'm going to give another one here: a determinative is a glyph that reduces ambiguity, but has, in and of itself, no phonetic values/sounds attached to it. Am I wrong? Then prove me wrong with textbooks or articles. Ranting on and on about who can and can’t read mdw ntr and who has done primary research just makes it a rope tugging game, where people have to take your word for things. No one cares. All people care about is evidence so they can come to their own conclusions. Either provide evidence for your claims or recognize that your wild claims are at odds with the literature. There is no in-between.
quote:Originally posted by Asar Imhotep: For example, here is a real life example of a determinative. In Egyptian the word sn means "brother." How would I DETERMINE if this word was masculine or feminine in Egyptian? I'd know it was feminine if it had a -t suffix. Thus, sn.t "sister." The gender suffix DETERMINES how the word is to be interpreted.
This is patently false. The glyph is not a determinative AT ALL. PRODUCE EVIDENCE FOR WHAT YOU SAY FOR ONCE.
quote:The determinative tells us what kind of word it is. The N23, N36 and O49 classifiers tell us that KM.T is a PLACE, not a COLOR.
There is only one set of phonetic glyphs: kmt, and one non-phonetic determinative glyph to reduce ambiguity. What has happened in such instances is that kmt is applied to the nation, the same way Aethiopia is, in some Greek texts, applied to nations or even regions. This does NOT mean, that the term Aethiopia itself isn't thought of as exclusively meaning burnt-face (regardless of whether you disagree with that conventional translation).
Hypothetically speaking, if the glyphs for Aethiopia, were to be accompanied with N23, O49 or N36, it would NEVER have meanings such as “place/location/ farm/livable land/land”. It'd just mean that, in that instance, it is implemented to refer to the nation. That Rus appears in Russia doesn't mean that Rus refers to soil. That Aryan appears in Iran doesn't mean that Aryan refers to soil. That German appears in Germany doesn't mean that German refers to soil. You won't know what 'Judah' means when it is applied to the state. Judah has its own meaning, independent of that it was a Jewish state. In the same way, the act of implementing kmt to refer to the nation tells you absolutely nothing about what that word means. Reasoning 101.
Therefore, if your reason for saying that kmt also means soil, is solely based on the instances when kmt is accompanied by N23, N36 and O49 to mean 'nation', your proposal automatically becomes highly suspect. It'd be the equivalent of saying that your handler (Asar) means (insert your government name). Neither Asar nor Imhotep means (insert your government name), at all; it's just used to refer to your person. Big difference.
Your turn:
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: Answer this post in a logically coherent way and we'll see if there is any merit to what you're saying.
quote:Originally posted by Swenet: ^Cop out, but sure, do as you please.
^As the entire forum can see, your own text indicates that N23 ( ) doesn't affect the translation of kmt when it is or isn't used. In both instances, with and without it, the author translates kmt as "black land". This is utterly impossible if, as you wrongly claim, should be read out loud as "land".
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
To the forum only: no one has to take my word for it. Any textbook will tell you, contrary to what Asar says, that determinative glyphs:
1) are not supposed to be read out 2) have no sounds attached to them 3) simply reduce ambiguity when a set of glyphs has several meanings or when it has the capacity to imply several distinct words, so that the reader won't have to guess 4) will never add new meaning to words. In other words, if one of the meanings of kmt isn't 'soil', no determinative can give it that meaning. 5) phonetic glyphs are not determinatives 6) determinatives don't provide gender, so the glyph can never be interpreted as a determinative.
For instance, the set of phonetic glyphs trans literated as nfr can underly 20 words/meanings, so merely writing nfr in a sentence won't let the reader know which one of the meanings it has, in that instant. However, to pin point which of the meanings the scribe was going for, the scribe would use a mute glyph (i.e. determinative), to clarify and let the reader know which of the potential underlying words/meanings was intended.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
No use trying to convince idealogues running their con game w/t line: "Who you gon' b'lieve? Me, or the lying professional dictionaries and grammars?" like some player checking a weak sister.
Went over the difference between * ta- (land, usually a prefix) * -t (the letter t, a suffix denoting feminine or an adjective)
Believe me, careful readers know this and know to steer clear of idealogues especially megalomaniacal ones naming themselves after resurrection gods and multi-geniuses.
However it's always good to recap.
Point #4 above is not entirely accurate in its wording. Look at KM:wr and KM:hr In these cases KM is more like an adj describing what it is that's ultimate or black. Then in the case of KM:wr even further determinatives are needed to distinguish three of its usages. See WB p126 last entry and p127 (reference the Standard dictionary entries for KM.t thread).
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
@ Swenet
Can you post the actual images instead of the ViewImage? That site alarmed my McAfee.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler: Point #4 above is not entirely accurate in its wording. Look at KM:wr and KM:hr In these cases KM is more like an adj describing what it is that's ultimate or black. Then in the case of KM:wr even further determinatives are needed to distinguish three of its usages. See WB p126 last entry and p127 (reference the Standard dictionary entries for KM.t thread).
