I've encountered this perception many times, but I thought the Moors were mostly from Arabia and the Maghreb region. I think there were probably some black people from Upper Egypt and the Sahel among them, but I suspect most of them looked like people living north of the Atlas Mountains, who usually aren't black.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Yes, the wave of Islam that swept from Arabia and the Levant across Africa was led by Arabians and Levantines. However, those that went into Spain were mostly Africans. They were called Moors because of this African heritage and because of the blacks among them.
You've been here, and on TNV, for two years and you've read us on this issue for that whole time. So what did you learn? Judging from your above assessment, looks like not a thing at all.
BTDT. Some of the leaders were Arabs but the majority were Berbers of many tribes who became Arabized (language). Another point of the contention was the colonized (mawali) became more numerous and challenged the leadership, to wit, the hegemony of the Almohades/Almoravides against the Umayyad to reflect the new reality of the period (900AD! and afterwards).
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: You've been here, and on TNV, for two years and you've read us on this issue for that whole time. So what did you learn? Judging from your above assessment, looks like not a thing at all.
Yeah T-rex, this is like 4th or 5th time you ask a question that has been answered numerous times on this board. It makes me wonder if you are really the same person as Underpantman. Posted by Willing Thinker {What Box} (Member # 10819) on :
quote:Originally posted by Tyrannosaurus: Were the Moors black?
WHAT!?! Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Tyrannosaurus: I've encountered this perception many times, but I thought the Moors were mostly from Arabia and the Maghreb region. I think there were probably some black people from Upper Egypt and the Sahel among them, but I suspect most of them looked like people living north of the Atlas Mountains, who usually aren't black.
The make a long story short, the Moors that invaded Spain were a mixture of Berber and Arabic warriors (mostly Berber though). The leader of the invasion, Tarik Ibn Zayid, was a Berber Muslim convert who sort of faded away following the establishment of the Umayyad Dynasty. The Umayyad Dynasty itself was technically Arabic in origin, but the patriach of the Andalusian dynasty (Abd al-Rahman I) was of mixed blood. His father was Syrian and his mother was a Berber (Nafza Berbers of Morocco). He fled to Morocco to seek refuge because his family had been killed in Damascus or somewhere.
Now, the Almohads and Almoravids were without a doubt all-Black. Have you seen the documentary from Channel 22?
The Umayyad Muslim dynasty that led the invasion of southern spain was totally Syrian and had not much to do with bedouin arabs. And the Berbers were only used as foot soldiers while Tariq Ibn Ziyad even though being a berber saw himself more as a Umayyad elite than a Berber, infact the only reason he invaded spain was to keep the unruly berbers occupied on other issues since their rebellion was getting out of hand, only latter did the muslims start to show interest for southern spain.
Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by Yonis: The Ummayad muslim dynasty that led the invasion of southern spain was totally Syrian and had not much to do with bedouin arabs. And the Berbers were only used as foot soldiers while Tariq Ibn Ziyad even though being a berber saw himself more as a Umayyad elite than a Berber, infact the only reason he invaded spain was to keep the unruly berbers occupied on other issues since their rebellion was getting out of hand, only latter did the muslims start to show interest for southern spain.
How do you know this about Tariq?
Posted by Yonis (Member # 7684) on :
By reading! Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by Yonis: By reading!
LOL...I know. I'm saying WHAT did you read? I'm trying to learn more about this period...and I can't seem to find a lot written about Tariq other than that he was an African muslim convert.
Posted by Yonis (Member # 7684) on :
Ok i see, I mostly read from the Swedish encyclopedia NE Världshistoria which is a very detailed nationalencyclopedia that puts the chronological order of the known history from all over the world through objective lenses, it's less biased than the anglo-saxon world history books.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Also, keep in mind that Moorish rule was not limited to Spain. There was muslim encroachment all along the coast of Southern Europe from Spain, to Sicily, Venice, Greece and elsewhere. Sicily is an often missing link in this history as the Muslim period in Sicily helped to usher in the growth of arts and learning in Italy, which then was part of the impetus behind the renaissance. Venice was influenced by Muslim art and architecture due to trade.
Images from Muslim sicily in the Saudi Aramco Magazine online archives. They contain some artwork depicting Moorish sarecens who are quite dark, made by an artist in Sicily. Scroll to the middle of the page to see them. Even though you need a login to view the full image, right clicking on the image and selecting properties brings up some good information on each image.
And, to go even further, I would say that the armies of blacks from the movie 300 more accuratlely depict Moorish armies in North Africa and Spain than Persians.
A good example of such influence on European architecture is the Moorish tower. These towers, built by the Muslims in North Africa and the most famous of which were built by the Almohades, influenced the development of the church bell tower. Keep in mind that both serve the same function: calling people to prayer, which the muslims did with men singing at certain times, while the Christians used bells.
This portrait has been used as a "generalized" portrait for many African muslims of the period. I even saw it used on the cover of the new translations of the work of Leo Africanus.
A portrait of a Moroccan delegation in England in 1901:
Yes! The Umayyad were indeed syrian/arab but the foot soldiers (the majority) tended to be Berbers when the incursion into Spain occurred. Keep in mind that Tariq was invited by the Visigoths to help quell some of the other tribes. This implies that there were good relations between North Africa and the Goths enough that Tariq was called for help! For Gibraltar (Rock of Tariq) to be named after him tell sus he had some standing. The Berbers were friends but I am sure that the Syrian Arab group were considered 'foreigners and unfriendly' by the German tribes of the era (in Spain) (700AD)! I am also sure that it is safe to say that after a generation, many Muslims were 'Hispanicized' and were of mixed origin, despite having roots (maternal or paternal) in North Africa, Syria, Morocco, Tunisia, Mali or Mauritania!
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
^Absolutely, in fact, after the Umayyads were driven from Syria, the only one left from the ruling elite was Abd al-Rahman I, who himself was allegedly of mixed Berber Syrian heritage. Therefore, many of those who then ruled as Umayyads would also have been mixed Spanish, African, Syrian and Arab, since there werent many Umayyads from Syria to begin with, after they were overthrown. People must remember that there were waves after waves of Arabs who swept across Northern Africa over time and many of these waves came during or after the Moorish period in Spain and mostly focused along the coastal areas. Muslim history in North Africa from 700AD up until the European conquest of North Africa in the 1800s was a fractured and divided one of various groups fighting based on various divisions, including ethnic, religious, economic and political control.
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
This is a short cheat sheet of Muslim rule in the Iberian peninsula.
Abdul Rahman Al Ghafiqi From the Yemeni tribe of Ghafiq, he relocated to Ifriqiya (now Tunisia), then to the Maghrib (now Morocco), where he became acquainted with Musa Ibn Nusair and his son Abdul Aziz, the governors of Al-Andalus.
740 - Berbers rebel against the ethnically exclusive Arab Umayyad Caliphate and refuse to support them with tax revenues.
741 - The 10,000 survivors of Kulthum's force arrive in Iberia under a new leader, Talaba ibn Salama; he and the Jordanians settle in Córdoba; the Homs contingent in Seville; the Damascus contingent in Elvira; Qinnasrin in Jaen, and Palestinians in Algeciras and Medina-Sidonia. Civil war erupts between the Syrians and the Iberian Muslims, the latter being supported by a contingent of African Muslims under Abd al-Rahman ibn Habib.
771 - Syrians under Abd al-Ghaffar rebel against Abd ar-Rahman I, but the latter defeats the Syrians on the river Bembezar in 774.
783 - Mauregato the Usurper becomes King of Asturias. He was an illegitimate son of Alfonso I of Asturias, supposedly by a Moorish woman.
803 - Revolt of Banu Qasi in Tudela is suppressed. Banu Qasi (Arabic: بنو قاسي (Banû Qasî), meaning "sons" or "heirs of Cassius") was the name of a Basque Muladi (Visigoths or Hispano-Romans converted to Islam) dynasty that ruled Tudela and the lands around it in the 9th and 10th centuries. It was eventually conquered by the expansive taifa of Zaragoza at the beginning of the 11th century. The dynasty descended from the Hispano-Roman or Visigoth Count Cassius, and was a patrilineal dynasty: that is, the father's position and power was inherited by his sons, particularly the eldest son (primogeniture).
Abd-ar-Rahman III came to the throne when the country was exhausted by more than a generation of tribal conflict between the Arabs, and the Muslims of native Iberian descent. Iberians who were openly or secretly Christians had acted with the renegades. These people, which formed the majority of the population, were not averse to supporting a strong ruler who would protect them against the Arab aristocracy. These restless nobles were the most serious of Abd-ar-Rahman's enemies. Next to them came the Fatimids of Egypt and northern Africa, who claimed the caliphate based on descent from Muhammad, and who aimed at extending their rule over the Muslim world. Abd-ar-Rahman subdued the nobles by means of a mercenary army consisting of Slavs.
998 - Wadih, a Slav and the best Andalusian commander of the time, takes Fez in Morocco with a large force.
1002 - Power in Al-Andalus subsequently divided between the old Arab nobility, the Berber mercenaries, and the Slav slaves.
1014 - The Berber chief Zawi ibn Ziri – leader of the Sanhaja confederation, and a member of the Tunisian royal family – makes Granada his capital.
Sanhaja (NOTES) The tribes of the Sanhaja settled at first in the northern Sahara. After the arrival of Islam they also spread out in the Sudan as far as the Senegal River and the Niger. From the 9th century Sanhaja tribes began to establish themselves in the middle Atlas range, in the Rif Mountains and on the Atlantic coast of Morocco. A part of the Sanhaja settled in eastern Algeria (the Kutama), and played an important part in the rise of the Fatimids. The Sanhaja dynasties of the Zirids and Hammadids controlled Ifriqiya until the 12th century. At the beginning of the 9th century a tribal kingdom of the Masufa and the Lamtuna formed in what is now Mauritania under Tilantan (d.826), which controlled the western Trans-Saharan trade route and fought the kingdoms of the Sudan. Although this empire fell apart at the beginning of the 10th century, the missionary and theologian Ibn Yasin managed to unite the tribes in the alliance of the Almoravids in the middle of the 11th century. This confederacy subsequently conquered Morocco, western Algeria, and Andalusia in Spain, as well as the Ghana Empire. With the invasion of the Maghreb by the Arab Banu Hilal tribe in the 11th century, the Sanhaja were gradually arabized. The Kabyles of Algeria are descendants of the Kutama tribe, and several Moorish and Sahrawi tribes (in Mauritania/Western Sahara, respectively), while often arabized, retain important elements of Sanhaja culture and society. The Zirids (Arabic: زيريون) were a Berber dynasty, originating in Petite Kabylie among the Kutama tribe, that ruled Ifriqiya (roughly, modern Tunisia), initially on behalf of the Fatimids, for about two centuries, until weakened by the Banu Hilal and finally destroyed by the Almohads. Their capital was Kairouan. An offshoot branch of the family ruled Granada until 1090. The Zirids were Sanhaja Berbers from the area of modern Algeria. In the 10th century this tribe served as vassals of the Fatimids, defeating the Kharijite rebellion of Abu Yazid (943-947, under Ziri ibn Manad (935-971). Ziri was installed as the governor of central Maghreb and founded the gubernatorial residence of Ashir south-east of Algiers, with Fatimid support. 1056 - The Almoravides (al-Murabitun) Dynasty begins its rise to power. Taking the name "those who line up in defense of the faith", this is a group of fundamentalist Berber Muslims who would rule North Africa and Islamic Iberia until 1147.
1081 - El Cid (Rodrigo Diaz de Vivar) now a mercenary because he had been exiled by Alfonso IV of Castile, enters the service of the Moorish king of the northeast Spanish city of Zaragosa, al-Mu'tamin, and would remain there for his successor, al-Mu'tamin II. 1082 - Battle of Almenar. Rodrigo Díaz de Vivar, leading the army of Al-Mutamin of Zaragoza, defeats a combined army of the kings of Valencia (Al-Mundhir), Lerida (Al-Hayib), Aragón (Sancho Ramírez), and the Count of Barcelona (Berenguer Ramón II, who is captured). When Emir Al-Mutamid of Seville pays his tribute in debased coinage, Alfonso of Leon-Castile leads an expedition in Muslim territory.
1084 - The Muslim army of Zaragoza under El Cid defeats the Aragonese. In autumn the Castilians start a loose siege of Toledo.
1086 -Battle of az-Zallaqah: At Sagrajas (Friday 23 October 1086) north-east of Badajoz, the Murabitun (12,000 or 20,000 men) under Yusuf ibn Tashfin and Andalusians (including Kings of Seville, Granada, Málaga, and Badajoz) defeat a predominantly Leonese-Castilian army (possibly 50-60,000 men including Jews, Aragonese, Italian and French) under Alfonso VI of Castile. The Andalusians encamp separately from the Murabitun. The Christian vanguard (Alvar Fañez) surprise the Andalusian camp before dawn; the men of Seville (Al-Mutamid) hold firm but the remaining Andalusians are chased off by the Aragonese cavalry. The Christian main body then attacks the Murabitun, but are held by the Lamtuma, and then withdraw to their own camp in response to an outflanking move by ibn Tashufin. The Aragonese return to the field, do not like what they see, and start a withdraw which turns to a rout. The Andalusians rally, and the Muslims drive Alfonso to a small hill. Alfonso and 500 knights escape in the night to Toledo. Al-Mutamid proposes that the Christians are pursued and crushed, but Ibn Tashufin retires back to his African domains leaving only 3,000 troops to defend the east of Al-Andalus. Al-Mutamid and the Murabitun generals Sir ibn Abi Bakr and Dawud ibn Aisha are reported to have fought well during the battle.
Yusuf ibn Tashfin or Tashufin (c. 1061 - 1106) (Amazigh: Arabic: يوسف بن تاشفين) was the Berber Almoravid ruler in North Africa and Al-Andalus (Morrish Iberia). He took the title of amir al-muslimin (commander of the Muslims). He was either a cousin or nephew of Abu-Bakr Ibn-Umar, the founder of the Almoravid dynasty. He united all of the Muslim dominions in the Iberian Peninsula (modern Portugal and Spain) to the Kingdom of Morocco (circa 1090), after being called to the Al-Andalus by the Emir of Seville. Yusuf bin Tashfin is the founder of the famous Moroccan city Marrakech (in Arabic Murakush, corrupted to Morocco in English). He himself chose the place where it was built in 1070 and later made it the capital of his Empire. Until then the Almoravids had been desert nomads, but the new capital marked their settling into a more urban way of life. 1126 - The Almoravids deport Christians to Morocco.
More on some of the who's who from the Moorish period in Andalus and the Maghreb:
quote: The Miknasa Berbers originated in Tripolitania and southern Tunisia, but migrated westwards into central Morocco and western Algeria in pre-Islamic times. The modern Moroccan city of Meknes bears witness to their presence there.
After defeat by the Muslims the Miknasa converted to Islam. In 711 members of the tribe took part in the conquest of the Visigoth kingdom under Tariq ibn Ziyad. They settled north of Córdoba and in the 11th century founded the Aftasid dynasty in Badajoz.
Another group of the Miknasa took part in the Maysara uprising (739-742), adopted Kharijism and established the Emirate of Sijilmasa on the northern edge of the Sahara. This became very wealthy as the western end-point of the Trans-Saharan trade route with the Sudan. In alliance with the Caliphate of Córdoba it was able to fight off the attacks of the Fatimids. However, when the Miknasa chief Al-Mutazz allied himself with the Fatimids, the Miknasa were driven out of Sijilmasa by the Maghrawa, who were allies of the Umayyads.
A further group of Miknasa were allied with the Fatimids against the Umayyads, and overthrew the Rustamids of Tahert in 912 and drove the Salihids from northern Morocco in 917. But they could not maintain their resistance to the Magrawa in northern Morocco permanently, and, weakened by the struggle, they were subdued by the Almoravids in the 11th century.
The Aftasids (from the Arabic Banu-l'Aftas or Banu al-Aftas) were a Arabized Berber Miknasa dynasty in Badajoz (1022-1094) in the Al Andalus (Moorish Iberia).
When the Caliphate of Cordoba broke up into the Taifa kingdoms, the Berber mercenary Abdallah ibn Muhammad ibn Maslamah ibn al-Aftas (1022-1045) took control of Badajoz, by death of Sabur al-Jatib (a Slavic serf, previously serving at the court of Caliph al-Hakam II, that had proclaimed himself Lord of Badajoz in 1009, and that Ibn al-Aftas served). Ibn al-Aftas added to his name the Laqab al-Mansur Billah, Victorious by Grace of God, and ruled over and extensive part of the Al Garb Al Andalus, from the Douro river to the south of Tagus river. Ibn al-Aftas died in 1045.
Under Ibn al-Aftas' successors, Abu Bakr Muhammad ibn Abdallah al-Muzzaffar (1045-1065) and his two sons 'Umar ibn Muhammad al-Mutawakkil (1065-1094 in Évora) and Yahya ibn Muhammad al-Mansur (1065-1072 in Badajoz), the Taifa of Badajoz not only controlled large expanses of western Spain and Portugal, but was also a major centre of Islamic culture, which was fostered by the Aftasid rulers. In 1055 however Badajoz came under the suzerainty of the Kingdom of León-Castile and was forced to pay tribute, loosing significant parts of its territory, south of the Mondego river (south of Coimbra). Also, the Abbadids of Seville conquered parts of their territory. In 1094 the kingdom was annexed by the Almoravids.
The word Moor was coined by the Spaniards and is derived from the Latin word Maure meaning black! This is quite simply because the main body of Islamic invaders from North Africa were indeed black.
The lighter-skinned Muslim elite-- Arabs, light-Berbers, and Persians, were all labeled as Saracen.
Eventually, the term 'Moor' became associated with any Muslim North African regardless of his appearance.
Again, this topic was discussed many times on this board but especially in this thread here: who were the MOORS, which unfortunately was closed due to being plagued by that roach-like troll Jaime! Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: ^Absolutely, in fact, after the Umayyads were driven from Syria, the only one left from the ruling elite was Abd al-Rahman I, who himself was allegedly of mixed Berber Syrian heritage. Therefore, many of those who then ruled as Umayyads would also have been mixed Spanish, African, Syrian and Arab, since there werent many Umayyads from Syria to begin with, after they were overthrown. People must remember that there were waves after waves of Arabs who swept across Northern Africa over time and many of these waves came during or after the Moorish period in Spain and mostly focused along the coastal areas. Muslim history in North Africa from 700AD up until the European conquest of North Africa in the 1800s was a fractured and divided one of various groups fighting based on various divisions, including ethnic, religious, economic and political control.
Well, I got the impression from 'When the Moors Ruled in Europe,' that they were calling Abd al-Rahman III Black...I forgot where the woman said it though.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by King_Scorpion:
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: ^Absolutely, in fact, after the Umayyads were driven from Syria, the only one left from the ruling elite was Abd al-Rahman I, who himself was allegedly of mixed Berber Syrian heritage. Therefore, many of those who then ruled as Umayyads would also have been mixed Spanish, African, Syrian and Arab, since there werent many Umayyads from Syria to begin with, after they were overthrown. People must remember that there were waves after waves of Arabs who swept across Northern Africa over time and many of these waves came during or after the Moorish period in Spain and mostly focused along the coastal areas. Muslim history in North Africa from 700AD up until the European conquest of North Africa in the 1800s was a fractured and divided one of various groups fighting based on various divisions, including ethnic, religious, economic and political control.
Well, I got the impression from 'When the Moors Ruled in Europe,' that they were calling Abd al-Rahman III Black...I forgot where the woman said it though.
She said it towards the first 1/3 of the story, when talking about the palace he built as embracing a black eunuch or some such thing. Odd how a king like him would be a eunuch, being from a ruling dynasty and not a slave.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
You can find alot more info from this wonderfully comprehensive discussion here, too bad it is no longer open due to an insidious troll.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
The real pity is the entire forum suffers for the action of one troll when it's easy enought to trim the trolling and free up the threadd.
Posted by Willing Thinker {What Box} (Member # 10819) on :
quote:Originally posted by King_Scorpion: Have you seen the documentary from Channel 22?
Hey, what channel is channel 22 where you live, is it the history channel?
Hold on...it was Channel 4 not 22...lol. And the woman that narrated it is named Bettany Hughes. I don't know what the hell Channel 4 is though, I know I don't get it. I think it may be British.
Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M:
quote:Originally posted by King_Scorpion:
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: ^Absolutely, in fact, after the Umayyads were driven from Syria, the only one left from the ruling elite was Abd al-Rahman I, who himself was allegedly of mixed Berber Syrian heritage. Therefore, many of those who then ruled as Umayyads would also have been mixed Spanish, African, Syrian and Arab, since there werent many Umayyads from Syria to begin with, after they were overthrown. People must remember that there were waves after waves of Arabs who swept across Northern Africa over time and many of these waves came during or after the Moorish period in Spain and mostly focused along the coastal areas. Muslim history in North Africa from 700AD up until the European conquest of North Africa in the 1800s was a fractured and divided one of various groups fighting based on various divisions, including ethnic, religious, economic and political control.
Well, I got the impression from 'When the Moors Ruled in Europe,' that they were calling Abd al-Rahman III Black...I forgot where the woman said it though.
She said it towards the first 1/3 of the story, when talking about the palace he built as embracing a black eunuch or some such thing. Odd how a king like him would be a eunuch, being from a ruling dynasty and not a slave.
I justed watched back...it's at the 46:18 mark. She says Abd al-Rahman III's palace was described as "a concubine lying in the arms of a Black eunich." Which IS a weird phrase for a man who called himself the new Caliph. Which leads me to believe it must not have been referring to him. It may have some weird double-meaning though.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote: One of the enduring debates among historians of Iberian culture is the question of how acculturation (or transculturation) occurred in the Iberian Peninsula, where large populations of Christians descended from Hispano-Romans and Visigoths lived alongside Muslim Arabs, Muslim Berbers, and Jews from 711-1492 and after. At the extremes of the political and intellectual camps, Iberian culture has been characterized as either the product of a dark-skinned, Muslim, North African people who conquered the Iberian Peninsula in the early eighth century and were only partially expelled after 1492, or an essence that is European, Christian, and white. ^1 Today most scholars adopt the more reasonable position that Spain and Portugal are the result of an intermingling of those peoples with a generous admixture of Jews. ^2 These perspectives describe the consequence of convivencia (cohabitation) but they rarely address the question of howsuch cultural diversity occurred. Convivenciais a loose term that suggests that by virtue of living in close proximity the people of the Iberian peninsula enjoyed cultural diversity and a corresponding richness of artistic forms and styles between the arrival of Islam in 711 and the expulsions in 1492. But history shows that, just as military and political frontiers do not necessarily prevent trade on the popular level, the proximity of diverse groups does not in and of itself cause interchange. ^3 With respect to al-Andalus, historians have rarely agreed on how diversity...
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
Economic interest and power seemed to be the key to 'convivencia' as long as a status quo was evolving! If you look at El Cid and how he became to be called as such you can see he was as noble and an Arab and had the honour of being in their company. He served their interest despite being a Spaniard and conquered teritory in their name. Being exiled, allowed him the freedom BUT he changed sides, supposedly, when he was not paid the proper price for his services. In that time he got to know their culture, their modus operandi and this became an asset to his cause at a later period. The group known as Moriscos and Mozarabes represented a mixed group depending on where they lived because certain tribes were known to operate in certain areas of the peninsula! The Jews served as intermediaries so they obvioulsy had benefactors on both sides until stuff went sour! Yugoslavia had the same situation because when the Turks invaded, many accepted their rule by explicitely volunteering to be yeniseri or mamlukes so they could better their social standing, or even escape death! IN some studies, it shows the base population of Turkey had sufficient numbers of Croatians, Serbs and other Eastern European MtDNA. You could say equal opportunity was present in those days!
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^Not surprising considering that historically, Turks imported most of its female slaves from Slavic countries...
On a side note, a lot of games, like prince of persia are actually based on the culture and history of North Africa and Al Andalus. The costumes and architecture in the game being based on them and can be seen in older images from Morrocco and elsewhere.
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
Let us look at the psychic use of language to insult and uplift! WIth this I say while the Moors were not exclusively 'black' they were indeed African! Black is a colour and so is white! Big deal. It is the psychology! Dig this. I have never seen nor heard the expression white-a-moor but I have in the expression black-a-moor! Solved! The Moors were black.brown.
My mind will change only if someone show me the expression, white-a-moor!
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
^^Of course. It only goes without saying that Moor and Black a Moor came about because black Africans were a significant enough presence among the muslims who invaded Spain from North Africa and elsewhere. Of course that is not ALL Muslims who invaded Spain, but there were enough to have made the term Moor a common epithet for those Muslims of that period.
Posted by lamin (Member # 5777) on :
The Moors were described as being as either Black-a-Moor or Tawny Moor. The term "tawny" meaning brownish--within the ranges of that colour.
In a curious twist though the present-day Moors of Mauritania have been described by colonial French ethnologues as as "white Moors"--perhaps to distinguish them from so-called "Black Moors" of Mauritania.
But the obvious point though is that the "white Moors" are not white at all--in the generic sense of that term but are rather more like the lighter-skinned Tuaregs. For Westerners the "white Moors" in general have the phenotype of individuals of Euro-African parentage.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
^^True as well. However, the legacy of the "white moors" in Mauretania has more to do with invasions of the Hasaniya arabs who currently control the government there over the indigenous black Africans, Muslim moor and otherwise. This invasion, BTW, was called the Char Bouba war and lasted 30 years. In fact, many histories of Mauretania start first with Bafours as the original indigenous population followed by migrations of "Berbers" like the Zenaga and Almoravids.
quote: From the 3rd to 7th centuries, the migration of Berber tribes from North Africa displaced the Bafours, the original inhabitants of present-day Mauritania and the ancestors of the Soninke. Continued Arab-Berber migration drove indigenous black Africans south to the Senegal River or enslaved them. By 1076, Islamic warrior monks (Almoravid or Al Murabitun) completed the conquest of southern Mauritania, defeating the ancient Ghana empire. Over the next 500 years, Arabs overcame fierce Berber resistance to dominate Mauritania. The Mauritanian Thirty-Year War (1644-74) was the unsuccessful final Berber effort to repel the Maqil Arab invaders led by the Beni Hassan tribe. The descendants of Beni Hassan warriors became the upper stratum of Moorish society. Berbers retained influence by producing the majority of the region's Marabouts--those who preserve and teach Islamic tradition. Hassaniya, a mainly oral, Berber-influenced Arabic dialect that derives its name from the Beni Hassan tribe, became the dominant language among the largely nomadic population. Within Moorish society, aristocratic and servant classes developed, yielding "white" (aristocracy) and "black" Moors (the enslaved indigenous class).
However, the nonsense of trying to separate Africans by denoting "Berber" as it denotes ethnic origins separate from other Africans in and around Mauretania can be seen in the name of the country Senegal and the Senegal river. Both derive from the language Zenaga and the Sanhaja so called "Berbers", but really is not a ethnic distinction moreso than a linquistic distinction, with Zenaga being a "Berber" language that has all but died out in Mauretania, which means it was spoken by peoples who once inhabited the areas of Mauretania and Senegal prior to these countries being formed. Just as Mauretania, Marrakesch and Morrocco also trace their names back to the inigenees of these areas who were a powerful force behind the development of these countries.
quote: Zenaga (autonym Tuḍḍungiyya) is a Berber language spoken by some 200 to 300 people (Ethnologue estimate, 1998) between Mederdra and the Atlantic coast in southwestern Mauritania. The language shares its basic structure with other Berber languages, but specific details are quite different; in fact, it is probably the most divergent surviving Berber language, with a significantly different sound system made even more distant by sound changes such as l > dj and kh > k, as well as a difficult to explain profusion of glottal stops. The name 'Zenaga' comes from that of a much bigger ancient Berber tribe, known to medieval Arab geographers as the Senhaja; the name "Senegal" is thought to derive from "Zenaga" as well.
Zenaga was once spoken throughout much of Mauritania, but fell into decline when its speakers were defeated by the Maqil Arabs in the Char Bouba war of the 17th century. After this war, they were forbidden to bear arms, and variously became either specialists in Islamic religious scholarship or servants to more powerful tribes. It was among the former, more prestigious group that Zenaga survived longest.
quote: From the 3rd to 7th centuries, the migration of Berber tribes from North Africa displaced the Bafours, the original inhabitants of present-day Mauritania and the ancestors of the Soninke. Continued Arab-Berber migration drove indigenous black Africans south to the Senegal River or enslaved them. By 1076, Islamic warrior monks (Almoravid or Al Murabitun) completed the conquest of southern Mauritania, defeating the ancient Ghana empire. Over the next 500 years, Arabs overcame fierce Berber resistance to dominate Mauritania. The Mauritanian Thirty-Year War (1644-74) was the unsuccessful final Berber effort to repel the Maqil Arab invaders led by the Beni Hassan tribe. The descendants of Beni Hassan warriors became the upper stratum of Moorish society. Berbers retained influence by producing the majority of the region's Marabouts--those who preserve and teach Islamic tradition. Hassaniya, a mainly oral, Berber-influenced Arabic dialect that derives its name from the Beni Hassan tribe, became the dominant language among the largely nomadic population. Within Moorish society, aristocratic and servant classes developed, yielding "white" (aristocracy) and "black" Moors (the enslaved indigenous class).
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This historical account with its old-fashioned but standard Eurocentric terminology is not really satisfactory. For example: I an curious to know why the so-called Mauritanian "aristocracy" is called "white", when in actual fact they approximate phenotypically the average offspring of Euro-African parentage.
Also its sourced web-site: www.state.gov/r/pa/ei/bgn/5467.htm---seems a bit too official to be taken seriously as genuinely researched history.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by lamin: For example: I an curious to know why the so-called Mauritanian "aristocracy" is called "white", when in actual fact they approximate phenotypically the average offspring of Euro-African parentage.
You answered your own question. They are called WHITE to reflect their Eurasian ancestry and the fact that they descend from the Eurasians who DEFEATED the indigenous Zenaga speaking Sanhaja clans from Mauretania. You will find the same history of Mauretania and the Zenaga almost everywhere. Mauretania IS to this day ruled by ARAB elites who consider themselves WHITE.
There is no need to confuse this issue and try and pretend that they consider themselves African or that they represent an authentic indigenous African lineage. They DONT. True, some of these elites have more indigenous African feature than others, but we are not talking about the so-called Arabs of the Sudan who ARE mostly black Africans.
More here:
quote: Anyway, in commemmoration of this event, I will talk a little about Zenaga this week. Zenaga is the nearly-extinct Berber language of Mauritania. Until about five hundred years ago it was spoken throughout most of the country; its ancestor would have been the language of the Almoravids. However, after the main Berber tribe, the Lamtuna, was defeated by the Arab Beni Ma`qil, most tribes gradually shifted to Hassaniya Arabic, which itself came to contain numerous Zenaga loanwords. The "marabout" tribes, those specialising in Islamic religious learning, retained Zenaga longest, and to this day it continues to be used, at least by the elderly, in a few areas near the southern Atlantic coast. It is remarkably divergent from other Berber varieties, due partly to a number of sound shifts (x > k, l > dj) and partly to a rather different vocabulary, incorporating words rare elsewhere in Berber along with Wolof and Pulaar loanwords. In addition to influencing Hassaniya Arabic, it has also contributed a number of loanwords to the Azer dialect of Soninke, and several words - notably the words for three of the five prayer times, and some religious holidays - to Wolof. Catherine Taine-Cheikh has been doing some documentation of it.
At least one of the few books on this language is available online: Le Zénaga des tribus sénégalaises, by General Faidherbe - although, chillingly, the author dedicates it to the genocidal mass murderer King Leopold II.
I guess one way to settle the question is to look at matters from the standpoint of Y haplogroup analysis. From what I have seen, the predominant Y haplogroup among the ruling groups of Mauritania is the E-M81 haplogroup--which is of East African origin.
If they were from Yemen or Arabia--as they claim--they would be substantial instances of the West Asian J haplogroup. This is not the case.
In sum, the so-called "white Moors" of Mauritania mostly partake of the DNA of Africa in the form of Haplogroup 5, E3(a or b) and E-M81.
Point is that myths are created for prestige reasons--but they are often at variance with the genetic reality.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Ironically, many African Muslims today (black or not) whose Arabized mentality is anti-black take accept the title with prestige despite its original meaning-- black.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Moore info on the Moors and the significant number of black Africans among them:
quote: Up
Military Organisation in the Reconquista
Armies of Al-Andalus and Orders of Battle for the better known battles, . Armies of Al-Andalus Andalusian
Andalusian armies were composed of a number of elements. The proportion of these elements changed depending on the political situation, and particular armies would concentrate on some and not others.
Organisationally the army was composed of 5 groups (Heath, 1980):
Jund, hereditary regulars,
Hashid ("recruits"), volunteers recruited for a single expedition,
Mujahids or al-Murabitun, unpaid religious volunteers,
Murtaziqa, regular foreign mercenaries
Muttawia, unpaid foreign irregulars
Ethnically the army was also compose of 5 groups:
Arabs. Arab immigrants provided the basis of some early armies; the significant influxes were in 711, 712, and 741 (Heath, 1980).
Slavs (Saqlabi). European Slave troops were employed from the reign of al-Hakam I (796-822) although only became a large professional military force in the 10th century (Kennedy, 1996). Despite being called Slavs, most were recruited from Kingdom of Leon.
Berbers. Berbers mercenary/immigrants were being employed throughout the history of Al-Andalus, however, there were particular bursts of recruitment: under Abd al-Rahman II (822-852), Al-Hakam II (961-976), and the vizier Al-Mansur (976-1002) (Kennedy, 1996).
Negroes. Negro slaves and mercenaries were employed periodically - particularly as a counter-balance to either the Slavs or Berbers (Kennedy, 1996).
Andalusians. Muslims born in Al-Andalus of any extraction (native, Arab, Berber).
Abd al-Rahman I (756-788) imported 40,000 Berber mercenaries from North Africa as a counter-foil to the Arab Jund already settled in Al-Andalus. He also recruited a Black Guard of 2,000 men.
Al-Hakam I (796-822) had an army of 50,000 (Heath, 1980). it consisted mainly of Berbers and Negroes, but also included a Christrian Guard known as al-Khurs ("The Mutes") of 2,000 infantry and 3,000 cavalry.
The vizier Al-Mansur (976-1002) had a fully professional army of 60,000 (Kennedy, 1996; Heath, 1980). He particularly favored Berbers, bringing many over from North Africa. This emphasis meant the army was predominately cavalry. In c. 978 Al-Mansur disbanded the existing Caliph's Slav bodyguard of 3,750 men, but Slavs continued to form a significant proportion of the army. A small Andalusian element remained although the Andalusian elite was largely demilitarised by this time (Nicolle, 1988) .
The Caliph Muhammad II (1008-1010) was opposed by the Berber generals, and most, but not all, of the Slavs abandoned him to pursue their own political aims (Kennedy, 1996). As a result he attempted to recruit a militia from the native Cordobans which faired badly against the Berbers.
The Caliph Al-Qasim ibn Hammud (1018-1021, 1023) attempted to counterbalance the Berbers by recruiting a Negro bodyguard (Kennedy, 1996).
Taifa armies were small (Kennedy, 1996). In 1055 Seville took Algerciras with only 200 horse, and in 1069 when they took Cordoba they had an advance guard of 200 horse and a main body of 1,000. However, having called for volunteers to retake Barbastro, Al-Muqtadir of Zaragoza managed to raise an army which included 6,000 archers and 50 horsemen from Seville. Granadine garrisons may have been as low as 100 Zanata in Granada itself and 300 at Malaga. Al-Murabitun
The Al-Murabit leaders were all from the Banu Turgut of the Lamtuna tribe of the Sanhaja Berbers (Kennedy, 1996). Originally the men were from the Lamtuna tribe, these and the Guddala and Massufa (also Sanhaja) remained the mainstay of the armies throughout the period. Other groups were assimilated including the other Sanhaja tribes (Gazzula, Lamta, Banu Warith), Masmuda tribesmen of the Atlas and Zanata of northern Morocco.
The armies appear to be comprised of various groups (Kennedy, 1996): Al-Murabitun, Mercenaries, Slave soldiers, Andalusian Volunteers, Guards.
Al-Murabitun. Probabaly Berbers of the Lamtuna, Guddala and Massufa, but possibly any Sanhaja.
Mercenaries (Hashm). I suspect these are non-Al-Murabitun Berbers.
Black slave soldiers (Abid). Nicolle (1988) mentions larges numbers of black Africans and I presume these are the Abid mentioned by Kennedy (1996). Most were recruited form Senegal, and they used bamboo spears, long leather shields, bows, and massed drums. A slave soldier sparked the Cordoban rebellion in 1121, and many black slaves were in the army the Aragonese defeated in 1129.
Andalusian Volunteers (Muttawia).
Christian. The Murabitun employed Christian mercenaries and converted prisoners (Nicolle, 1988).
Guards. Ibn Tashfin formed a guard of slave soldiers - 2,000 blacks, 500 uluj, and Andalusian horsemen (Kennedy, 1996; Nicolle, 1988). Nicolle says the blacks were horsemen, but Kennedy only says the Uluj were. Nicolle also says the uluj were non-Berber including Arabs, Turks and Europeans, but Kennedy suggest they were probably of Frankish origin. .
The Murabitun used camels - later armies had 30,000 available - although as time when on they relied more on cavalry (Nicolle, 1988).
The mercenaries and slave soldiers adopted the veil in imitation of the Al-Murabitun (Kennedy, 1996).
Most Al-Murabitun fought on foot with a front rank of long spears and javelinmen behind (Kennedy, 1996; Nicolle, 1988). The commander of each unit carried a flag that was used to direct his men: stand when the banner is up and kneel when the banner is lowered. Under Ibn Tashfin and subsequently Murabitun made use of war drums (Nicolle, 1988).
From 1132 to 1144 a Catalan renegade called Reverter - the one time viscount of Barcelona - lead the elite corps of the Al-Murabitun army (Kennedy, 1996). This may have been the Uluj mentioned as part of the guards ??.
The Al-Murabitun armies could reach 20-30,000, but were usually smaller, for example, in 1058 Abu Bakr led a force of 400 horsemen, 800 camel men and 2,000 foot (Kennedy, 1996). The invasion force of 1086 had 12-20,000 men. 4,000 men were sent to the siege of Aledo. Even provincial forces were up to 5,000. In 1102 the Al-Murabitun had 17,000 horsemen in Al-Andalus: 4,000 in Seville, 1,000 in Cordoba, 1,000 in Granada, 4,000 in the Levante, and the remaining 7,000 distributed along the frontier. These figures are for horse only and it is unclear how many foot were maintained although it is worth remembering that foot considerably outnumbered horse in Al-Murabitun armies.
Although powerful in the field, the Al-Murabitun were reliant on their Andalusian allies for expertise in siege work (Kennedy, 1996). Almohads Included black slaves, Murabitun deserters, and elite Ghuzz Turkish archers (Nicolle, 1988). Almohads made even more use of war drums than the Murabitun. Almohad infantry formed similarly to the Murabitun: a front rank with long spears, a second with javelins and spears and a third of slingers.
Note the racist depictions of all Africans as "slaves", while casting Berbers (a language) as eponymous "non black" Africans. Obviously, even without counting the Berbers, there were significant numbers of Blacks among the Moors. When the Berbers are accounted for and the blacks among them, that makes even more.
Many of these soldiers looked similar to the Tuareg and Elite horse guards of the Caliphs in West Africa today, like this: They wore colorful attire and had flags, horse barding and all sorts of military colors and heraldry, like patterns and colors, also derived from African traditions, likewise seen in Egypt.
They also introduced the use of the Kettle drum, or war drum into the military heraldry of Europe, as Africans always used the "talking drum" as part of their order of war. This can even be seen in ancient Egypt:
This also influenced the Musical heritage of Al Andalus and became the basis of the timpani drum in modern orchestral ensambles:
quote: B.E.: What about drums? I have the sense that everybody got drums from Africa, including the Arabs.
D.R.: Drums too are such a basic idea and such an ancient instrument that it's almost impossible to assign an origin, a geographic origin or a time period. For most cultures, we have no idea when they started using drums, or ideophones, the idea of taking two different blocks or solids and knocking them together. The contribution of the Arabs in al-Andalus is clear from one particular thing. Apparently people had not seen drums corps used in a military situation. Particularly the Almohads used performers of large drums, perhaps kettle drums, that they would use with the advancing troops. It's clear in several different texts that when Christians first heard these, it was a frightening sound, the idea of these advancing troops with these tremendous corps of huge kettle drums.
(But I disagree with the idea of string instruments originating in Asia, as these instruments are ancient in Africa as well and can also be seen in Egypt, including the harp).
Posted by Chesty (Member # 13626) on :
Note that the legacy of the blacks in Moorish Spain can be seen here in the legend of the Black Prince's Ruby:
quote: The Black Prince's Ruby enters the "stage of history" in middle of the 14th century as the possession of Abu Said, the Moorish Prince of Granada. At that time, the rule Castillian Spain was being centralized to Seville and the Moorish Kingdom of Granada was being systematically attacked and reverted to Spanish rule as a part of the Christian Reconquest of Spain. Abu Said in particular was confronted by the belligerency of nascent Castile under the rule of Pedro of Castile, also known to history as Don Pedro the Cruel. According to historical accounts, Abu Said wished to surrender to Don Pedro, but the conditions he offered were unclear. What is clear is that Don Pedro welcomed his coming to Seville. It is recorded that he greatly desired Abu Said's wealth. When Abu Said met with Don Pedro, the Don had Said's servants killed and may have personally stabbed Said to death himself. Upon searching Said's corpse, the spinel was found and added to Don Pedro's possessions.
In 1366, Don Pedro's illegitimate brother led a revolt against Don Pedro. Lacking the power to put down the revolt unaided, Don Pedro made an alliance with the Black Prince. The revolt was successfully put down and the Black Prince demanded Abu Said's ruby in exchange for the services he had rendered. While historians speculate that this was contrary to Don Pedro's desires, he had just suffered a costly civil war and was in no position to decline. It can be assumed that The Black Prince took the Ruby back to England, although it is absent from historical records until 1415.
In all reality the Black prince most likely originally was a reference to Abu Said and became associated with Edward of Woodstock, Prince of Wales, because of the jewel. Anyway this ruby is the most famous of the crown jewels and most importantly, most of these jewels represent defeats and conquests of Europeans.