Not sure if I understand what you mean, so tell me if you agree with the following. Point #4 is an answer to his view that N23 in association with kmt would add new meaning to kmt not originally there (i.e. meaning other than black and complete). At the very root of the dispute between you and him lies his assertion that N23 behind kmt would justify not needing black or complete to translate kmt. This is how he arrives at the soil explanation.:
He is still under the impression that someone is arguing that km doesn't mean black. My argument that km = black is only ONE meaning for this k-m root given in Egyptian. --Asar Imhotep
Point #4 says that determinatives don't have any such veto power, where they overrule the meaning of word that precede it and bring new meaning not originally there. Do you agree with this?
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
That was the clarification I was looking for.
It is correct that no determinative will ever change the "prime meaning" of what it determines.
The determinative will only narrow the choices.
The dispute is not between "him and me." The dispute is between accepted norms in AEL lexicon and grammar and a pioneering ideology seeking to overturn them.
The Standard dictionary entries for KM.t thread profoundly demonstrates km, km.t, KM, KM.t mean black (primary definition) or complete (secondary definition). So do the online tools myself, you, and even AI himself referenced.
Posted by Swenet (Member # 17303) on :
^Gotcha
quote:Originally posted by Tukuler: @ Swenet
Can you post the actual images instead of the ViewImage? That site alarmed my McAfee.
For those who weren't able to access the pages earlier, I've made better copies and uploaded them elsewhere. I've included p173 to show that I'm not omitting km entries from pages before p174. I'm reposting p168 to show that vineyard/garden is the closest Egyptian term for Asar's 'soil' proposal, and that the glyphs corresponding to 'vineyard/garden' aren't even transliterated as as kmt.
All pages from: --Leonard H. Lesko, A Dictionary of Late Egyptian
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
I don't think Mentu would mind if you post the actual full size images (as long as they don't stretch the page too wide) like so, because there're people who just will not follow the links.
-- Leonard H. Lesko, A Dictionary of Late Egyptian
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
I've heard of Leonard Lesko but never had the chance to read his work. Although I have read the works of his wife Barbara Lesko who is pretty open and adamant about Egypt's African identity.
Posted by Tukuler (Member # 19944) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: This is the glyph Ta, Gardiners N16
It means land and appears at the front of words like Ta Meri.
This is the glyph xAst, Gardiners N25
It means land and appears at the end of words like Khurru or Kush.
This is the glyph niwt, Gardiners O49
It means city, town, etc,, and appears at the end of the word KM.t. Note that KM.t can appear with other determinatives not just only with nwt.
The problem enters with our concept of the word land which can mean a parcel of land or a country or nation. The Kmtyw marked the distinction because nwt never means a parcel of land, it always mean a crossroads village town city nation, etc.
Please provide an example from a mdw ntr text where the nwt[/in] determinative means soil. What hieroglyphic dictionary gives soil as the meaning of [i]nwt which is a glyph that depicts a crossroads not a field or a desert or some such?
Precisely why cannot mean black land in the sense of a parcel of land which happens to be black in color. Nwt means crossroads, village, town, city, nation. Hence logically means 'Black nation' not 'black piece of land.'
Except in this instance of deliberate obfuscation, please show texts where nwt is translated as 'land' instead of 'crossroads.' The dictionary entry for nwt is village, town, city not land. The dictionary entries for t3 and smt are land.
Further, the codage system classes niwt under O (buildings) not in the N (heaven earth and water) class where t3 and x3st are categorized. Logic dictates that KM.t.nwt cannot mean 'black land' both according to codage class and according to grammar where KM.t in KM.t.nwt is indeed a feminine noun and is not an adjective. The name of a nation is always a noun never an adjective.
Transliteration and translation of the 1st 5 columns of the Book of Gates the Gate of Teka Hra vignette 30
Col4: k-m.t{nwt} d-sh-r.t{nwt} AKH [Black community. Red community.
Col5: (+kh){scroll} n t-n{plural} HQA.w{plural} RA [Beatification to ye subjects (of) Ra!
The "four types" -- or better, the "subjects of Ra" -- scene depicts the sun in the 5th night hour with Heru addressing the dead. He verbally divides them into the blacks (Nile Valley folk, i.e., Egyptians and Nehesis) under his protection, and the reds (folk dwelling east or west of the Nile) under Sekhet's protection.
Heru is addressing all four types, first with a general intro to the entire party of the afterlife dead (who died that day) still in their shrouds. He "beatifies" them, reanimates them with "spirit" (breath/wind), and releases them from their shrouds. Then after all that he addresses each group in turn speaking of the origins of their creation and assigning their "patron" deity. First the RT RMTW and then in from sunrise to sunset order the AAMW, NHHSW, and TMHHW .
The NWT ideogram means neither 'people' nor 'land.' This has been explained a few times already and there's a post in the archive with the subject header "KMT NWT" detailing this. The glyph depicts a crossroads indicating a village or city, i.e. a settlement or habitation. thus the use of it to mean 'community' in its broad application for the corpus of the dead. It always appears as the determinative following the name of a city.
see post 309 made in 2009 with the missing images of Transliteration and translation of the 1st 5 columns of the Book of Gates the Gate of Teka Hra vignette 30 restored
Posted by AncientGebts (Member # 17037) on :
^ @ Tukuler Reading...
Posted by kanda (Member # 23353) on :