Doug M stated "Moore info on the Moors and the significant number of black Africans among them", to which I would add the title 'Moor' to indicate black tells me us they were African. If anything, the hue compromised ones (the fairer?ones) were the minority and that does not make them less African! Like the NFL with a white coach and assistant, it is still black team!
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Yazid, I was not stating that all Moors were black or only one hue. What I was attempting to do was put forward evidence that there WERE blacks among the various Muslim populations that entered Spain and stayed there from the 7th century to 14th century. If anything this period was the beginning of a great mixture and melding of traditions across the Muslim world from Europe, Asia and Africa, meaning many different people played a role in the Muslim culture of Andalus and Moorish Africa.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Here is another interesting piece I ran across on the Moors:
quote: He had no armour, for there had been no time to put it on. It was sufficient for him to know that his palace was assailed, to leap from his bed, and putting on the barest clothing, snatch at the ponderous axe which always hung within reach on the wall of the bedchamber , and rush out and take his charge of the defence. There seemed to be no room for our people on the hall floor, so great a space did my father's sweeping weapon keep clear. I recall all that I have heard of his prowess, but surely he never wielded such deadly strokes as he did that night in defence of his home. One man tried to rush in, thinking to get within the sweep of the axe, but my father was ready. He slid his hands down the handle towards the axe's head, and thus shortening the reach, brought it with awful force on the fellow's head, and laid him lifeless on the marble floor. With his own hand he struck down half a score of the men whose dusky faces we could now see. They were Moors; not bandits. Doubtless they had never forgotten that the palace my father had won had once been theirs, and this was an effort not so much to regain it as to work out their plan of revenge. They might capture it, but they could never expect to hold it against the might of Spain. They could rob, and kill, and burn; and that they had come to do. a good book
While I stood on the stairs, compelled to stay there, since there was no room on the crowded floor of the hall, I heard the Moorish war - cry behind me. The Moors, some of whom knew the place well, since it had once been their home, had entered at another point, and were crowding along the corridor in which I had been standing when I rang the alarm bell. Now came my own turn to fight, and Padillo, who was at my side, shouting his loudest to our men on the stairs, leaped forward to meet the Moors who came that way. I have known but few who could use a sword so skillfully, and he drove them back step by step with his cutting and lunging. But in the end numbers told. Those behind drove forward the Moors who were in front, until there was such a crowd that there was not room for us to use our own weapons.
The Moors came on, driving us backwards to the staircase, where many of us lost our footing and fell, and the enemy, pressed by their fellows, trampled over our bodies as we lay. .It was terrible - to hear all the clamour of the conflict, the screams of the wounded, the shouts of the fighters, my father's strong voice ringing above the clamour, the clash of the steel, the thud of a falling body.
But all came to an end as far as I was concerned, for while I lay beneath the trampling feet of a hundred Moors, one who saw me move bent down and struck me with his mailed fist. My eyes seemed to strike fire at his blow, and then, feeling such pain as I can scarce describe, I lost all consciousness, lying there, as I have since been told, like one who was dead.
Someone can clarify this however, my understanding of "who" were considered Moors was any Africans in Europe at the time whites arrived to observe them. And the Africans in Europe went by different names where later, although whites might have been considered these people, the indigenous phase was African: Celts, Gauls, Halstaat, La Tene, Vikings (in the earliest phase). The picture I have of Attila the Hun is with his head under the foot of the wooly-headed Valentin (who defeated the Huns). Attila's head was wooly - African (interesting is that Budapest is named of two parts of Hungary Buda and Pest that became one. But, Buda was the name of Attila's brother. Along with Valentin, the general who brought about Attila's fall was Aetius. Aetius was trained by Attila since he was a child and reliefs show him also with wooly hair, African. Attila lived mostly in the Carpathian Basin and Panonia during the time of the Roman Empire. Hungary includes the Pannonia and the Carpathian Basin. The figurine and statues of this time are mostly African.
CONCLUDING: Any non-white person "might" have been called a Moor and non-whites in Europe of that time were African.
Your question was about the color of Moors. The picture above shows some.
Best regards,
Marc
Posted by Marc Washington (Member # 10979) on :
Concerning the name "Moors" being generic and not "tribal" per se, it's a historical fact that black Moors were to be found in Scandinavia and the Netherlands. Here is something to consider with their presence in the Netherlands. We have the name of the American general Westmooreland. Pronounced in German, the West is "Vest" The West Moor land. Picture 8 contains an African presumably a Moor showing newly incursive whites around the terraine. Where did whites coming from land-locked lands get their boats? Same place the Sea People did - undeniably from Africans. Picture 9 shows an African peoples that history could call, variously, the original Vikings, indigenous East Greenland, Tassilaq people, to Moors; 3 being an example of a "later" boat. No. 1 perhaps an earlier one.
^^Marc, the Moors is a term that refers to the populations that entered Spain in 700AD from Northern Africa. It became a general term for dark skinned person in Europe after the actual Moorish period was over in Spain. This has never been applied to Huns. The Huns and their features is a totally different ethnology and history. This thread is specifically referring to those who entered Europe from Africa in the Islamic period, not a general overview of who and who wasn't dark skinned in Europe at any given point. The stuff you are talking about should be in a separate thread.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Doug, if you remember who you're addressing then you know it would do you no good. LOL Posted by Myra Wysinger (Member # 10126) on :
Bronze figurine of a Moorish cavalryman
This bronze figurine, originally seated on a horse, shows a Moor from the Roman province of Mauretania in North Africa. He has distinctive dreadlocks, a drooping moustache and a full beard. His eyes appear very lifelike because they are inlaid with silver. He wears leather boots and a short cloak over a tunic, and he holds his round shield in front of him. His right hand, now broken, would probably have held a spear.
Moorish cavalrymen rode without bridles and as early as the second century BC they were famous for their nimble horsemanship. They were deployed as specialist units in the Roman army, and a detachment is clearly depicted in one of the sculpted battle scenes on Trajan's Column in Rome (erected about AD 113). There they are shown fighting alongside Roman troops in the Emperor Trajan's Dacian Wars (AD 101-105).
Great pictures. Why is this stuff not in history books? Especially black history ones? Are whites trying to hide this?
Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by Ebony Allen: Great pictures. Why is this stuff not in history books? Especially black history ones? Are whites trying to hide this?
Most probably don't even know they exist...lol. I don't think there's any doubt about the Almoravid and Almohade Dynasties...what people usually debate is the nature and ethnic makeup of the invading force.
Here's another...this is called The Nubian Guard The Musician Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Ebony Allen: Great pictures. Why is this stuff not in history books? Especially black history ones? Are whites trying to hide this?
Yes. America has been known to ban for import many images, books and other material that puts blacks into a positive light. Europe has never had this problem, seeing as they are the ones who would KNOW about the history of blacks and civilization first hand. It is only America which has tried to create a fake history for blacks that omits their contributions to civilization. Remember that Europe was never racist towards blacks the way that they were/are in America, because America's whole EXISTENCE and very NATURE is based on racism and oppression and nothing else, no matter what they SAY out their mouths. Europe's history is quite different and they are more honest about the bloody history of civilization and how everything about civilization isnt always "good" as some want it to be. Of course Europe has also been very racist in its own right, but this racism isnt so much in denial of the OBVIOUS, it is more up front and open as opposed to hidden in the closet and behind capes and masks. This is probably due to the long history of wars, strife, struggle, conflict, imperialism and destruction in European civilizations that has produced a more honest attitude towards empire building than the "new and different", two faced, dishonest and hypocritical approach of American imperialism.
Posted by zdf (Member # 13666) on :
Not to excuse America's truly despicable history of racism but I personally think Europe has had less race conflict primarily because it has had less racial diversity. Seems to me that the conditions of North Africans in France and South Asians in England, the level of discrimination they currently face, demonstrate that any society is capable of brutal nationalist racism when it faces large amounts of immigration and diversity within its borders. Of course it is horrible, but I doubt if there is a society which has fully escaped it. I think you're right, however, that European views of world power are more "realistic" as opposed to "idealistic," in part due to its history of bloody wars and imperial clashes. Still, when Britain was the world's top power it did things like abolish the slave trade, talking of morals and the rights of human beings, while simultaneously breaking heads all over Africa and Asia to maintain its empire. Isn't that similar to America's dubious self-righteousness today?
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by zdf: Not to excuse America's truly despicable history of racism but I personally think Europe has had less race conflict primarily because it has had less racial diversity. Seems to me that the conditions of North Africans in France and South Asians in England, the level of discrimination they currently face, demonstrate that any society is capable of brutal nationalist racism when it faces large amounts of immigration and diversity within its borders. Of course it is horrible, but I doubt if there is a society which has fully escaped it. I think you're right, however, that European views of world power are more "realistic" as opposed to "idealistic," in part due to its history of bloody wars and imperial clashes. Still, when Britain was the world's top power it did things like abolish the slave trade, talking of morals and the rights of human beings, while simultaneously breaking heads all over Africa and Asia to maintain its empire. Isn't that similar to America's dubious self-righteousness today?
Actually, the two are quite different. Europe was open and up front with their need to keep Africa as part of their imperial domain. America has to this day DENIED any involvement in the rape and pillage of Africa by American companies and financial interests. South Africa and Anglo American corporation are a good example of this.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Beautiful paintings. I find it funny, that most or all paintings which depict Moors in their true black appearance were created by European artists.
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Yes. America has been known to ban for import many images, books and other material that puts blacks into a positive light. Europe has never had this problem, seeing as they are the ones who would KNOW about the history of blacks and civilization first hand. It is only America which has tried to create a fake history for blacks that omits their contributions to civilization. Remember that Europe was never racist towards blacks the way that they were/are in America, because America's whole EXISTENCE and very NATURE is based on racism and oppression and nothing else, no matter what they SAY out their mouths. Europe's history is quite different and they are more honest about the bloody history of civilization and how everything about civilization isnt always "good" as some want it to be. Of course Europe has also been very racist in its own right, but this racism isnt so much in denial of the OBVIOUS, it is more up front and open as opposed to hidden in the closet and behind capes and masks. This is probably due to the long history of wars, strife, struggle, conflict, imperialism and destruction in European civilizations that has produced a more honest attitude towards empire building than the "new and different", two faced, dishonest and hypocritical approach of American imperialism.
I find this to be strange, considering that white American racism and white supremacy was inherited directly from their European ancestors.
quote:Originally posted by zdf: Not to excuse America's truly despicable history of racism but I personally think Europe has had less race conflict primarily because it has had less racial diversity. Seems to me that the conditions of North Africans in France and South Asians in England, the level of discrimination they currently face, demonstrate that any society is capable of brutal nationalist racism when it faces large amounts of immigration and diversity within its borders. Of course it is horrible, but I doubt if there is a society which has fully escaped it. I think you're right, however, that European views of world power are more "realistic" as opposed to "idealistic," in part due to its history of bloody wars and imperial clashes. Still, when Britain was the world's top power it did things like abolish the slave trade, talking of morals and the rights of human beings, while simultaneously breaking heads all over Africa and Asia to maintain its empire. Isn't that similar to America's dubious self-righteousness today?
Not really. You cannot blame immigration or newcomers as being the 'cause' of racism in a society. The people had to have been racist from the start for them to have problems with blacks and south Asians. One example can be seen here in the U.S. when about a decade or so ago, I believe in Iowa, they had a sudden appearance of white supremacist groups when a greater number of blacks started moving into that practically all white state. The people obviously harbored such racist views from the start for them to reac in such a way.
By the way, do any of you guys remember that Robin Hood movie that came out back in the early 90s starring Kevin Costner? I barely remember the story, but I know Morgan Freeman played a Moore in that movie. I also know several white history professors who are pretty adamant about Moores being black so maybe white Americans are not as bad as you think.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Interesting account of the battle Navas De Tolosa, where the Almohades were defeated by the Europeans. Navas de tolosa was a combined effort by many different European kingdoms, as part of call to Crusade by the Pope, to defeat a combined force of Africans from many different kingdoms under a similar call to Jihad by the Muslim Caliph.
quote: Spain was threatened now as France had been threatened centuries before when Charles Martel crushed the Arab hordes on the plains of Tours. All Christendom felt the danger and Pope Innocent III. preached a crusade for the defence of Spain against the infidel. In response, thousands of armed cru- [97] saders flocked into Spain, coming in corps, in bands, and as individuals, and gathered about Toledo, the capital of Alfonso VIII., King of Castile. From all the surrounding nations they came, and camped in the rich country about the capital, a host which Alfonso had much ado to feed.
Mohammed An Nassir, the emperor of the Almohades, responded to the effort of the Pope by organizing a crusade in Moslem Africa. He proclaimed an Algihed, or Holy War, ordered a massacre of all the Christians in his dominions, and then led the fanatical murderers to Spain to join the forces there in arms. Christian Europe was pitted against Moslem Africa in a holy war, Spain the prize of victory, and the plains of Andalusia the arena of the coming desperate strife.
The decisive moment was at hand. Mohammed left Morocco and reached Seville in June. His new levies were pouring into Spain in hosts. On the 21st of June Alfonso began his advance, leading southward a splendid array. Archbishops and bishops headed the army. In the van marched a mighty force of fifty thousand men under Don Diego Lopez de Haro, ten thousand of them being cavalry. After them came the troops of the kings of Aragon and Castile, each a distinct army. Next came the knights of St. John of Calatrava and the knights of Santiago, their grand-masters leading, and after them many other bodies, including troops from Italy and Germany. Such a gallant host Spain had rarely seen. It was needed, for the peril was great. While one hundred thousand marched under the Christian ban- [98] ners, the green standard of the prophet, if we may credit the historians, rose before an army nearly four times as large.
....
It was a splendid array upon which the Christians gazed,—one well calculated to make them tremble for the result,—for the hosts of Mohammed covered the [100] hill-sides and plain like "countless swarms of locusts." On an eminence which gave an outlook over the whole broad space stood the emperor's tent, of three-ply crimson velvet flecked with gold, strings of pearls depending from its purple fringes. To guard it from assault rows of iron chains were stretched, before which stood three thousand camels in line. In front of these ten thousand negroes formed a living wall, their front bristling with the steel of their lances, whose butts were planted firmly in the sand. In the centre of this powerful guard stood the emperor, wearing the green dress and turban of his ancestral line. Grasping in one hand his scimitar, in the other he held a Koran, from which he read those passages of inspiration to the Moslems which promised the delights of Paradise to those who should fall in a holy war and the torments of hell to the coward who should desert his ranks.
The funny part is that the patterns of warfare, chivalry and dress of these periods were all pretty much derived from the cultures in the east. The horsemanship, bridling, barding, chain armor, castles and other things were very similar between the two camps, owing to a common origin. Mail armor, horsemanship, colorful standards, war drums, castles and mail armor were all standard aspects of warfare going back to the times of Egypt and Mesopotamia. It was only later, in the 14th century and onwards, that the European fashion of plate armored knights and gunpowder became a distinguishing feature of European warfare. In fact even the heraldric devices of Europe derive from the East, as the various soldiers from the various regions of the Muslim empires often had their own colors, standards and regalia, which helpded distinguish them on the battlefield. The checkerboard often seen in European heraldry can be seen in Egypt from an ancient time and the walking or reared lion is a familiar motif in Perisan and Babylonian symbols of State and warfare. Likewise putting the images of defeated enemies into standards, banners and imagery is likewise ancient in the Levant and Egypt.
quote: Before the great pyramids, ancient Egyptian kings left less grandiose monuments to themselves: fortresslike sanctuaries enclosed by mud-brick walls. Inside these mortuary complexes, people presumably gathered to worship and perpetuate the memory of their departed ruler. The crumbling, almost vanished remains of such structures, archaeologists say, attest to the political hierarchy and religion of the newly unified Egyptian state, beginning more than 5,000 years ago.
Oldest free standing wall on earth, from Upper Egypt. Note that the recessed niches of this wall predate anything similar in Mesopotamia, even though the historians and archaeologists claim that the Egyptians derived their ideas from there. This is an example of the monumental walled cities, fortresses and palaces that were typical of Egyptian architecture using mud brick and wood. Quite often this architecture is decayed and no longer exists, but MOST of Egypt's architecture was built using mud brick and wood, which has unfortunately not survived.
Example of an egyptian whitewashed mudbrick and painted wood house.
These themes of architecture from Egypt and elswhere played heavily on the rise of the Moors, as they were built on the indigenous traditions of both local Africans, which included traditions from Egypt.
Ben Youssef Madrassah from Marrakesch showing African architectural elements:
And also do not forget that daggers were a very important part of the dress of the pharoahs, as can be seen in the daggers found in tut's tomb. Well made ornate daggers have also been found all along the Nile in Egypt and Sudan, attesting to the ancient practice of using daggers. These daggers were often worn in the waist.
Posted by One_and_Done (Member # 10712) on :
Ebony Allen wrote:
quote: Great pictures. Why is this stuff not in history books? Especially black history ones? Are whites trying to hide this?
Are you crazy? White americans of european extract do not tell lies, provide misinformation or hide the truth.
What reason would they have to lie?
They don't even care about Africans or African Americans. And they especially don't care about Africa's history and culture.
You act as if they get bent out of shape and angry when you post something about Africa. You don't see them obsessing about Africans on any of their websites. In all of my time using google and yahoo I have never come across whites discussing Africans or African Americans at all.
However you will find Africans and African Americans obsessing about Finland, Luxemberg, Slovenia and Scotland. Anybody who has had any experience on the internet has seen this.
Besides the North African men in those pictures are caucasoids because they show caucasoid tendencies. This is because caucasoids came in from the Middle East and mixed with their foremothers.
And before anyone of you African Americans start, those people posted do not look like you. These people are from North Africa you are sub-saharan.
Its laughable, because Africans have nothing to do with North Africa.
Stick to West, East, and Southern Africa. Leave Morrocco, Algeria, Mauritania, Mali, Tunisia, Niger, Libya, Chad, Egypt, and Sudan alone.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by One_and_Done: ...Besides the North African men in those pictures are caucasoids because they show caucasoid tendencies. This is because caucasoids came in from the Middle East and mixed with their foremothers.
There is no such thing as "caucasoids". It is a bankrupt and invalid term scientifically as well as plain logically.
quote:And before anyone of you African Americans start, those people posted do not look like you. These people are from North Africa you are sub-saharan.
I'm not African American, but even I know there is no seperation between "North" and "sub-Sahara". Both are on the same continent. The Sahara was not always a desert but was once green and fertile, but even when it did dry out and become desert was there never a barrier between south of it and north of it.
quote:Its laughable, because Africans have nothing to do with North Africa.
LMAO at this nonsensical cotradictory statement! How can Africans have nothing to do with North Africa?! LOL
quote:Stick to West, East, and Southern Africa. Leave Morrocco, Algeria, Mauritania, Mali, Tunisia, Niger, Libya, Chad, Egypt, and Sudan alone.
We see where you're coming from-- a false disillusioned mentality. I knew it from the moment you posted in this board. 'One and Done' you've got issues, and judging by your latest post your logic seems that it was 'one and done' a while now. Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M:
The funny part is that the patterns of warfare, chivalry and dress of these periods were all pretty much derived from the cultures in the east. The horsemanship, bridling, barding, chain armor, castles and other things were very similar between the two camps, owing to a common origin. Mail armor, horsemanship, colorful standards, war drums, castles and mail armor were all standard aspects of warfare going back to the times of Egypt and Mesopotamia. It was only later, in the 14th century and onwards, that the European fashion of plate armored knights and gunpowder became a distinguishing feature of European warfare. In fact even the heraldric devices of Europe derive from the East, as the various soldiers from the various regions of the Muslim empires often had their own colors, standards and regalia, which helpded distinguish them on the battlefield. The checkerboard often seen in European heraldry can be seen in Egypt from an ancient time and the walking or reared lion is a familiar motif in Perisan and Babylonian symbols of State and warfare. Likewise putting the images of defeated enemies into standards, banners and imagery is likewise ancient in the Levant and Egypt.
I doubt chain mail came from Egypt since Chain Mail (or an early version of it) wasn't used in Ancient Egypt until the New Kingdom after Hyksos rule. Chain mail probably originated in the Levant somewhere and was just diffused to Egypt like the chariot.
You're right though that a lot of the chivalry aspects of Middle Age Europe comes from the East...it was talked about to some extent in Golden Age of the Moor.
Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by One_and_Done: Ebony Allen wrote:
quote: Great pictures. Why is this stuff not in history books? Especially black history ones? Are whites trying to hide this?
Are you crazy? White americans of european extract do not tell lies, provide misinformation or hide the truth.
What reason would they have to lie?
They don't even care about Africans or African Americans. And they especially don't care about Africa's history and culture.
You act as if they get bent out of shape and angry when you post something about Africa. You don't see them obsessing about Africans on any of their websites. In all of my time using google and yahoo I have never come across whites discussing Africans or African Americans at all.
However you will find Africans and African Americans obsessing about Finland, Luxemberg, Slovenia and Scotland. Anybody who has had any experience on the internet has seen this.
Besides the North African men in those pictures are caucasoids because they show caucasoid tendencies. This is because caucasoids came in from the Middle East and mixed with their foremothers.
And before anyone of you African Americans start, those people posted do not look like you. These people are from North Africa you are sub-saharan.
Its laughable, because Africans have nothing to do with North Africa.
Stick to West, East, and Southern Africa. Leave Morrocco, Algeria, Mauritania, Mali, Tunisia, Niger, Libya, Chad, Egypt, and Sudan alone.
You DO realize Sudan is IN East Africa right!!! HAHAHAHAHAHA....
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ It doesn't matter, because the nation of Sudan straddles both "sub-Sahara" as well as North Africa. And technically, Egypt is also in 'East Africa', specifically the northeastern corner of the continent itself. Just as Morocco is West African, specifically northwestern Africa. ALL are Africa, so whatever 'argument' he thinks he makes is null and void.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by King_Scorpion:
quote:Originally posted by Doug M:
The funny part is that the patterns of warfare, chivalry and dress of these periods were all pretty much derived from the cultures in the east. The horsemanship, bridling, barding, chain armor, castles and other things were very similar between the two camps, owing to a common origin. Mail armor, horsemanship, colorful standards, war drums, castles and mail armor were all standard aspects of warfare going back to the times of Egypt and Mesopotamia. It was only later, in the 14th century and onwards, that the European fashion of plate armored knights and gunpowder became a distinguishing feature of European warfare. In fact even the heraldric devices of Europe derive from the East, as the various soldiers from the various regions of the Muslim empires often had their own colors, standards and regalia, which helpded distinguish them on the battlefield. The checkerboard often seen in European heraldry can be seen in Egypt from an ancient time and the walking or reared lion is a familiar motif in Perisan and Babylonian symbols of State and warfare. Likewise putting the images of defeated enemies into standards, banners and imagery is likewise ancient in the Levant and Egypt.
I doubt chain mail came from Egypt since Chain Mail (or an early version of it) wasn't used in Ancient Egypt until the New Kingdom after Hyksos rule. Chain mail probably originated in the Levant somewhere and was just diffused to Egypt like the chariot.
You're right though that a lot of the chivalry aspects of Middle Age Europe comes from the East...it was talked about to some extent in Golden Age of the Moor.
Actually, as I have posted earlier, the Egyptians used scale and chain armor from a very early period. The issue in most circles becomes whether was purely for symbolic, ornamental or actually used in warfare. Pieces of scale armor have been found as far back as the first intermediate period, long before the Hyksos invasion. Princess Kemsit is often shown wearing a variation of a scaled dress, which could have been made of leather. Egyptians have also been used to use beads as a form of scaled dress and adornment, if not a form of armor. From this you can see that the Egyptians have been making intricate garments of linked plate, bead, metal, leather and glass for a very long time. The corselet found in Tutankhamun's tomb is a form of mail or linked armor, even if it isn't the form of linked metal hoops. They all fall into the same category of material. Like everything else, much of this aspect of Egyptian history is based, often erroneously, on the remaining imagery from Egypt. It should be considered that it is possible that many of the depictions of Egyptian soldiers in battle was as much symbolic as literal, meaning that it was not necessarily a 100% true to life reflection of ACTUAL gear used by Egyptian soldiers at any given time.
From the thread "Egyptian slippers (about the textile traditions of Egypt)"
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Another example of the elaborate styles of dress that often dont get much coverage from Egypt:
Look closely at the somewhat faded intricate colored mail corselet worn by Amenhotep III.
The remains of a similar type of coreselet was found in tut's tomb:
Note that these styles of corselets are an excelllent example of the level of sophistication in making stylized scale and chain mail armors for the royalty along with the elaborate helmets that were worn. Many people confuse the fact that the Egyptians portrayed themselves going to war in loincloths as meaning that they actually had no scaled armor of leather or metal. This was not the case, as most of these images were simply traditional, going back to the beginnings of the Egyptian state and had nothing to do with the actual day to day accoutrements of warfare. If they only wore kilts they would have been destroyed way before the 6th dynasty.
Anyway, this type of scaled dress is very old indeed in Egypt and can be seen going back a ways. One good example is the dress of Kemsit from the 12th dynasty. Which, by the way, I also recall seeing in its full color glory in one of the Egyptian picture books I have here at home....
I think it was on the cover of the The Oxford History of Ancient Egypt (or History of the World) from the late 80s to early 90s that featured an excellent illustration of Rameses II riding into battle with horses that had colorful plumes, riding gloves, scale armor and the like. Definitely a sight to see and definitely NOT the linen kilt wearing soldier many would expect from Egypt.
A funny thing I have noticed is that many of the picture books offer more undeniably black African images from Egypt than those on the web, whether any color remains or not. I was looking at some of the sculpted reliefs from Karnak and it was amply evident. A good example is the white chapel of senwosret I. Also there are images of tombs that are not often found on the web as well.
More on scale armor and clothing from the ancient world:
quote: 98) Thomas Hulit, University of Durham, Organic Body Armor in the Late Bronze Age Near East
Organic remains in archaeology are often lost due to decomposition, and can lead to large gaps in our understanding of the archaeological record. Organic materials were often used in the manufacture of military equipment, including body armor. Current hypotheses generally suggest that most body armor from the Late Bronze Age was manufactured from bronze, however the author’s recent research suggests that the majority of coats of scale body armor in use in the LBA were made from rawhide. As a biologically active (but inert) material, rawhide rarely survives in the archaeological record, and there is only one known surviving LBA example of rawhide armor; the armor from the tomb of Tut_Ankham_n. In an analysis of the methods of construction of scale body armor, the socio-economic factors governing its use, and the relevant contemporary Near Eastern texts, it appears that as many as 200 coats of organic armor were in use for every one coat of bronze armor. It is also quite likely that the few bronze armor scales found in excavations were from coats of armor made of a composite of both bronze and rawhide scales. Experimental work conducted at H.M. Royal Armories Museum (Leeds) has proven that bronze, rawhide, and composite bronze/rawhide scale armor is quite effective at protecting the wearer from injury.
But even with the decay of artifacts, the abundance of imagery from Egypt of persons wearing scale and intricate chain armor suggests that it was much more widespread than what is often suggested in Egypt.
Your point about whites not obsessing about Africans and AAs is just totally wrong. It's done all the time. No wonder, no one on this site takes what you write seriously at all.
So just check the following to show that you really have not done much checking on the Internet.
amren.com newnation.org n####rmania.com guardian.co.uk(see Cif sections for frequent blogs on Africa) And there are many others.
Posted by Ebony Allen (Member # 12771) on :
[QUOTE]Originally posted by One_and_Done: [qb] Ebony Allen wrote:
[QUOTE] Great pictures. Why is this stuff not in history books? Especially black history ones? Are whites trying to hide this?
QUOTE]Are you crazy? White americans of european extract do not tell lies, provide misinformation or hide the truth.
What reason would they have to lie?
They don't even care about Africans or African Americans. And they especially don't care about Africa's history and culture.
You act as if they get bent out of shape and angry when you post something about Africa. You don't see them obsessing about Africans on any of their websites. In all of my time using google and yahoo I have never come across whites discussing Africans or African Americans at all.
However you will find Africans and African Americans obsessing about Finland, Luxemberg, Slovenia and Scotland. Anybody who has had any experience on the internet has seen this.
Besides the North African men in those pictures are caucasoids because they show caucasoid tendencies. This is because caucasoids came in from the Middle East and mixed with their foremothers.
And before anyone of you African Americans start, those people posted do not look like you. These people are from North Africa you are sub-saharan.
Its laughable, because Africans have nothing to do with North Africa.
Stick to West, East, and Southern Africa. Leave Morrocco, Algeria, Mauritania, Mali, Tunisia, Niger, Libya, Chad, Egypt, and Sudan alone.
I'm going to reply to everything you've just said. First I'm gonna say that you're in serious denial. They hid the truth about Egypt and other African civilizations.
They think they're superior and want to believe that every great civilization on this planet was built by them. They can't stand the thought of blacks building a good civilization like Egypt. And you call me crazy??? You say whites don't care about African history and culture? They damn sure as hell care about Egypt being a white civilization. Plus they obsess about natural resources. Why the hell do you think they colonized the continent anyway?
Whites do get bent out of shape. I don't know what message boards you've been looking at. Many of them get mad when they keep hearing African Americans say Egyptians were black. Just because you didn't come across any websites where whites were discussing blacks doesn't mean there aren't any. I think you know anyway. You just don't want to admit it.
Most blacks do have an inferiority complex. Plenty of us have seen it. Like I said before, whites obsess about Egypt, Ethiopia, and even Great Zimbabwe being white civilizations.
And just what is a Caucasoid? There are blacks with so-called Caucasoid traits.
I happen to be African American. I don't care that they don't look like me and I don't care where they or I come from.
And yes, it is laughable. You're really making me laugh. Like someone said earlier Sudan is in North Africa. The Nubians were Sudanese. And they were black. Ethiopia and Egypt are in northeast Africa. The civilizations in these two countries were black. You mean to tell me that Nigeria is not in northwest Africa. The Yoruba and Igbo civilizations are black.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ You guys waste your time and energy responding that this 'one and dumb' guy. The guy subscribes to the false and logically bankrupt term "caucasoid"-- that's strike one. Then he claims whites don't care about African culture (despite their obsession with Egypt)-- that's strike two. He then tells African Americans or peoples of 'Sub-Saharan' ancestry to "leave North Africa alone" and "stick with Sub-Saharan countries"-- that's strike three! The guy is out or rather is outed!
He is either a racist white posing as an African or a North African racist against blacks or "sub-Saharans". Either way, his stance is based on emotional and illogical rhetoric.
I say ignore him and continue with the topic please!
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Ebony Allen:
Most blacks do have an inferiority complex.
Is this based on polling of "most" blacks around the globe?
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ LMFO Good question! Posted by Nice Vidadavida *sigh* (Member # 13372) on :
quote:Originally posted by One_and_Done: Ebony Allen wrote:
quote: Great pictures. Why is this stuff not in history books? Especially black history ones? Are whites trying to hide this?
Are you crazy? White americans of european extract do not tell lies, provide misinformation or hide the truth.
What reason would they have to lie?
They don't even care about Africans or African Americans. And they especially don't care about Africa's history and culture.
You act as if they get bent out of shape and angry when you post something about Africa. You don't see them obsessing about Africans on any of their websites. In all of my time using google and yahoo I have never come across whites discussing Africans or African Americans at all.
However you will find Africans and African Americans obsessing about Finland, Luxemberg, Slovenia and Scotland. Anybody who has had any experience on the internet has seen this.
Besides the North African men in those pictures are caucasoids because they show caucasoid tendencies. This is because caucasoids came in from the Middle East and mixed with their foremothers.
And before anyone of you African Americans start, those people posted do not look like you. These people are from North Africa you are sub-saharan.
Its laughable, because Africans have nothing to do with North Africa.
Stick to West, East, and Southern Africa. Leave Morrocco, Algeria, Mauritania, Mali, Tunisia, Niger, Libya, Chad, Egypt, and Sudan alone.
LMAO!!!!!@ leave Sudan, Mali, Mauritania, Niger and Chad alone..umm do you know anything about these places??!?! *snickering* I'll agree that African Americans should concentrate more on themselves and their origins in Sub Saharan Africa, BUT this is an ALL African continent study board who the hell are you to tell people what to study especially if you are not black or African?
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
^^Actually it is ALL important because it shows how foreigners have CONTRIVED to DIVIDE Africa and try to CREATE and REINFORCE a FAKE stereotype of BLACK Africans ONLY being found South of the Sahara, as if they werent the majority IN the Sahara and North of it for MOST of the history of Northern Africa. This pattern of deception and outright FRAUD is designed to CUT OFF BLACK Africans from their OWN identity ad BLACK Africans and to create NEW FAKE identities based around a MYTH of a NONBLACK North African type that was prevalent in the period of the ancient kingdoms and cultures of Northern Africa, especially prior to and during the Early period of Muslim conquest.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Don't know how many times this has to be repeated especially on this board of all places.
Black African does NOT = "Sub-Sahara"!
Blacks are indigenous to ALL of Africa including North of the Sahara.
Posted by One_and_Done (Member # 10712) on :
The responses to my post is very telling of the posters who responded.
The lack of analytical ability, the emotionalism, and lack of critical thinking is astounding. What you chose to items you responded to and the content of the response, the items that you did not respond to.
This speaks volumes about your mentality. I'll be willing to bet that you guys are a byproduct of American media. You are actually making Africans and their diaspora look worse.
Those who have read your responses can see this.
However to further prove my point I will carry you on for another round.
Again as I say white americans of european extract and even europeans themselves do not lie regarding historical matters. Sub-saharans do not have anything to do with North Africa that is why the historians keep them separate.
The Moors were North Africans not sub-saharans. As can be seen from the posted pictures above the Moors do not look anything like African-Americans.
Posted by One_and_Done (Member # 10712) on :
Nice Vidadavida *sigh* wrote:
quote:
It is quite clear that you are one of the most sound and profound posters on this forum. Your posts are always backed up with facts and not opinions. You are clearly not obsessed with African Americans as you have been accused. Your posts definitely do not wreek of a poor pitiful loser white racist. You should be given high adjulations by all.
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
quote: Besides the North African men in those pictures are caucasoids because they show caucasoid tendencies. This is because caucasoids came in from the Middle East and mixed with their foremothers.
Its laughable, because Africans have nothing to do with North Africa.
ma fren,
1. What are caucasian tendencies? That is as dubious, unscientific and ahistorical as I can think of!!!!!!!
2. What absurdity is "Africans have nothing to do with North Africa". If Europeans come from Europe then following the same syllogistic constructive formation, then Africans come from Africa! Don't uou think?
3. Having half European ancestry! has never made one European. Neither can we say that because one has a European phenotype (not sure what that means totally but let me fly with it), that one is considered European. I'm trying to stay away from the poisonous use of the word race or colour as in USA so please bear with me!
4. I come back to selected personages in the media with 1/2 European ancestry and are they European? You may want to look them up yourself and test my hypothesis. a. Rashida Jones b. Wentworth Miller III c. Rihanna d. Vin Diesel
5. Keep in mind the European and America version of race, class and ethnicity.
6. I will use your own word so please use your "tendency" and reply in a civil manner represented by your greatness (my words).
god is great
Posted by Nice Vidadavida *sigh* (Member # 13372) on :
quote:Originally posted by One_and_Done: Nice Vidadavida *sigh* wrote:
quote:
It is quite clear that you are one of the most sound and profound posters on this forum. Your posts are always backed up with facts and not opinions. You are clearly not obsessed with African Americans as you have been accused. Your posts definitely do not wreek of a poor pitiful loser white racist. You should be given high adjulations by all.
Gee thanks, this is probably due to my "caucasian tendencies" <--whatever the **** that means LMAO!!!!!!!!!!!!! Posted by rasol (Member # 4592) on :
quote:What are caucasoid tendencies...
^ Tendency to make nonsensical claims based on arguments rooted in racial pseudoscience. (?)
Example: The Moors were fully caucasoid - Erroneous Euro.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Of course.
quote:Originally posted by One_and_Done: It is quite clear that you are one of the most sound and profound posters on this forum. Your posts are always backed up with facts and not opinions. You are clearly not obsessed with African Americans as you have been accused. Your posts definitely do not wreek of a poor pitiful loser white racist. You should be given high adjulations by all.
Says the foolish poster to the clueless one (no offense Vida)! LOL Apparently One_and_done does not realize that most of Vida's posts are questions to the more knowledgeable posters here.
[ 21. June 2007, 05:20 AM: Message edited by: Horus_Den_1 ]
Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M:
quote:Originally posted by King_Scorpion: [qb]
quote:Originally posted by Doug M:
The funny part is that the patterns of warfare, chivalry and dress of these periods were all pretty much derived from the cultures in the east. The horsemanship, bridling, barding, chain armor, castles and other things were very similar between the two camps, owing to a common origin. Mail armor, horsemanship, colorful standards, war drums, castles and mail armor were all standard aspects of warfare going back to the times of Egypt and Mesopotamia. It was only later, in the 14th century and onwards, that the European fashion of plate armored knights and gunpowder became a distinguishing feature of European warfare. In fact even the heraldric devices of Europe derive from the East, as the various soldiers from the various regions of the Muslim empires often had their own colors, standards and regalia, which helpded distinguish them on the battlefield. The checkerboard often seen in European heraldry can be seen in Egypt from an ancient time and the walking or reared lion is a familiar motif in Perisan and Babylonian symbols of State and warfare. Likewise putting the images of defeated enemies into standards, banners and imagery is likewise ancient in the Levant and Egypt.
I doubt chain mail came from Egypt since Chain Mail (or an early version of it) wasn't used in Ancient Egypt until the New Kingdom after Hyksos rule. Chain mail probably originated in the Levant somewhere and was just diffused to Egypt like the chariot.
You're right though that a lot of the chivalry aspects of Middle Age Europe comes from the East...it was talked about to some extent in Golden Age of the Moor.
Actually, as I have posted earlier, the Egyptians used scale and chain armor from a very early period. The issue in most circles becomes whether was purely for symbolic, ornamental or actually used in warfare. Pieces of scale armor have been found as far back as the first intermediate period, long before the Hyksos invasion. Princess Kemsit is often shown wearing a variation of a scaled dress, which could have been made of leather. Egyptians have also been used to use beads as a form of scaled dress and adornment, if not a form of armor. From this you can see that the Egyptians have been making intricate garments of linked plate, bead, metal, leather and glass for a very long time. The corselet found in Tutankhamun's tomb is a form of mail or linked armor, even if it isn't the form of linked metal hoops. They all fall into the same category of material. Like everything else, much of this aspect of Egyptian history is based, often erroneously, on the remaining imagery from Egypt. It should be considered that it is possible that many of the depictions of Egyptian soldiers in battle was as much symbolic as literal, meaning that it was not necessarily a 100% true to life reflection of ACTUAL gear used by Egyptian soldiers at any given time.
From the thread "Egyptian slippers (about the textile traditions of Egypt)"
I don't doubt all of that. I'm saying I doubt MEDIEVAL chainmail came from Ancient Kemet in the way we think of it. That it's more likely it came from elsewhere where chainmail was more commonly used.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
I understand that. The point I was trying to make was that by the MEDEIVAL period chain mail was already old in Africa and Asia, which is where it originated. These populations are the ones who introduced it to Europe. Therefore chain mail was NEW to Western Europe, but OLD to those of the East. The time period of ancient Egyptian scaled and chain mail armor is thousands of years prior to the Medeival period even if just counting the LATE period of Egypt. Just as castles and siege warfare were also already OLD technologies by the time of the Medeival period in Asia and Africa, but NEW to Western Europe. Egypt is PART of the history of chain mail and so-called Medeival warfare, which is ACTUALLY the END of a LONG HISTORY of warfare using castles and cavalry, which was THOUSANDS of years old already.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Chain and scale armor of the Kushites and Meroites:
Even though the images are extensions of Egyptian style, the influence had evolved into elaborate scaled and fancy linked geometric chain armor. No doubt that by the Meoritic period chain mail and other forms of armor were commonplace in Sudan. This influence spread west and south into Kanem and across the deserts towards the West. Therefore, when one speaks of the techniques of warfare in Africa that spread from the East, they are ACTUALLY talking of Sudanic techniques and other techniques from WITHIN Africa, as much as without.
Ramessid period Egyptian armor:
(note how this form fitting leather/scale armor with skirt presages that of Greece and Rome.
An image of a Meroite similar to the images of Sudanese warriors in the Moorish period:
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Extract from "Candide" by Voltaire:
quote: MY eyes have not always been bleared, and bordered with scarlet; my nose has not always touched my chin; nor have I been always a servant. I am the daughter of a king, and the Princess of Palestrina. I was brought up, till I was fourteen, in a palace, to which all the castles of your German barons would not have served for stables, and one of my robes cost more than all the magnificence in Westphalia. I increased in beauty, in charms, and in fine accomplishments, amidst pleasures, homages, and high expectations. I began to captivate every heart. My neck was formed—oh, what a neck! white, firm and shaped like that of the Venus de Medici. And what eyes; what eyelids! what fine black eyebrows! what flames sparkled from my eyeballs; the poets of my country told me they eclipsed the twinkling of the stars! The maids who dressed and undressed me fell into an ecstasy when they viewed me, and all the men would gladly have been in their places.
I was betrothed to a prince, the sovereign of Massa Carara. What a prince! as handsome as myself, all sweetness and charms, of a witty mind, and burning with love. I loved him, as one always loves for the first time, with idolatry, with transport. Preparations were made for our nuptials. The pomp and magnificence were inconceivable; nothing but continual feasts, carousals, and operas; and all Italy made sonnets upon me, of which there was scarce one tolerable. I was just on the point of reaching the summit of happiness, when an old marchioness, who had been mistress to my prince, invited him to drink chocolate at her house. He died there in less than two hours' time in terrible convulsions. But this is only a mere trifle. My mother, in despair, and yet less afflicted than I was, resolved to retreat for some time from so mournful a place. She had a very fine country-seat near Gaeta. We embarked on board a galley of the country, gilt equal to the altar of St. Peter at Rome. We were scarcely at sea, when a corsair of Sallee fell upon and boarded us. Our soldiers defended themselves like true soldiers; they all fell upon their knees, after throwing away their arms, and asked pardon,in articulo mortis, of the corsair.
We were instantly stripped naked as monkeys; my mother, our maids of honor, and myself too, meeting with no better usage. It is a very surprising thing with what expedition these pirate gentry undress people. But what surprised me most was that they should touch us where we women do not ordinarily allow. This ceremony appeared very strange to me; but so we judge of everything that is not done in our own country. I soon learned that the search was to find out whether we had not concealed some of our jewels there. It is a custom established time out of mind among civilized nations that scour the sea. I know that those gentlemen, the pious knights of Malta, never omit to practice it, when they capture Turks of either sex. It is one of the laws of nations, from which they never deviate.
I need not tell you how great a hardship it is for a young princess and her mother to be carried slaves to Morocco. You may easily form a notion of what we underwent on board the vessel of the corsair. My mother was still very handsome, our maids of honor, nay, our plain chambermaids, had more charms than are to be found throughout all Africa. As for myself, I was all attraction, I was all beauty, and all charms; nay, more, I was a virgin. However, I was not one long; for this flower, which had been reserved for the accomplished Prince of Massa Carara, was taken from me by the captain of the corsair. He was an ugly negro, but fancied he did me a great deal of honor. Indeed Her Highness, the Princess of Palestrina, and myself must have been very strong to resist all the violence we met with till our arrival at Morocco. But let me pass over that; these things are so very common that they are hardly worth the mentioning.
Morocco overflowed with blood when we arrived there. Fifty sons of the Emperor Muley Ismael had each their adherents; this produced, in effect, fifty civil wars, of blacks against blacks, of blacks against tawnies, of tawnies against tawnies, and of mulattoes against mulattoes. In a word, there was one continued carnage all over the empire.
No sooner were we landed than the blacks of a party adverse to that of my corsair made an attempt to rob him of his booty. Next to the jewels and the gold, we were the most valuable things he had. I was here witness to such a battle as you never saw in your European climates. The people of the north have not so much fire in their blood, nor have they that raging passion for women that is so common in Africa. One would think that you Europeans had nothing but milk in your veins; but it is vitriol and fire that runs in those of the inhabitants of Mount Atlas and the neighboring countries. They fought with the fury of lions, tigers, and serpents of the country, to determine who should have us. A Moor seized my mother by the right arm, while my captain's lieutenant held her by the left; a Moorish soldier took hold of her by one leg, and our pirates held her by the other. All our women found themselves almost in a moment seized thus by four soldiers. My captain kept me concealed at his back. He had a scimitar in his hand, and killed every one that opposed his fury. In short, I saw all our Italian women and my mother torn to pieces, hacked and mangled by the brutes that fought for them. My fellow-prisoners, those who had taken them, soldiers, sailors, blacks, whites, mulattoes, and lastly my captain himself, were all killed; and I remained expiring upon a heap of dead bodies. These barbarous scenes extended, as every one knows, over more than three hundred leagues, without the perpetrators ever omitting the five prayers a day ordained by Mahomet.
^ Who was it again (some Spaniard) that made a claim something like "in only a few generations we washed out the black stain of the Moors"?
Posted by Mmmkay (Member # 10013) on :
Lets face, we see a bunch of pictures, paintings and anecdotes of stories but none of this really and conclusively tells us about what the majority of moors looked like. I'd like to see some genetic studies and more conclusive evidence before I start making any conclusions.
That last story was interesting though, according to the writer, they were attacked by a group of what seemed to be black and brown-skinned pirates and mauraders from morrocco.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
First one must defines what Moor is...
A North West African? Were the converted people in Iberia Moors as well? Could Arabs be included in the Moors as well? Don't forget that for Medieval Iberians pretty much all muslims were Moors, even the ones in the Philippines.
But restricting this to a North-West African and Iberian scenario, some were undoubtly black. (though defining black is also not that easy). But most weren't. Most proofs seem to point to this really.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ The word 'Moor' is derived from the Greek word Maure meaning black. Hence it is the root word for the name of the modern country of Mauritania, which is a black African country. Moor was used by the Spanish and other Europeans during Medieval times to describe the black North African Muslims. The lighter skinned Berber and Arabs were called Saracen. Moor was eventually adopted by many North Africans regardless of color due to the prestige it carried due to powerful Moorish dynasties such as the Almoravids.
This issue was discussed all too many times before. I suggest you look in the archives.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
I have read the archives, at least part of them. Yes, the word maure means black, but black simply meant dark, as far as we know. And what's dark for some isn't dark for others. Today North Africans are still darker than Italians or Greeks, but I don't think they are black. But this brings me to the following:
What is black exactly? Are the people of nowadays Morocco "black"? Because from what I know I doubt they looked any significantly different from their ancestors just 1000 or 2000 years ago. So if they today are black for you, then yes, the Moors were black. They certanly were African, but black is quite the subjective term to me.
Even in Mauretania, you can find people who at least look similar to Southern Europeans, and the connection between ancient Mauretania and Mauritania is little. Like ancient Ghana and Modern Ghana.
But I await your answers before proceeding.
Posted by lamin (Member # 5777) on :
The majority of present-day Mauretanians are of Foulah, Wolof and other West African extraction. The so-called "Moors"--called locally in Senegal and Gambia "Nar"--could be hardly mistaken for "Southern European". They are generally short and lean in stature and would seem to fit in phenotypically with the nomadic peoples who populate the Sahara--such as the Tuareg. I have seen and spoken with many such.
Present-day Moroccans are, for the most part, phenotypically congruent with the populations of places like the Dominican Republic.
In Renaissance Europe the term "Moor" was used to refer to either "black-a-moor"(an actual "black man"[as per European usage] as in Shakespeare's Othello) or a "tawny-moor"(someone who would be phenotypically congruent with a copper-coloured Tuareg).
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
I know that. I was talking about guys like these:
They do look similar to Southern Europeans.
But again, present day Mauritania and Ancient Mauretania are separated by thousands of miles,specially considering most people in Mauritania live in the extreme south if I am not mistaken, so this matters little.
Also, what's your source for that statement? If the use that word has today in my country is of any indication, Moor was used to label all Muslims, but specifically North African ones, and the phenotype associated with them would one considered "dark med, swarthy".
Morocans look like Dominicans? I never been to both places (though I have met Moroccans and other North Africans and have been to Tunisia) but quick googling of pics (not even necessary since I have seen plenty), including their national teams, would reveal them to be significantly different though there is an overlap yes. I personally would use Brazil instead of the Dominican Republic, since it's a country and people I know better and I think it fitts better. In any event most North Africans have a distinct look which I rarely see in other places.
Still, all of this eludes a question of mine, quite important for this matter. What is...a black person? What defines one? Colour of skin? If so, what colour then? Other characteristics too?
From where I come from, black means SSA like. But then SSA vary alot, so it doesn't really help us. And no reason is given as to why black should only mean SSA.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
First and foremost, the overwhelming issue here is the history of Muslim interaction with North Africa and the history and people involved in that history. Modern Mauretania has a long history and part of it involves a very long war between Arabs and indigenous African berber speaking black Africans. To show the images of the two fellows in Mauretania and not understand the history of Mauretania is to not put things into proper context. The war was called the Char Bouba war and took place AFTER the expulsion of the Moors from Europe. In fact, all throughout the Moorish period in Spain, Arab groups were flowing into North Africa, constantly fighting with various Moorish dynasties and each other. It is the infighting between various Muslim groups that led to the downfall of Moorish Spain, because the infighting allowed the Christians to reorganize and defeat the petty Tarifan kings one by one.
What we are talking about when we say Moor is the indigenous African population from all across North Africa, which had no country boundaries at the time. Morocco did not exist in the time of Moorish Spain. Neither did Algeria, Libya or Tunisia. Morocco was founded by Africans from Southern Morocco, into Senegal and the Sahara, the Almoravids. The name of Morocco being based again on a description of these people as very dark. The Moorish period between AD 700 and 1492 involved many different African people and not just Africans North of the Sahara. The Africans who formed the Almoravid movement were largely indigenous black Africans from the Sahara, Sahel and Senegal river. These people spoke a dialect of the Berber language called Zenaga, which is the basis of the Name Senegal and the Senegal river. It is from these regions that the Almoravid dynasty rose to power. After the Char Bouba war, when many Arabs fought with these Africans for almost a hundred years, the Zenaga language was almost all but obliterated. Again, you cannot understand the modern population of Northern Africa without looking at the history of North Africa to give it context. It should also be noted that the ancient African kingdoms of Ghana and the ancient towns of Tichitt are also found in Southern Mauritania and both predate Islam. These peoples were a significant factor in the trade of gold, spices, leather, camels and other commodities that made the ancient African Muslim empires of Morocco, Algeria, Ghana, Timbuktu, Songhai and others wealthy. The trade caravans of these times were highways of commerce and they too predate the Muslims. But today, these societies and kingdoms are long gone, with modern Ghana being a country far to the South of modern Mauritania. Again, you have to realize that you cannot generalize 1300 years of history from 700 AD to the modern times and not understand how this history has affected the people and cultures of Africa.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
@Doug M:
Yes, good post for the most part even if I have some doubts. First and foremost, I would like to see some sources for that.
With those pics I didn't pretend to imply that such people are the majority or even natives, which I know they aren't. I was only proving my statement that people like that exist in Mauretania. You seem to by implying they are the result of an Historical Middle-East migration. Fine with that, even if they look quite North African to me, it's well known that many Middle-Easterners migrated into North Africa when expanding Islam.
But, again you mention black, without explaining what black is. When one has a thread in which it is asked if the Moors were Black, one must define what a Moor and a Black is. Only after can one go forward.
Now you say that Moors are the indigenous African population all across North Africa. And then I ask...indigenous *African* population? Are there indigenous-non African populations in North Africa? But if they are indigenous, then they are Africans by default, and thus that would be a redundancy. Am I reading too much into your statement? (and indigeneous can be a troublsome word btw, afaik, everybody came from some place else, either sonner or latter). So what did these indigenous North Africans looked like at the beginning of the Islamic expansion? (I believe this is the appropriate time frame, no?) Also, what is North Africa for this discussion? Africa north of the Sahara? North of the Sahel? And you mention indigenous black africans..I might be reading too much into this again, but then, are there indigenous non-black africans? but this leads me to...
I don't really want to sound repetive, but I do need a definition of black. I've offered my own, but as I said it is highly subjective. Certanly not scientific.
Posted by lamin (Member # 5777) on :
The majority of present-day Mauretanians are of Foulah, Wolof and other West African extraction. The so-called "Moors"--called locally in Senegal and Gambia "Nar"--could be hardly mistaken for "Southern European". They are generally short and lean in stature and would seem to fit in phenotypically with the nomadic peoples who populate the Sahara--such as the Tuareg. I have seen and spoken with many such.
Present-day Moroccans are, for the most part, phenotypically congruent with the populations of places like the Dominican Republic.
In Renaissance Europe the term "Moor" was used to refer to either "black-a-moor"(an actual "black man"[as per European usage] as in Shakespeare's Othello) or a "tawny-moor"(someone who would be phenotypically congruent with a copper-coloured Tuareg).
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Hum, why do you repeated your post lamin? This does not make it right (even if it may very well be right).
Also, Doug M, what about North Africans who look liked Southern Europeans but are Berber speaking? Even living in isolated places such as the many mountains there? Is it feasible that they are like that due to Middle-Easterns mixing with them?
Posted by lamin (Member # 5777) on :
The post was not deliberately repeated. There was a message about "flood control" and a request to post again after a short wait. Maybe the first non-post did become a post. It happens on this site from time to time.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Oh, I stand corrected then.
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: But, again you mention black, without explaining what black is. When one has a thread in which it is asked if the Moors were Black, one must define what a Moor and a Black is. Only after can one go forward.
Now you say that Moors are the indigenous African population all across North Africa. And then I ask...indigenous *African* population? Are there indigenous-non African populations in North Africa? But if they are indigenous, then they are Africans by default, and thus that would be a redundancy. Am I reading too much into your statement? (and indigeneous can be a troublsome word btw, afaik, everybody came from some place else, either sonner or latter). So what did these indigenous North Africans looked like at the beginning of the Islamic expansion? (I believe this is the appropriate time frame, no?) Also, what is North Africa for this discussion? Africa north of the Sahara? North of the Sahel? And you mention indigenous black africans..I might be reading too much into this again, but then, are there indigenous non-black africans? but this leads me to...
I don't really want to sound repetive, but I do need a definition of black. I've offered my own, but as I said it is highly subjective. Certanly not scientific. [/QB]
Great points! There is so much sociological Pavlovian conditioning that exists that it is hard to counter with some degree of rationalty so let me start! a. North Africa has never changed for the last 13 centuries, at least since 711. Tariq was a Berber (Amazigh)! and perhaps obviously to Islam and conquered in the name if Islam. Algeria, Morocco, Tunisia etc are still North Africa.
b. Tariq was African (from the continent) and in those days tribal association was often mentioned. Tariq was not black but many of the subsequent conquests by the Sanhaja were black and African and Moor.
c. Moor was a descriptive word referring to a skin colour that was different from the average Spaniard of the day. Around the 711 time period, the average 'Spaniard' was a Visigoth, a part of the Germanic horde to overtake the country. Around 715, the average Spaniard was also perhaps Berber/Amazigh, an Arab or an individual from Africa south of the Sahara aka sub-Saharan Africa since the footsoldiers were from those recently Arabized groups. Just like in France or UK today, the immigrants are given the work "black" as a descriptive because they generally have dark skin. Not all are African but that is how stereotype take off. In some parts of southern Europe, all the dark people may be called Arabs when in fact they are Africans who happen to speak Arabic or again a convenient way to label a group. the word also Moor suffered from that same assignation!
d. IS bin Laden African or Arab? It depends on your view! He obviously speaks Arabic!
e. If even you look at the rulers of Mauritania, they are the exception to the rule in West Africa! When making comparisons, we may say Bin Laden or Prince Bandar is more Arab than the Mauritania leader.
f. One's geographical location also determines a construct which is at odds with another person from another location.
g. Algerians, Morrocans and Tunisians are as indigenous as Yoruba, Ibo, and Hausa!
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Well, yazid, you don't provide any sources, even if I do agree with you on some point.
a. North Africa never changed in 13 centuries? You mean the definition of it? But what is then?
b. Again, what is black? Moors were certanly African, being from Africa.
c. Yes, Moor was descriptive of certain phenotype, but the only thing that can be ascertained is that a "Moor" would have to be darker than the average anciet Roman and/or Greek. Today, they still are. Also, it's all relative. Russians call Caucasians black, but they aren't considered black at all by the mainstream definition. Nor are plenty of North Africans today, though some are black by that mainstream definition. Are we using such definition then?
d. Bin Laden? Who cares, lol. Anyone who speaks Arabic as first language is an Arab to me. Not an Arabian though.
e. Of course they are. Never meant to imply otherwise.
f. I'm afraid I don't understand you here, sorry.
g. Of this I fully agree (even if indigenous is a complicated word). Berbers have no recolection of being anything other than African, afaik.
Btw, the average Iberian was never Visigothic in any sense, they were simply a small elite, eventually absorved. The vast majority of Iberians never spoke Visigothic, continuing instead to use their variant of Latin, even if some Visigothic words were absorved.
Iberians have changed little from at least the neolithic afaik, even if the obviously absorved Middle-Eastern, African and other European blood.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: @Doug M:
Yes, good post for the most part even if I have some doubts. First and foremost, I would like to see some sources for that.
With those pics I didn't pretend to imply that such people are the majority or even natives, which I know they aren't. I was only proving my statement that people like that exist in Mauretania. You seem to by implying they are the result of an Historical Middle-East migration. Fine with that, even if they look quite North African to me, it's well known that many Middle-Easterners migrated into North Africa when expanding Islam.
But, again you mention black, without explaining what black is. When one has a thread in which it is asked if the Moors were Black, one must define what a Moor and a Black is. Only after can one go forward.
Now you say that Moors are the indigenous African population all across North Africa. And then I ask...indigenous *African* population? Are there indigenous-non African populations in North Africa? But if they are indigenous, then they are Africans by default, and thus that would be a redundancy. Am I reading too much into your statement? (and indigeneous can be a troublsome word btw, afaik, everybody came from some place else, either sonner or latter). So what did these indigenous North Africans looked like at the beginning of the Islamic expansion? (I believe this is the appropriate time frame, no?) Also, what is North Africa for this discussion? Africa north of the Sahara? North of the Sahel? And you mention indigenous black africans..I might be reading too much into this again, but then, are there indigenous non-black africans? but this leads me to...
I don't really want to sound repetive, but I do need a definition of black. I've offered my own, but as I said it is highly subjective. Certanly not scientific.
What I mean by black is medium to dark brown. Many of the Moors were indeed black and by this I mean extremely dark brown, as the Muslim Armies that invaded Spain included Africans from the Nile Valley all the way to West Africa. It even included dark Arabians. Likewise, I use the term indigenous because the Sahara AND North Africa was ORIGINALLY populated by BLACK Africans. Over time migrations and influence from outside Africa has impacted North Africa and produced the combinations of features you see there today. However, to imply that dark brown Africans are not indigenous to Northern Africa is blatantly incorrect. How and when others came into North Africa is all part of the historic record of interactions between Africa, Europe and the Levant. There is no mystery in this.
Berber is a language, not an ethnic group. The original Berber language derives from populations in East Africa who were black Africans who migrated across the Sahara. The culture of the Berbers derives from the Neolithic inhabitants of the Sahara who were also black Africans. The culture of the Berbers is not isolated from the rest of Africa as much of it derives from Africa outside of the Sahel and North Africa. The connections are too many to name. Indigo cloth originates in West Africa and is what is often worn by the Tuareg. The leather that made Morocco famous often was acquired from leather workers in Kano Nigeria. Steel was acquired from various West African groups who had learned how to create carbon steel long before Europe and also had a large array of steel weapons and instruments they produced with it. Jewelry styles are derived from the Saharan neolithic, which in turn derives from East Africa. The agades cross and other styles of jewelry are worn among a LARGE group of nomadic peoples from West Africa to Ethiopia. The pottery of Northern Africa is again related to the pottery of the Sahara, stretching into East Africa. The music and rhythms of Northern Africa also derive from African traditions elsewhere in Africa. The dress of Northern Africa with the ancient stripped fabrics, robes and slippers are all derived from African traditions, including traditions from ancient Egypt. The castles, kasbahs and fortitifications of Northern Africa are derived from the ancient cultures outside of Northern Africa including Egypt and Sudan. Northern Africa is no island unto itself and there are many traditions and customs that are found in Northwest Africa today which originated elsewhere in Africa.
The main reason for this accumulation was the sweep of Islam, which acquired many of these cultural and traditional techniques as they swept through Africa, converting various people to the cause of Islam. Once they reached the Maghreb, this accumulation of African cultural traditions became a hallmark of the Western most branch of Islam that made its biggest mark on the cultures of Islamic Spain. Another reason for this is the trade relationship that made these kingdoms wealthy, most of which came through trade with inner Africa for salt, gold, steel, spices, leather, camels and other commodities. This trade again gave the Western most branch of Islam its unique character. This is not unique to Africa either as Islam has been impacted by all the cultures it came to dominate from Africa to the Caucasus, to India and Asia. Islam was not a cultural force but a religious one and most of the CULTURAL forces came from the traditions of populations in areas from PRIOR to the arrival of Islam.
Posted by lamin (Member # 5777) on :
The term "black" when used in a "racial" sense is always subject to some cultural context. Thus, while meaningful in the s ociological sense the term is problematic when used scientifically.
This seems to be the case both sociologically and anthropologically when Asian populations are discussed. Anthropologists and sociologists usually don't refer to persons of East extraction as "yellow Asians" as opposed to "brown Asians" or "white Asians". The same holds for the North and South American pre-Columbian populations. They are not referred to as "Red Indians", etc.
My question is this: if it is OK scientifically to use the term "black African" then when why not refer to East Asian populations as "yellow Asians"?
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
True lamin.
Doug M, that was an informative post. But tell me...As you know some (plenty?) North Africans are not dark or medium brown skinned (in their unexposed skin specially). Acording to you, can they be natives or not? If not, then when did such type arrived? What is present at the time of the Moorish conquests? Just curious.
At least to me it seems both types, black and non-black North Africans have been there for quite some time, either native or not, since I don't really know what that means. If people arrived there 5000 years ago, are they not native? What about 50,000? What about 500? Where's the line drawn?
Btw, are any people whose skin is medium to dark brown black to you? Are South Asians Black? Polynesians? Melanesians? Australians? South-East Asians? Even some Native Americans can get quite dark. Again, just curious. These are honest questions.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
For Miguel
It's no mystery what a black is or who's black.
The real question is what is a white person. Sangre Limpieza excluded all Moors who were not renegade Spaniards from the blue blood in veins beneath white skin.
So what is a white? Only the blue vein society which excludes all southern Europeans without some kind of Germanic/Nordic ancestry.
Ergo your Greek, Latin, Keltic Euros aren't real white people. Goths and Vandals were the only whites of old Spain. That's why the Moors and Arabs dubbed it Al Andalus -- of the Vandals.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
What's your point really? Did I ever said I or my people were white? I think terms like white and black are meaningless. I don't give a damn about being White. I'm Portuguese. Period.
Limpieza de Sangre was a load of crap anyway. Nothing to do with looks, but with culture/religion really.
What do you mean by Blue Vein Society? What defines such people? Oh and Vandals? They hardly stayd here, they were quickly expelled to North Africa. Suebii and Visigoths are the only ones who lasted, specially the last ones. So only Germanics are White? Really, better not use such retarded term, unless you go by skin color only, and you still have to define when one becomes white..
And yes, who's black can be a mistery. People don't agree on it, now do they? What's your definition of black anyway?
Posted by lamin (Member # 5777) on :
The distinction between "native" and "non-native" is this: if the phenotype and/genotype of the organism in question is a specific product of the environment where it has its habitat then it is "native", otherwise not.
In the case of North Africa, individuals whose genotype and phenotype are the product of local conditions then they "native" to the region. Otherwise not, which, of course, has nothing to do with nationality and its obligations, etc.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Hum lamin, that's a nice definition, but kind of hard to apply I think. For example, Native Americans still retain alot of their Artic ancestors features, even if they specialized a little acording to the territory in which they live.
Well, then Mediterranean people in North Africa are native.
But I want Doug M's answer really.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: True lamin.
Doug M, that was an informative post. But tell me...As you know some (plenty?) North Africans are not dark or medium brown skinned (in their unexposed skin specially). Acording to you, can they be natives or not? If not, then when did such type arrived? What is present at the time of the Moorish conquests? Just curious.
At least to me it seems both types, black and non-black North Africans have been there for quite some time, either native or not, since I don't really know what that means. If people arrived there 5000 years ago, are they not native? What about 50,000? What about 500? Where's the line drawn?
Btw, are any people whose skin is medium to dark brown black to you? Are South Asians Black? Polynesians? Melanesians? Australians? South-East Asians? Even some Native Americans can get quite dark. Again, just curious. These are honest questions.
Black is a descriptive adjective referring to skin color. It is not synonymous with race, culture, ethnicity, language, genetics or nationality. Therefore there are blacks all over the world, even though NONE of them are related by any of the above meanings. The cause of the confusion is not mine as I do not intend anything deeper by the word black than a description of skin color. The problem is the history of racist discourse concerning race, ethnicity and culture which has invariably tried to make skin color into something more of a genetic, social, scientific, ethnic and national distinction, which it is not.
As to the Africans of North Africa, they have not always been predominately light skinned. The farther back you go in history the less evidence there is for lighter skinned populations. It does not matter when specifically these types of features arrived in North Africa. What matters to me is that people not attempt to erase the fact that ORIGINALLY Northern Africa was populated by black Africans, not much different than Africans anywhere else. Again, it is only the history of racist discourse about North Africa that has tried to drown out the fact that black Africans were and ARE the majority of North African populations. Sudan is in North Africa. Chad and Niger are in North Africa. Mauretania is in North Africa. All of these countries are black African. Not to mention the mention the large numbers of black Africans in Southern Algeria, Libya and Egypt. So, again, characterizing North Africans as not black is incorrect. North Africa is not just the extreme coast of North Africa from Morocco and Tunisia to Egypt.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Oh, ok. Thanks for the answer. We're finally moving forward.
So, North Africa is anything North of the Sahel (perhaps even including the Sahel? Then it would be anything North of the Sudan)
But certanly, Black people were the first in such area and still are a signficant part (the majority?) of the area.
It seems we are in agreement then. Excellent.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
My point is 1 - consider what i said 2 - answer my question
It's not about you it's about me.
What's your definition of white because everybody knows who's black.
Who's white is the question of our times because with the colonial others migrated to the once colonial power homelands and breeding on there women it messes up the population census and majority rule and all that.
So to keep a white majority it's becaome a great mystery defining who's white.
For damn sure the Moors and Arabs weren't white to the Andalusians whose land they took over and raised up into the 1st world power of the middle ages.
Or should I just say welcome back Jaime Pretell?
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: What's your point really? Did I ever said I or my people were white? I think terms like white and black are meaningless. I don't give a damn about being White. I'm Portuguese. Period.
Limpieza de Sangre was a load of crap anyway. Nothing to do with looks, but with culture/religion really.
What do you mean by Blue Vein Society? What defines such people?
And yes, who's black can be a mistery. People don't agree on it, now do they? What's your definition of black anyway?
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Again, I never mentioned Whites, either White Moors or otherwise, so your post makes no sense.
My definition of white? I have none. Oh wait, I do. It's a colour. Actually, the junction of all colours if I remember well. Black on the other hand is the absence of colour.
Who's white might be "question of our times", but it certanly isn't the question of this thread. Your tirade about Whites in Census and Colonials makes, again, no sense in such thread.
Where the Arabs and Moors whites for the Andalucians? I don't know. Do I care? Not at all. Is that the point of this thread? No. Did I even said that? Again, no. But if you want an answer, I would say that Arabs and Moors were for the most part the same pigmentation of Southern Iberians, with even some lighter individuals, but probably more darker ones than lighter. Why does this matters anyway? Your self even said in another thread that black means nothing, and consequently so does white.
And who the hell is Jaime?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
My bad.
I see you're a Portuguese nationalist who feels whites have done your people wrong.
But in Angola the Portuguese sure weren't going for anything other than white.
I personally don't count the Portuguese as whites because of the biological history of Portugal.
But my post makes plenty big sense. You see, I'm not a slave or a dog to go in the direction that you or anyone else points to.
I set the direction and you answer to me.
Your display of unwarranted belligerance is getting you nowhere fast in my book, not even a footnote.
How about making a solid contribution instead of trying to pick my brains. Others here may fall for that, not me.
And just what of piece of interrelated Portuguese and Ethiopian history do you wish to repeat by sailing to Ethiopia?
Posted by X-Ras (Member # 10328) on :
lol, Miguel being sly, never thought I'd see you here, welcome to the forum.
Posted by X-Ras (Member # 10328) on :
As far as Moors, I had this same debate in another forum. Obviously some of them were what we would call black in phenotype and some were not. The thing thats clouds it all is the usage of the term and whom it applied to. I think as time wore on, the term Moor came to apply to any Muslim person in Spain regardless of phenotype. Any thoughts on this anyone?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
quote:Originally posted by X-Ras: As far as Moors, I had this same debate in another forum. Obviously some of them were what we would call black in phenotype and some were not. The thing thats clouds it all is the usage of the term and whom it applied to. I think as time wore on, the term Moor came to apply to any Muslim person in Spain regardless of phenotype. Any thoughts on this anyone?
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
No alTakruri, I am not a nationalist...at all! You have clearly misinterpreted me. I don't think Whites did wrong to my people because simply Whites don't exist to me. What exist to me are people like Portuguese, Imazighen, Arabs etc. And while they have even a particular phenotype attached to them, culture and feeling of belonging to such group is what defines them. Hence you get Portuguese, Imazighen and Arab who vary in looks significantly..but are all part of the group.
About my contribution, I had my point, which was mostly to debunk the term black (and by consequence any color metaphor for race), indeed debunk race itself.
Also, my beligerance? I was quite civil with people here until you started making me questions which were totally irrelevant for the issue at hand, in a clear atempt to rile me up, with your "You're not white!" tirade. As if I cared, lol. Yes, Portuguese as a whole might consider themselves White, but as you said in another thread, this means nothing. For Portuguese White means European (and Christian I suppose), and then of course we are White. In Angola or anywhere else. But then, why not use European right away? Such terms must be left in the 19th century. And I never claimed to speak for my people anyway. What you say about not being a slave and making your own mind, well that's me.
I even think you are a good and reasonable poster, so I was somewhat surprised by your post to me.
Regarding the Ethiopia question, in the 16th century a bunch of Portuguese arrived in Ethiopia and helped the country to fight against Ahmed Gran. The fought some battles, winning most, but they sufered a great defeat, in which their leader, the son of one of Portugal's greatest heroes (Vasco Da Gama, who led the first expedition to India) was captured. He was tortured and eventually killed. The remaining Portuguese soldiers decided to remain until they had avenged their leader, and they did so, killing Ahmed Gran in battle. Even though I am not a Nationalist (as in my Nation does not come first, but yes the people I love and even the Portuguese people in general, if we have to lose our independence to live better so be it), I do get a kick out of these histories. Btw, you did understand I was talking about a video game, right?
So you wander at HBF?
@Charlie: Hey man, wazzup? Nice post btw.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
So the general consensus seems to be that Moors are the Muslims in North (West) Africa and Iberia. I say North West Africa because I don't think Egyptians were called Moors or considered the same was the North Western muslims. North West Africa is the Western part of North Africa, which is anything North of the Sahel/Sudan.
And black is someone whose skin is medium brown and darker.
So now I can answer safely and say. Some Moors were black. Others not, lol. Question answered!
And if anyone is wondering, yes some Moors were White if by White we mean Pink skinned. But they were a minority. A small one.
Next!
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: So the general consensus seems to be that Moors are the Muslims in North (West) Africa and Iberia. I say North West Africa because I don't think Egyptians were called Moors or considered the same was the North Western muslims. North West Africa is the Western part of North Africa, which is anything North of the Sahel/Sudan.
And black is someone whose skin is medium brown and darker.
So now I can answer safely and say. Some Moors were black. Others not, lol. Question answered!
And if anyone is wondering, yes some Moors were White if by White we mean Pink skinned. But they were a minority. A small one.
Next!
Actually in Europe, where the phrase originated, a Moor is any black African, muslim or otherwise, in medeival Europe. Othello was a Moor. St. Maurice was a Moor. There are plenty other black figures who are labelled as Moors in Europe who were not Muslims and not from North West Africa. This another reason for some of the confusion over the term.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Then why does your signature read as thus:
Though the whites, grudgingly acknowledged the economic supremacy of the Portuguese, at no time did they accord them social supremacy or draw them into their privileged group. This attitude undoubtedly hurt and embittered the Portuguese who considered themselves Europeans. But this did not hamper them or cripple their expectations or ambitions.
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: No alTakruri, I am not a nationalist...at all! You have clearly misinterpreted me. I don't think Whites did wrong to my people because simply Whites don't exist to me.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
@Doug M:
Yes, but those are the exception, no?
Hum actually. One should not use the word Moor then. One should ask:
"Were the Umayyad/Almoravids/Almohads/Marinids/Nasrids, etc, who conquered and ruled North West Africa and Iberia mostly, its troops and its subjects, black?"
Since that's what people are thinking when they use the word Moor.
The answer is the same I believe.
@alTakruri:
I just thought it was a interesting, and comical even quote from a site I read. It's about Portuguese in the Guyanas I think. My use of it as my signature is more of a joke than anything else, I assure you. Don't presume to know me.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Your belligerant tone started as soon as I posted to you exactly what I wanted to say instead of being led around on your leash as some prefered to be.
My independence from your subtle attempt at control and direction is what irked you generating your rude response employing profanity and belittling assumption of my mental capacity.
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: ... I don't give a damn about being White.
...
Limpieza de Sangre was a load of crap anyway.
...
better not use such retarded term
...
The only tirade displayed is your own. I never made any statement about you, Miguel Antunes, in regard to anything, less lone appraising what colour you are. All that's in your head. You're only digging a deeper pit for yourself in avoidance of answering who's white while demanding of others that they define what is black.
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: ... my beligerance? I was quite civil with people here until you started making me questions which were totally irrelevant for the issue at hand, in a clear atempt to rile me up, with your "You're not white!" tirade.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Yes, damn is profanity. I wasn't pleased at all by your post, by what it represented, your atempt to rile me up.
Limpieza de Sangre was a load of crap. Don't tell me you agree with the concept? That one can "clean its blood"? That some blood is better than other? I was talking about the concept in itself.
Retarded term refers to White and Black even. I know you agree with me.
It seems there's some major misinterpretation going on here my friend.
What subtle attempt ate control? This thread is called "Were Moors black?". Does not one has to define first what Moor and black is before answering the question? I was only trying to reach a consensus and get some different oppinions from my own. Look at my exchange with Doug M. It has been perfectly civil and enlightning even, at least to me.
Really, you are seeing things were they don't exist.
I didn't "demand others" to define black. I asked for their oppinion, and I gave mine. Why should I define white, when it never was the point of this thread?
And I have already given you your answer, so what more do you want?
Really..*What* do you want from me?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
"Attempt to rile you up" is a figment of your imagination. Why does you asking about black not constitute an attempted provocation while my questions about white do?
Other than being a provocateur I do hope you intend to contribute something of valid and intrinsic worth to this forum (that's all I want from you or any other forum member). At that point you will be on the path of the possibilty of addressing me as "my friend."
Until then, and since no knowledge is being imparted in this exchange, I'm through with you as I trust you are with me.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
It's simple.
The topic of this thread isn't:
"Where Moors White?" If so, then it would make all the sense for you to ask me or anybody else what white is. But it isn't.
Now, if you were so interested in knowing about my definition of white, you could have sent me a private message, and I would have answered gladly. (And I answered it anyway right after you asked it, by saying it was meaningless) But in this thread it appeared to me you had second intentions. You say it isn't so. Then fine, it wasn't so. So, where do we stand now?
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Anyway, does anyone knows if people in other parts of Africa were also called Moors?
From what I remember of Portuguese travels people from the Kongo for example, were not called Moors. But the ones from East Africa, the Swahili, were. I could be wrong of course.
Posted by Yonis (Member # 7684) on :
quote:Miguel Antunes: But the ones from East Africa, the Swahili, were.
Never heard of this, east africa is waay to far from latin countries, i think its apllied only for those muslims they came in contact with like Maghreb and the sarrounding.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Hum, but I do think that people from Mombassa and Melinde were called Moors in our national epic "Os Lusiadas" which tells of the trip to India. It's written in the 16th century. East Africa is far away from the Latin countries, but Iberians were everywhere. If even Muslim south-east Asians were called Moors, why not the East Africans?
I don't have book here, but the Wikipedia page in Portuguese about it confirms it. Basically the muslims in Mozambique are refered to as Moors, as is the pilot they gave us to help us navigate. (actually to set up a trap, lol)
Posted by Yonis (Member # 7684) on :
Actually know that i think about it Marco Polo when he wrote about the muslims of the horn he called them Moors, so i guess you're right.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Silly me, the book is obviously on the internet. Yes, East African muslims are called Moors in it.
Posted by Yonis (Member # 7684) on :
What about the non-african muslims, like in the levant were they also moors according to iberians? And whats the diffeence between Saracen and Moor?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
No hard ans fast rule. Saracens were Syrians and Arabs. Moors were continental Africans.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
The Moors Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Well, the term Saracen is not used commonly here as far as I know. At least not popularly. I think it was reserved for Middle-Eastern Muslims. Certanly doesn't has the impact that the word Moors has over here. So Saracen would be the Middle-Easterners and Moor would be the Africans. But then it gets confusing, since South-East Asians were also called Moors, like in the Philipines I do know that Turks weren't called Moors by Portuguese of the Age of Discoveries Period. I read a book about battles Portuguese fought in the Indic, and on the texts they quote they are always refered as the (Big in some cases) Turk simply. Never Moors. Unfortunately I don't have the book with me, and other than the epic, I have no book from the time. Not really in a mood to read it all, it's huge, lol. Besides being a poem...
I know Italians called the Muslims in their lands Saracens, I remember watching a recreation of a medieval puppet theater and that's how they refer to them. Other sources seem to confirm this.
Edit: While I was writting this, I found a translation of a medieval document called the Gothic Chronicles. Seems a well known document. The people who first conquered Iberia are refered as Saracens. But references to Moors and Arabs also appear latter, sometimes interchangeably, a guy is called a Moorish King and then refered as the King of Saracens and so are is trops, etc. Other times they are used separetely, a quote speaks of Saracens, Arabs and Moabites, another term used. Ali bin Yusuf, a North African, is called King of the Saracens. The guy also makes a disctincion between Ismaelites and Moabites, which he defines as Andalucians and Arabs respectively.
Really, there seems to be little coherence between the uses of the words. Moors is only used 4 times I think. Saracen many, many times. Arab and Moabite only some times too.
I guess the conclusion is that all of these terms are a load of crap, lol. Medieval Iberians didn't seem to care much, I guess they were all a bunch of infidels who should be killed, lol.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Btw, some people here seem to cling alot to the etymology of the word Moor, for its meaning. Yes it means dark/black, and certanly when Greeks/Romans used it back then, they were refering to people who were darker than themselves. But when Moor was used in the Middle Ages, by Portuguese (actually their ancestors under the visigoths) for example, it seems to me they were only using it in a geographical sense. I don't think they were going "ok, these are the Moors cause they are darker than us", more like "these are the moors since they come from Mauretania". Remember we were the Hispanos from Hispania. Roman provinces were still used as geographic indications. Even when the Romans dubbed their provinces Mauretania doesn't mean everybody there was a Maure too. Again, using my country Romans used Hispania, which is Iberia in Latin, based on the Iberians, who only occupied a small part of the peninsula...
Only a theory anyway..makes alot of sense though..
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: @Doug M:
Yes, but those are the exception, no?
Hum actually. One should not use the word Moor then. One should ask:
"Were the Umayyad/Almoravids/Almohads/Marinids/Nasrids, etc, who conquered and ruled North West Africa and Iberia mostly, its troops and its subjects, black?"
Since that's what people are thinking when they use the word Moor.
The answer is the same I believe.
@alTakruri:
I just thought it was a interesting, and comical even quote from a site I read. It's about Portuguese in the Guyanas I think. My use of it as my signature is more of a joke than anything else, I assure you. Don't presume to know me.
I think the misunderstanding comes about because I dont pretend for a second that the word Moor is some sort of term with a precise and accurate meaning. It is a general term used by EUROPEANS to refer to VARIOUS peoples and mean VARIOUS things at various times. In general Moor came to mean any black African in Medieval Europe during the Medieval period, of which there certainly were many. All Moors referred to as such were not Muslim, as can be seen in the figure of St. Benedict the Moor. Likewise, Moor is also used to refer to the Muslim rulers of Spain during this time, which at one time meant specifically the blacks among the Muslims in Spain and later came to mean all Muslims in Spain during this period. All such meanings are not something I am making up, but are things found in European literature, from whence the term and its meaning derives. If there is any ambiguity in the term it traces back to various usages over time in Europe and is not something that reflects any confusion on my part. Once you understand that, you will understand why looking at European literature from various places and time periods talking the about Moors is the best thing to do in order to understand the hows and whys of the various ways the word has been used.
The word Moor has no meaning to the actual people called Moor because it was not a name that the people used for themselves. Once again, this is something specifically developed as a general term used by and developed by Europeans to describe Africans and others who were "foreign" to them. It is not a term intended to be a precise ethnographic reference to the people and cultures being described. Therefore, one should separate the language used to describe these foreigners and the true anthropological and ethnic backgrounds of various populations in Africa. The two are not the same.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Yes, you make many good points. The term certanly is troublesome. I just proposed a possible theory in the post before. And of course, one theory being right doesn't mean others are wrong, the meaning of the word possibly changed acoording to place and not only epoch.
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: Well, the term Saracen is not used commonly here as far as I know. At least not popularly. I think it was reserved for Middle-Eastern Muslims. Certanly doesn't has the impact that the word Moors has over here. So Saracen would be the Middle-Easterners and Moor would be the Africans. But then it gets confusing, since South-East Asians were also called Moors, like in the Philipines I do know that Turks weren't called Moors by Portuguese of the Age of Discoveries Period. I read a book about battles Portuguese fought in the Indic, and on the texts they quote they are always refered as the (Big in some cases) Turk simply. Never Moors. Unfortunately I don't have the book with me, and other than the epic, I have no book from the time. Not really in a mood to read it all, it's huge, lol. Besides being a poem...
Edit: While I was writting this, I found a translation of a medieval document called the Gothic Chronicles. Seems a well known document. The people who first conquered Iberia are refered as Saracens. But references to Moors and Arabs also appear latter, sometimes interchangeably, a guy is called a Moorish King and then refered as the King of Saracens and so are is trops, etc. Other times they are used separetely, a quote speaks of Saracens, Arabs and Moabites, another term used. Ali bin Yusuf, a North African, is called King of the Saracens. The guy also makes a disctincion between Ismaelites and Moabites, which he defines as Andalucians and Arabs respectively.
Really, there seems to be little coherence between the uses of the words. Moors is only used 4 times I think. Saracen many, many times. Arab and Moabite only some times too.
I guess the conclusion is that all of these terms are a load of crap, lol. Medieval Iberians didn't seem to care much, I guess they were all a bunch of infidels who should be killed, lol.
It makes sense but in the Spanish versions of locations of the various group, they stated that some group ocupied certain areas like the Moors, Arabs, Syrians and they do describe the features so that is a case in point regarding who the narrator is referencing. The foot soldiers were for the most part Moors (moros) meaning black or dark skin colour while the dynastic leadership were either Arabized Amazigh like Tarik, or Syrian or Arab or otherwise!
Saracens appear to be used interchangeably with Berber.Amazigh!
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
Btw, some people here seem to cling alot to the etymology of the word Moor, for its meaning. Yes it means dark/black, and certanly when Greeks/Romans used it back then, they were refering to people who were darker than themselves.
Then that settles the matter on the origins of the term and hence, why it was applied to where the said Europeans applied it then.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
But when Moor was used in the Middle Ages, by Portuguese (actually their ancestors under the visigoths) for example, it seems to me they were only using it in a geographical sense. I don't think they were going "ok, these are the Moors cause they are darker than us", more like "these are the moors since they come from Mauretania".
The Almoravids spearheaded the African rule in Spain, as noted time and again. These people were on average darker than the Spanish; they came from further south of the region that was referred to as Mauretania in the Roman era. Given this, why couldn't the term "Moors" have been brought down from antiquity to that point in history in southwestern Europe, identifying 'Mauretania' as a region inhabiting people who were perceived to be generally darker than Europeans? You've probably come across those old Spanish flags depicting four "Moorish heads" of dark shaded individuals by now, right?
Posted by Willing Thinker {What Box} (Member # 10819) on :
Lamin made a good point.
It's about native and non-native as plenty of people outside of Africa are black, but not african( like in India, pacific Islands including Austrailia).
This being the case, a black african is anyone with indigenous genes to the continent not being an outlier to the natural and indigenous skintone. Which we know has a wide range throughout africa, in fact, sub-sahara having the widest range on Earth.
I have not the studies at hand but as Supercar said the only outliers are the light skinned coastal North africans who were described as being an intermediate phenotype between that of black and white - african and european.
Good call lamin.
quote:Originally posted by lamin: The distinction between "native" and "non-native" is this: if the phenotype and/genotype of the organism in question is a specific product of the environment where it has its habitat then it is "native", otherwise not.
In the case of North Africa, individuals whose genotype and phenotype are the product of local conditions then they "native" to the region. Otherwise not, which, of course, has nothing to do with nationality and its obligations, etc.
quote:Miguell:
Well, then Mediterranean people in North Africa are native.
What exactly is a mediterranean person? The medit. is a sea, surrounded by Europeans, Asiatics, and Africans.
If you are referring to the popularly labelled "mediterranean people", how does there phenotype represent a native phenotype, when they themselves are comprised of a number of different ancestries with different phenotypes, some of which, not native to Africa or perhaps the "mid-east"?
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by yazid904: It makes sense but in the Spanish versions of locations of the various group, they stated that some group ocupied certain areas like the Moors, Arabs, Syrians and they do describe the features so that is a case in point regarding who the narrator is referencing. The foot soldiers were for the most part Moors (moros) meaning black or dark skin colour while the dynastic leadership were either Arabized Amazigh like Tarik, or Syrian or Arab or otherwise!
Saracens appear to be used interchangeably with Berber.Amazigh!
Actually, Amazighs were among the darker African Moros of Spain. In fact, Amazigh identity had no meaning at this time as they all were Africans or part of the various Sanhaja clans of Berber speaking individuals. Likewise, the Arab chiefs often had offspring by African women, therefore, to generalize Amazigh as being someone UNIQUELY closer to the Arab in appearance and not like other Africans is quite inaccurate.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
@Mystery Solver:
As I said, there are probably many reasons as or why the word Moor was used. If what I said is correct (which I don't know nor claim to be, being merely a suposition of mine) that wouldn't imply what you just said to be wrong.
What do you mean by African rule in Iberia? (Not Spain, which only appeared centuries before) The Caliphate and Emirate before them wasn't African rule then, I take it. Which makes sende considering the origins of the dinasty. So yes, in that sense, Almoravids were the first Muslim African Dinasty to rule part of Iberia. So called Black Africans do seem to have been quite important in their armies, leaders and subjects. That's not an issue. Was the term Moor only used those black men appeared? Or right at the beginning when the Umayads arrived? Honest question, since I don't know.
The black head flags yes. Other than proving that at least some Moors were black, they don't do anything else. As you well know, people are more atracted to the exotic, to the different. On the other hand demonizing the enemy by making such difference even bigger is also a common tactic. This would seem to be the reason why black moors and black head flags became so prevalent in the European imagery. Their total alienness. I mean, if I recal well there were such black Moors in the Song of Roland when they were actually Basques. They seem to have a left quite an impression in their mind. And of course, an epic battle against those exotic black man is certanly more interesting that an bunch of Europeans duking it out. But, all of this is mere speculation of my part. Just food for thought I guess.
Also, from another thread about Moors, someone quoted an Italian man who said:
"I felt the danger of being a modern participant in the complex historical relationship between the southern Italian, whose land borders Africa and was dominated for centuries by dark-skinned Moors, and the black man"
So, as I said in that thread, it seems that dark-skinned Moors and the black men were different things.
I gave my opinion on how the use of the word Moor came about, giving it a geographical cause. You think that it was due to their pigmentation. I honestly don't know who is right.
"Given this, why couldn't the term "Moors" have been brought down from antiquity to that point in history in southwestern Europe, identifying 'Mauretania' as a region inhabiting people who were perceived to be generally darker than Europeans"
It could've of course. But then, generally darker doesn't mean black. Today North Africans are still generaly darker than Europeans, but not black going by most definitions. Some are black for sure though.
I think the question I ask to you is:
Where all Moors necessarely black? Just because their name (which might haven been given for geographical reasons as I said) implies darkness (which doesn't mean blackness as we perceive it today*)? And are only Moors the Almoravids? What about those who came before? And after? What about the converted natives which the majority I believe?
Anyway, I do think it's best to use names such as Almoravids, Umayads, Al-Andalucians, etc, than Moor which seems to be a troublesome word.
*Remember how Caucasian peoples are called black by Russians...When they actually seem fairer than many Southern Europeans.
@William:
"how does there phenotype represent a native phenotype, when they themselves are comprised of a number of different ancestries with different phenotypes, some of which, not native to Africa or perhaps the "mid-east"?"
As you say...some of which are not native. Not all. Also lamin spoke of a phenotype which is a product of the area. Well, Coastal North Africa is climatically Mediterranean (even more colder/temperate in some areas). It makes sense to assume that the black people who arrived there thousands of years ago, tens of thousands even would have specialized for the territory in which they lived, no? Just as it happened all around the world.
"The medit. is a sea, surrounded by Europeans, Asiatics, and Africans."
Exactly, but they all look similar.
By Mediterranean I didn't mean that they are an homogenous group or anything, but merely a tendency. As you say, there are black people outside of Africa. Why? Because of the climate in which they lived. (mostly) Hence, Africans who seem to be adapted for the Mediterranean climate, as oposed to the rest of Africans which seem to be adapted to an arid/semi-arid and tropical (wet and dry), will look different, but all will be native. Are not the genes of Coastal North Africans predominantly African? And even if they got some genes from outside, why would that make them non-native? Since at least a part of them has been there for millenia?
But then, I don't believe in nativity. A black man born in Portugal is a native Portuguese and European, at least when comes me. Yes, its a revolutionary oppinion. But hey, he was born here? How can he not be "native"? Does the fact that my ancestors have been here for much longer than him means anything? Other than that I am more adapted to the climate (I hope, lol), not really.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M:
quote:Originally posted by yazid904: It makes sense but in the Spanish versions of locations of the various group, they stated that some group ocupied certain areas like the Moors, Arabs, Syrians and they do describe the features so that is a case in point regarding who the narrator is referencing. The foot soldiers were for the most part Moors (moros) meaning black or dark skin colour while the dynastic leadership were either Arabized Amazigh like Tarik, or Syrian or Arab or otherwise!
Saracens appear to be used interchangeably with Berber.Amazigh!
Actually, Amazighs were among the darker African Moros of Spain. In fact, Amazigh identity had no meaning at this time as they all were Africans or part of the various Sanhaja clans of Berber speaking individuals. Likewise, the Arab chiefs often had offspring by African women, therefore, to generalize Amazigh as being someone UNIQUELY closer to the Arab in appearance and not like other Africans is quite inaccurate.
Amazigh is simply someone who speaks a language of such language family. No more, no less. And their looks seems to vary a lot.
Posted by Willing Thinker {What Box} (Member # 10819) on :
There has been heavy european genetic influence on both sides of the Mediterranean, so them looking similar isn't un-expected.
quote:Miguel:
Well, Coastal North Africa is climatically Mediterranean. It makes sense to assume that the black people who arrived there thousands of years ago, tens of thousands even would have specialized for the territory in which they lived, no?
...Just as it happens around the world. True, but micro evolution alone isn't the reason for these people.
I see your point, though, they are Natives, the ones with indigenous ancestry anyway.
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
I have a solution! Insteading of referring to colour, perhaps usage of African or European would be better. From the Arab point of view, the Umayyads were Syrian/Arab but the Almohades and Almoravides were definately African (forget about the colour thing since Africa is where they originated). The Sanhajas were definately sub-Saharan Africa hence closer to what we know as 'black Africa'.
Here's my point? WHy do we continuosuly say 'Black Africa' but refuse to repeat "White Europe". There is some very subtle social construct and conditioning taking place and it does more to create illogical thinking. So therefore, it is safer to say the Moors were African regardless of colour because they originated in Africa. Other than the Umayyad who were from Damascus, the rulers keep in mind that the Umayyad were traditionalists and they kept the converted outside the tent and that is why they lost control.
Check up on the word 'mawali' and the dynastic differences between the goals of the Umayyad, Almohades and Almoravides!
Posted by Willing Thinker {What Box} (Member # 10819) on :
^This mis-use of "black africa" is obviously and lbatantly mis-information as if to imply that black Africans were not indigenous, or better yet had nothing to do with North-africa.
quote:Yazid 904:
'Black Africa' b]but refuse to repeat "White Europe"[/b]
I don't see this refusal.
When writing on the subject of challenging the 'whiteness' of Southern europe, I've read "definitely in "white europe"".
Thing is, ofcourse you wouldn't see them repeat this too often when it serves against the very purpose of the Eurocentric status-quo,
which is to imply a unified "white" "middle-east" encompassing as far as will be believed in North Africa.
The domain of "black Africa" has popularly been limited so much that I just don't use it anymore.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
OK, lets get to the crust of the bisquit of those who have such trouble defining Moor in its direct and simplest terms that all of Europe meant by it. And those who most have this hangup are in part descended from Moors. It's hard for them to grasp to whom great great granma was giving it up. But others of the same demiMoor heritage have no qualm about laying it down straight, cut to the chase, moral of the story:
quote: Cliff: Could I have one of those Chesterfields now?
Coccotti: Sure.
Cliff: Got a match? Oh, don't bother. I got one. So you're a Sicilian, huh?
Coccotti: Uh-huh.
Cliff: You know I read a lot. Especially things that have to do with history. I find that fuqking fascinating. In fact, I don't know if you know this or not, Sicilians were spawned by niggers.
Sicilian, Portuguese, same story, same bottomline.
In fact, Moors petted that kitty 'till it purred clear across the straits littering littoral North Africa with all kinds of mtDNA creaming up the complexions there to what it is today.
Posted by pseudovellum (Member # 13906) on :
Nope,
this Moor is grey and green, haven't seen any black ones???
As I said, there are probably many reasons as or why the word Moor was used.
Of which you've provided no other substantiated reason, save for the context utilized under the Greco-Romans. If you attribute a different meaning to the term, the burden is on you to back it up.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
If what I said is correct (which I don't know nor claim to be, being merely a suposition of mine) that wouldn't imply what you just said to be wrong.
You've said many things. Specifics please.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
What do you mean by African rule in Iberia? (Not Spain, which only appeared centuries before) The Caliphate and Emirate before them wasn't African rule then, I take it. Which makes sende considering the origins of the dinasty.
Precisely what I meant here:
The Almoravids spearheaded the African rule in Spain, as noted time and again. These people were on average darker than the Spanish; they came from further south of the region that was referred to as Mauretania in the Roman era. Given this, why couldn't the term "Moors" have been brought down from antiquity to that point in history in southwestern Europe, identifying 'Mauretania' as a region inhabiting people who were perceived to be generally darker than Europeans? You've probably come across those old Spanish flags depicting four "Moorish heads" of dark shaded individuals by now, right?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
So yes, in that sense, Almoravids were the first Muslim African Dinasty to rule part of Iberia.
Interesting how you start of by questioning as though you had no clue, and then go onto acknowledge what was being said.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
So called Black Africans do seem to have been quite important in their armies, leaders and subjects. That's not an issue.
You are right in acknowledging the Almoravid [people much darker than the Europeans on average] rule as something not up for debate, both in its reality and significance.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Was the term Moor only used those black men appeared? Or right at the beginning when the Umayads arrived? Honest question, since I don't know.
I don't recall the Umayyad rulers being referred to as "Moors"; however, if you have evidence to that end, I'll be glad to examine it. On the other hand, we both know [since you've acknowledged it] that the term had been used in reference to Africans, who were perceived to be darker than Greco-Romans.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
The black head flags yes. Other than proving that at least some Moors were black, they don't do anything else.
The representation of 'black' Moorish heads on the flag is not a trivial issue, and the fact the elite founders of the Almoravid empire, comprising of Morocco reaching as far as Tunisia, and ultimately parts of the Iberian peninsula, were described as being quite dark skinned by "southwest Asian" Arab historians, is trivial neither. They are expected to be dark on average, coming from a region southward of contemporary Morocco, likely in the region where contemporary Mauritania lies.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
As you well know, people are more atracted to the exotic, to the different. On the other hand demonizing the enemy by making such difference even bigger is also a common tactic.
I don't know of any such standards across the globe, but I do know that it is an unsubstantiated opinion of yours, where the early Moorish African rule in the Iberian peninsula is concerned.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Also, from another thread about Moors, someone quoted an Italian man who said:
"I felt the danger of being a modern participant in the complex historical relationship between the southern Italian, whose land borders Africa and was dominated for centuries by dark-skinned Moors, and the black man"
So, as I said in that thread, it seems that dark-skinned Moors and the black men were different things.
This means nothing to me, especially given the rationale that the Europeans wouldn't be obliged to mention 'dark-skin' in the first place, if they didn't perceive the early Moorish groups to be noticeably darker than themselves, and equally so for an "Arab" historian to use such descriptions for a personality not much different in hue from him/herself. Secondly, don't know the author of the piece in question, time frame it was first published, and the primary text to examine the consistency between translation and the original work.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
I gave my opinion on how the use of the word Moor came about, giving it a geographical cause. You think that it was due to their pigmentation. I honestly don't know who is right.
See above. You gave the etymology of the word, which you've acknowledged was in reference to dark/black skinned people of north African [presumably Mauretania of antiquity]. You've also been notified that since the Almoravid came from southward of Morocco, that they would have been darker on average than their northern-most coastal bretherens, and even more likely so than southern Europeans on average. This has been corroborated by depictions as well as accounts by Islamic historians of that era. So I'm not basing this on opinion, but rather on material that I come across. Given that these people [the Almoravids] would have been darker anyway, and that you proclaim that the Spanish carried on the term from the Greco-Roman construct, while you haven't shown evidence that the pre-existing connotation of the term became any different in the onset of Almoravid rule in southwestern Europe, the preponderance of evidence tilts towards my end, rather than your 'substance-free' opinion.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
quote:Mystery Solver:
Given this, why couldn't the term "Moors" have been brought down from antiquity to that point in history in southwestern Europe, identifying 'Mauretania' as a region inhabiting people who were perceived to be generally darker than Europeans
It could've of course. But then, generally darker doesn't mean black. Today North Africans are still generaly darker than Europeans, but not black going by most definitions. Some are black for sure though.
You are wrong of course, because as part of the coastal northwest African continuum, there are sections of the population who compare with southwest Europeans in skin tone. You posted the etymology of "Moor" as being equated with 'black/dark skin', in its usage by Greco-Romans, which would mean that these people were yet darker than the said Europeans. But guess what? The Almoravids came largely from southward in a region(s) that Greco-Romans didn't have much exposure to. Skin gradients in Africa typically get darker as one moves towards the equator, which in coastal Northwest Africa's case, would be regions towards their south. Dark skin of Moorish figures have been attested to in Medieval literature. Having said that, what is the limiting point of 'black', since you poclaim that being darker doesn't mean black?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
I think the question I ask to you is:
Where all Moors necessarely black? Just because their name (which might haven been given for geographical reasons as I said) implies darkness (which doesn't mean blackness as we perceive it today*)?
Depends on what "Moors" you're referring to. For instance, if you are referring to the earliest "Moors", who would have been attested to by Greco-Romans, then apparently they were generally perceived to be 'black'. If you are referring to early "Medieval" Moorish rulers in the Iberian peninsula, whereby the term "Moor" as far as I know, was initially reserved for Africans then and who happened to be the Almoravids, then yes, the Almoravids were generally 'black'. If you are referring to African successors of the Almoravids, such as the Almohads, then they would have varied from individuals approaching 'tawny-looking' or 'swarthy' southwest Europeans in skin tone to individuals of much darker skin, as seen across the Sahara and the Sahel.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
And are only Moors the Almoravids? What about those who came before? And after? What about the converted natives which the majority I believe?
See above.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Anyway, I do think it's best to use names such as Almoravids, Umayads, Al-Andalucians, etc, than Moor which seems to be a troublesome word.
Whatever works for you.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
*Remember how Caucasian peoples are called black by Russians...When they actually seem fairer than many Southern Europeans.
Has no relevance to the etymology you reproduced here for the term "Moor", or the fact that the earliest Medieval African rulers in the Iberian peninsula were Almoravids, who came from the southbound Saharan to Sahel regions, a region notable for darker skin people than the northern coasts of west Africa, or that early Medieval literature and art have depicted figures of Moorish background as being that of noticeably dark skinned folks.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by yazid904: I have a solution! Insteading of referring to colour, perhaps usage of African or European would be better. From the Arab point of view, the Umayyads were Syrian/Arab but the Almohades and Almoravides were definately African (forget about the colour thing since Africa is where they originated). The Sanhajas were definately sub-Saharan Africa hence closer to what we know as 'black Africa'.
Here's my point? WHy do we continuosuly say 'Black Africa' but refuse to repeat "White Europe". There is some very subtle social construct and conditioning taking place and it does more to create illogical thinking. So therefore, it is safer to say the Moors were African regardless of colour because they originated in Africa. Other than the Umayyad who were from Damascus, the rulers keep in mind that the Umayyad were traditionalists and they kept the converted outside the tent and that is why they lost control.
Check up on the word 'mawali' and the dynastic differences between the goals of the Umayyad, Almohades and Almoravides!
But there was only 1 Umayyad ruler who actually made it to Spain and much of his family was destroyed by the Abassids. The kingdom of the Umayyads in Spain was largely made up of Syrian expatriates, friends and family members supported by African and Slavic troops and mercenaries as well as local Spanish converts. African troops were a large part of this and there were various Umayyad kings who were children of African/Umayyad marriages. It is also during this period that much inter-ethnic strife started as Africans were against Arabs, Arabs against Slavs, Slavs against Africans, Syrians against other Arabs and so on.
This is something that occurs throughout the Islamic empire, because of the NATURE of the Islamic conquests: Arabs made themselves the ruling class by claiming descent from Mohammed (Caliph) formed armies of believers from the converted or the defeated and marched these various armies of converted locals to annex more territory and incorporate more subjects into the fold. With this hierarchy of caste came priveledges, most of which went to the Arabs(Syrians, Turks, Baghdadis, Persians, etc) with other spoils going down the successive ranks of servants of Islam. However, seeing that most of the work of supporting these caliphs was done by the rank and file armies of converted locals, it is not surprising that they would desire the majority of the spoils from their efforts for themselves. So this pattern of infighting and turmoil is inherent on the nature of Islamic rule during this period.
Of course our concern here is the Muslims in Spain and Africa and there is no doubt that MANY Africans were among the foot soldiers, scholars, generals and even kings and Queens of the Islamic period in Spain and Africa.
Interesting book on this nature of Islamic rule and mawali:
Mistery Solver, you make your point well. I still have some doubts, but my curiosity has been mostly satisfied. Understand, I am here mostly to learn, and to present alternatives, most of the time based on simple thinking and not on any tangible proof, that you are free to refute as you will. Simply because, it is my impression that some people here quite knowldgeable, certanly more than me, and that I could learn alot, and at the same time put to test some of "theories", lol.
Some points:
"Interesting how you start of by questioning as though you had no clue, and then go onto acknowledge what was being said"
Yes, simply because I never thought as the Umayad and those who followed in African or Asian terms, since they all came from Africa and even at the beginnin with the Umayads many of them were African, so such difference did not exist in my mind.
"You've said many things. Specifics please"
That Moors were called as such in the middle-ages due to being from Mauretania and not due to being darker (even if they were)
Interesting you don't know that Italian quote, since you were the one who posted it I think. Aren't you Supercar? Your way of posting strikes me as very similar. So any doubts you have about it, I think you can solve them.
"Moreover, what is the limiting point of 'black' since, you poclaim that being darker doesn't mean black?"
I was going by what it had been said to me earlier in the thread. Black would be medium brown and darker.
"You are wrong of course, because as part of the coastal northwest African continuum, there are sections of the population who compare with southwest Europeans in skin tone"
No, I am not, since I said *generaly* darker than Europeans. Even South-Western (who are the darkest afaik, darker than Romans and Mainland Greeks) but that's besides the point. Yes, there's a significant overlap, but that doesn't change what I said.
"Depends on what "Moors" you're referring to."
Ok, there are more than one group of Moors.
"I don't recall the Umayyad rulers being referred to as "Moors""
Interesting. I provided a document which does seems to confirm this, since the word Moor is only used after the Almoravids arrived.
Anyway got any links, specially with depictions of the Almoravids?
Thanks.
@alTakruri:
Simply put, that line from that movie is a lie, or at least an exageration of great proportions. Genetics don't seem to show such massive contribution of Moors, either black or not. At least in all the genetics papers I read I never got such impression. There was some contribution yes. Also, Sicilians were never blond blue eyed generally, as far as I know. Their "Mediterranean" apearance has remained the same since times immemorial as one can see in ancient descriptions, depictions and busts.
I really hope that you posted that as a joke. Which is what it is.
I don't know the specifics of Sicily, but I do know the ones of Portugal.
Haplogroup E represents around 15% of the Portuguese Paternal lineages. Now had all of this E came from the Moors, more, specifically black moors, which obviously isn't true since plenty of that E came in the Neolithic for example and not all its carriers would have been black anyway" that still wouldn't translate into the tale you just put up there. Understand this, I don't know deny that myself and the rest of my people have black blood, simply that this black blood arrived with the Moors in the way that scene describes it, and that it altered significantly the phenotype of Portuguese, which afaik, always were a swarthy people on the whole, adapted to the mediterranean climate.
If you have any faith in so called autosommal tests, Portuguese appear to be around 5% black, with some regional variation. And many of that black arrived well before as well as after the Moors, throught ancient migrations and the absortion of (liberated) slaves. So, were we spwaned from blacks as in we have black blood? Yes. But nothing like you described back there.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Moorish influence in Europe is something that was largely kept hush hush until relatively recent times. Islamic Spain certainly gets much of the focus and attention, however Spain was not the only area of Moorish dominance and control. The Muslim Empire of the Moors and Saracens controlled MUCH of the Mediterranean. Various Islamic groups controled areas all along the Southern European coasts and the Turks controlled Greece as well had a substantial influence on Venice. Many parts of Southern Italy have large black and Muslim populations from Northern Africa and elsewhere to this day.
But Muslim Sicily was definitely another of Islam's crown jewels in the West, not far behind Andalus:
quote: The Arabs introduced superior irrigation systems; some of their qanats (channels) still flow under Palermo. They established the Sicilian silk industry, and at the court of the Norman monarch Roger II great Arab thinkers like the geographer Abdullah al Idrisi were welcome. Agriculture became more varied and more efficient, with the widespread introduction of rice, sugar cane, cotton and oranges. This, in turn, influenced Sicilian cuisine. Many of the most popular Sicilian foods trace their origins to the Arab period.
Dozens of towns were founded or resettled during the Saracen era, and souks (suks, or street markets) became more common than before. Bal'harm (Palermo) was repopulated and became one of the largest Arab cities after Baghdad and Cordoba (Cordova), and one of the most beautiful. Construction on Bal'harm's al-Khalesa district built near the sea was begun in 937 by Khalid Ibn Ishaq, who was then Governor of Sicily. Despite later estimates of a greater population, there were probably about two hundred thousand residents in and around this city by 1050, and it was the capital of Saracen Sicily. Bal'harm was the official residence of the Governors and Emirs of All Sicily, and al-Khalesa (now the Kalsa district) was its administrative center. As we've mentioned, in 948 the Fatimids granted a degree of autonomy to the Kalbid dynasty, whose last "governor" (effectively a hereditary emir), Hasan II (or Al-Samsan), ruled until 1053. By then, Kasyr Yanni (Enna), Trapani, Taormina and Syracuse were also self-declared, localized "emirates." (This word was sometimes used rather loosely to describe any hereditary ruler of a large locality; in law Sicily had been a unified emirate governed from Palermo since 948, but by the 1050s the others had challenged his authority over them.)
Naturally, Arabic was widely spoken and it was a major influence on Sicilian, which emerged as a Romance (Latin) language during the subsequent (Norman) era. The Sicilian vernacular was in constant evolution, but until the arrival of the Arabs the most popular language in Sicily was a dialect of Greek. Under the Moors Sicily actually became a polyglot community; some localities were more Greek-speaking while others were predominantly Arabic-speaking. Mosques stood alongside churches and synagogues.
Arab Sicily, by 948 governed from Bal'harm with little intervention from Qayrawan (Kairouan), was one of Europe's most prosperous regions --intellectually, artistically and economically. (At the same time, Moorish Spain was comparable to Sicily in these respects, but its prior society had been essentially Visigothic rather than Byzantine.) With the exception of occasional landings in Calabria, the Sicilian Arabs coexisted peacefully with the peoples of the Italian peninsula. These were Lombards (Longobard descendants) and Byzantines in Calabria, Basilicata and Apulia, where Bari was the largest city.
Under the Byzantines' empire, Sicily enjoyed some contact with the East, but as part of a larger Arab empire having greater contact with China and India, Far Eastern developments such as paper (made from cotton or wood), the compass and Arabic numerals (actually Indian) arrived. So did Arab inventions, such as henna --though today's middle-class Sicilian obsession with artficial blondness is a twentieth-century phenomenon. Under the Arabs, Sicily and Spain found themselves highly developed compared to England and Continental northern Europe.
Actually, I had posted similar facts earlier about how Muslim influence introduced the tomato and noodles into Italian cuisine and that many features of "European" culture actually stemmed from Africa and Asia.
Of course, the "Moors" who occupied Sicily were not all black, but there is no doubt that many black Africans were there among the Muslims who invaded Sicily. Again, going back to the nature of Islamic rule, the Arabs were mostly the minority among the Muslim populations of Africa and Europe during the early Moorish period and it was not until much later in the Moorish period that Arab domination of North Africa became much more pronounced.
But let's be clear here, this is nothing less than the accumulated traditions of agriculture, warfare, science, mathematics, medicine, architecture and philosophy that had been in the areas of Africa, Greece, Rome, Mesopotamia, India and Asia being introduced into Europe. Because this period was characterized by a fairly liberal Islamic rule, which provided education among the masses of Europeans they conquered (unlike later European conquests in America and Africa), it allowed the Europeans to become enlightened and grow from such contact. Therefore, the traditions of the royal courts, with poetry, music, pomp and ceremony moved from the ancient lands of the East and Africa into Europe. The ancient traditions of horse combat (which predate even Greece or Rome) moved from the East and Africa into Europe. Islam during this period was nothing more than a clearing house of accumulated cultural traditions and technologies amassed under the banner of Islam. Without these traditions and accumulated technologies, Islam would not have left the mark upon Europe that it did.
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
Some points:
"Interesting how you start of by questioning as though you had no clue, and then go onto acknowledge what was being said"
Yes, simply because I never thought as the Umayad and those who followed in African or Asian terms, since they all came from Africa and even at the beginnin with the Umayads many of them were African, so such difference did not exist in my mind.
But the key here is that nowhere in what you responded to, was there any mention of the Umayyads.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"You've said many things. Specifics please"
That Moors were called as such in the middle-ages due to being from Mauretania and not due to being darker (even if they were)
Interesting you don't know that Italian quote, since you were the one who posted it I think. Aren't you Supercar? Your way of posting strikes me as very similar. So any doubts you have about it, I think you can solve them.
Ever heard of actually "citing" people in full context, instead of going on about some unnamed author's work, posted by some unnamed poster, at some undesignated timeframe in some undesignated place?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Moreover, what is the limiting point of 'black' since, you poclaim that being darker doesn't mean black?"
I was going by what it had been said to me earlier in the thread. Black would be medium brown and darker.
Since you don't know what separates 'dark skin' from 'black', then your delineation makes no sense even at the most basic level.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"You are wrong of course, because as part of the coastal northwest African continuum, there are sections of the population who compare with southwest Europeans in skin tone"
No, I am not, since I said *generaly* darker than Europeans.
Of course you are. There are sizeable sections of coastal northwest Africans who approach the same tones in southwestern Europe, which is what makes these sections of north Africans essentially outliers in African natural skin distributions.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Even South-Western (who are the darkest afaik, darker than Romans and Mainland Greeks) but that's besides the point. Yes, there's a significant overlap, but that doesn't change what I said.
See above.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Depends on what "Moors" you're referring to."
Ok, there are more than one group of Moors.
I'm not sure you got the point, which has to do with temporal context of who were the Africans referred to as Moors, in say, Greco-Roman era, and those, when the first "Medieval" African rule took ground in southwestern Europe.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"I don't recall the Umayyad rulers being referred to as "Moors""
Interesting. I provided a document which does seems to confirm this, since the word Moor is only used after the Almoravids arrived.
I must have missed the said document which was specifically referring to southwest Asian elites under the Umayyads as predecessors of Islamic rule in southwestern Europe, and not an African figure.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Anyway got any links, specially with depictions of the Almoravids?
Thanks.
My suggestion to you would be, to browse through threads [and there are quite many them around] that have tirelessly addressed this issue time and again, with the coming of each "newly" arrived discussant. It's time to put in some work, and not expect things to always be spoon fed.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
How does this:
"There are sizeable sections of coastal northwest Africans who approach the same tones in southwestern Europe, which is what makes these sections of north Africans essentially outliers in African natural skin distributions."
Contradicts this:
"Today North Africans are still generaly darker than Europeans"
?
You might say that such statment was irrelevant for the matter at hand, or that the conclusions I took from this fact are incorrect but not that it's wrong.
The fact that some North Africans overlap with some Europeans, does not makes the statment wrong.
Anyway, let's go back this was your answer:
"You are wrong of course, because as part of the coastal northwest African continuum, there are sections of the population who compare with southwest Europeans in skin tone. You posted the etymology of "Moor" as being equated with 'black/dark skin', in its usage by Greco-Romans, which would mean that these people were yet darker than the said Europeans. But guess what? The Almoravids came largely from southward in a region(s) that Greco-Romans didn't have much exposure to. Skin gradients in Africa typically get darker as one moves towards the equator, which in coastal Northwest Africa's case, would be regions towards their south."
What you said here, and correct if I am wrong, was that the Almoravids would have been even darker than the Maures, since they would have been from southern latitudes. Which I considered a good point. But again, I don't see how does that means that:
"Today North Africans are still generaly darker than Europeans"
and this:
"generally darker doesn't mean black"
Is wrong.
Only that in this case, it doesn't matter. Exactly because Almoravids were from the southern regions. Wrong? No. Irrelevant? Yes.
Btw, I noticed you rarely mention black and that I do no know what black is to you. Answering the original question of this thread and debating it you becomes then, impossible. Since the only thing that I know is that you claim the Moors were significantly darker (since otherwise they wouldn't have been called Moors) than Europeans (Southern or otherwise) which I agree, then the discussion was pointless, since I was acting on the basis that "black" today was "medium brown and darker" but that it might not have been so in the past, including possibly light brown and olive (as demonstrated by Russian example). Since it wasn't so, I'm afraid all of this was for nothing.
Oh well..
Conclusion: The Moors were significantly darker in general than Europeans. And they were Africans. Nothing more can be said, nor does it needs to.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Oh, and if anyone wants to know how Moors looked like he should look at the places from where they came (which is North West Africa I assume). Most likely those regions retain the original look in significant %. Besides obviously looking at historical descriptions and depictions that is, if that for some reason isn't enough for him. Those historical documents are the most important sources.
I consider my contribution to this thread finished, lol.
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
How does this:
"There are sizeable sections of coastal northwest Africans who approach the same tones in southwestern Europe, which is what makes these sections of north Africans essentially outliers in African natural skin distributions."
Contradicts this:
"Today North Africans are still generaly darker than Europeans"
?
You mean to tell me that you can't tell the difference between "generally", and the contextualization above, in terms of 'sizeable sections'? By saying that contemporary coastal Northwest Africans are generally darker than southwestern Europeans, you are ignoring the frequent outlier sections [in terms of natural African skin gradients] on the coastal tips of northwest Africa, who are not much different from their European neighbours when it comes to skin shade.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
You might say that such statment was irrelevant for the matter at hand, or that the conclusions I took from this fact are incorrect but not that it's wrong.
I'll call it as I see it. You're flat out wrong to generalize in that manner.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
The fact that some North Africans overlap with some Europeans, does not makes the statment wrong.
Of course it does, because as I just said, they are more frequent in the coastal tips than your statement makes it out to be with that generalization.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Anyway, let's go back this was your answer:
"You are wrong of course, because as part of the coastal northwest African continuum, there are sections of the population who compare with southwest Europeans in skin tone. You posted the etymology of "Moor" as being equated with 'black/dark skin', in its usage by Greco-Romans, which would mean that these people were yet darker than the said Europeans. But guess what? The Almoravids came largely from southward in a region(s) that Greco-Romans didn't have much exposure to. Skin gradients in Africa typically get darker as one moves towards the equator, which in coastal Northwest Africa's case, would be regions towards their south."
What you said here, and correct if I am wrong, was that the Almoravids would have been even darker than the Maures, since they would have been from southern latitudes. Which I considered a good point. But again, I don't see how does that means that:
"Today North Africans are still generaly darker than Europeans"
and this:
"generally darker doesn't mean black"
Is wrong.
I just told you, yet again, why you are wrong in the first case, and I also told you what was wrong in the second case, to which you decided not to reply.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Only that in this case, it doesn't matter. Exactly because Almoravids were from the southern regions. Wrong? No. Irrelevant? Yes.
Not sure what you're trying to get across here, but the relevancy of talking about the 'southern' origins of the Almoravids, a specific group which ruled in southwestern Europe, is that they would have been as dark, if not even darker than the north Africans Greco-Romans called Moors, and for that reason, according to the etymology you reproduced herein. Since, you haven't shown any evidence that this connotation had changed on the onset of Almoravid presence in southwestern Europe, then we will have to go with the Greco-Roman understanding of the term, in the Medieval time in question...since this term was inherited directly from the antiquated term.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Btw, I noticed you rarely mention black and that I do no know what black is to you.
'Black' to me, is a euphemism for the natural visible skin pigmentation gradients of Saharo-tropical Africa.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Answering the original question of this thread and debating it you becomes then, impossible. Since the only thing that I know is that you claim the Moors were significantly darker (since otherwise they wouldn't have been called Moors) than Europeans (Southern or otherwise) which I agree, then the discussion was pointless, since I was acting on the basis that "black" today was "medium brown and darker" but that it might not have been so in the past, including possibly light brown and olive (as demonstrated by Russian example). Since it wasn't so, I'm afraid all of this was for nothing.
You may have been arguing past me, but I wasn't doing so, with respect to you. See my post on your obligation to delineate what limits 'dark-skin' from being referred to 'black', and see if you can deliver this time around.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Oh well..
Conclusion: The Moors were significantly darker in general than Europeans. And they were Africans. Nothing more can be said, nor does it needs to.
If it makes you feel better to put it this way, as a way of not having to say 'black', then I say whatever works for you. But then, at least be consistent in referring to sub-Saharan Africans in the same way.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
"You mean to tell me that you can't tell the difference between "generally", and the contextualization above, in terms of 'sizeable sections'?"
Yes I can. And?
"By saying that contemporary coastal Northwest Africans are generally darker than southwestern Europeans"
I didn't say that. I said Europeans, period. I latter did say that the same could be said even if only using Southern Europeans. Which it can.
"you are ignoring the frequent outlier sections [in terms of natural African skin gradients] on the coastal tips of northwest Africa, who are not much different from their European neighbours when it comes to skin shade."
I'm ignoring nothing, and I am perfectly aware of this fact. I didn't even mention coastal tips of Northwest Africa, but North Africa. Don't start pulling strawmen.
"I'll call it as I see it. You're flat out wrong to generalize in that manner."
I was? Why? Generalizations aren't perfect and can only go so far. That doesn't make them incorrect or wrong. Only imprecise.
What I said would be the same as saying:
"The average North African is darker than the average European"
And you say: "Oh, but you are forgeting the many nuances and overlaps"
And I say: "Yes, and?" "I am not denying them, am I?" "So what's your point exactly?"
Notice, again, that I didn't say SouthWestern Europeans and Coastal North-West Africans. And even there, from what I know, when looking at the averages South-Western Europeans are lighter than Coastal North-West Africans, even if the overlap becomes much, much bigger.
So, the veracity of the statement would remain.
"Of course it does, because as I just said, they are more frequent in the coastal tips than your statement makes it out to be with that generalization"
Yes, and? Again, what's your point? You provide no information that makes my statement untrue. In general, North Africans are darker than Europeans. Period. This is non-debatable. Introducing the fact that the difference between average South-Western Europeans and average Coast North-West Africans is quite small serves to complete my statment, and make it more correct, not making it wrong. So you should have said: "Yes, but to be more precise..." or "Yes, but don't forget that..." And I would obviously agree with you. Not saying it's flat out wrong. But, as you said, you'll call it as you see it. You made your point, and I have made mine.
Let's agree to disagree then, and let each people figure it out for herself.
"and I also told you what was wrong in the second case, to which you decided not to reply"
Hum, what are you talking about? That dark doesn't mean black? It doesn't. My hair is dark. It isn't black. Going by the most common definitions black and dark aren't the same. Black is a colour. Dark is an adjective which implies lack of lightness. It may be black as it may not. But then, this part of the debate was rendered meaningless, since you never defined what black was for you anyway.
"Not sure what you're trying to get across here, but the relevancy of talking about the 'southern' origins of the Almoravids, a specific group which ruled in southwestern Europe, is that they would have been as dark, if not even darker than the north Africans Greco-Romans called Moors, and for that reason, according to the etymology you reproduced herein. Since, you haven't shown any evidence that this connotation had changed on the onset of Almoravid presence in southwestern Europe, then we will have to go with the Greco-Roman understanding of the term, in the Medieval time in question...since this term was inherited directly from the antiquated term."
I agree with this. And no, I showed no evidence. I only proposed a theory, which people would take it as they want. You presented your arguments as to why such theory would be wrong, arguments which *I* will take as I want.
"'Black' to me, is a euphemism for the natural visible skin pigmentation gradients of Saharo-tropical Africa"
Ok, still a bit fuzzy, but more clear anyway. Your definition is as valid as anyone else. And yes, now I can say, the Moors were black, if by black we mean "the natural visible skin pigmentation gradients of Saharo-tropical Africa".
"You may have been arguing past me, but I wasn't doing so, with respect to you. See my post on your obligation to delineate what limits 'dark-skin' from being referred to 'black', and see if you can deliver this time around"
I have no such delineation. Black to me is a colour which is well known. Very few times have I seen black people. And they might have been a very dark brown anyway. But this is besides the point. When I used black here, I was using Doug's M definition, the only one which was proposed to me when I asked for one, which he described as medium brown and darker. In coloquial language, when I use black it has the same meaning as yours pratically...if you're wondering.
"If it makes you feel better to put it this way, as a way of not having to say 'black', then I say whatever works for you. But then, at least be consistent in referring to sub-Saharan Africans in the same way."
My feelings are irrelevant. I feel neither better nor worse with all that was discussed here. As I just said, yes, the Moors were black, by using your definition of black. As for the last part, I don't remember being not consistent in that matter when it came to SSA. At least in this thread.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
No you didn't present a theory you merely profered an opinion. And true, you're quite the philosopher but not at all the research student/scholar.
Mystery's paid his dues here over the years and we all know and bow to his impeccable scholarship. You will have much reference material to cite before your hazarded opinions can be levelled with hypotheses much less full blown theories. A theory implies that something has been proven and is generally accepted as being true.
Hypothesis: An educated guess based upon observation. It is a rational explanation of a single event or phenomenon based upon what is observed, but which has not been proved. Most hypotheses can be supported or refuted by experimentation or continued observation.
Theory: An explanation of a set of related observations or events based upon proven hypotheses and verified multiple times by detached groups of researchers.
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
"Not sure what you're trying to get across here, but the relevancy of talking about the 'southern' origins of the Almoravids, a specific group which ruled in southwestern Europe, is that they would have been as dark, if not even darker than the north Africans Greco-Romans called Moors, and for that reason, according to the etymology you reproduced herein. Since, you haven't shown any evidence that this connotation had changed on the onset of Almoravid presence in southwestern Europe, then we will have to go with the Greco-Roman understanding of the term, in the Medieval time in question...since this term was inherited directly from the antiquated term."
I agree with this. And no, I showed no evidence. I only proposed a theory, which people would take it as they want. You presented your arguments as to why such theory would be wrong, arguments which *I* will take as I want.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Here are some pages showing that Moor was not simply used for a Muslim or someone from Northwest Africa:
Moors in Christianity:
quote: In the middle of the 14th century, one of the most profound examples of the symbol of the blackamoor can be seen in the use of this image to represent Christ. It is clear from the documentation we have for the city of Lauingen in Germany, for example, that at about this time, the city's seal with the head of Christ wearing a crown of thorns is transformed to the head of a blackamoor wearing a golden crown. That the latter insignia is meant to represent the former is quite obvious from the accompanying inscriptions. One of the earlier ones read: "Sigillum civium de Lougingin" (seal of the city of Lauingen), while a later version clearly explains itself as the "Sigillum secretum civitatis palatinae Lavgingen (secret seal of the palatinate city of Lauingen)."
A German heraldic scholar writing before World War II offered two other reasons for a similar coats of arms. He pointed out that Ethiop (sun burnt) the black was a sun sign and therefore a symbol of divinity that could alternately be used for the Son of God or the Son of Man. He also pointed out that from what we know of the cult of the Black Madonna, the blazon of the blackamoor queen was a reference to Mary, the Queen of Heaven or her prefiguration as the Queen of Sheba and that the male versions of these insignia were therefore references to her Son.
A lot of which has to do with the black African Shristian kingdoms of Sudan (Dongola, etc) who held out for hundreds of years against Muslim onslaught. It also refers to the ancient traditions of Isis, Horus, Amun, Osiris, etc which also had a tradition of being painted black as an homage to the ancestral relationship between Egyptians and black Africans who were the first humans.
Pope Benedict coat of Arms.
quote:
The upper left-hand section depicts a brown-faced Moor, crown and collar. This element is not rare in European heraldry, and it is very frequent in the Bavarian tradition. It is called "caput ethiopicum" or "Moor of Freising."
As Ratzinger himself explained in his autobiography, this element has been included in the shields of the bishops of Freising for some 1,000 years.
Ok, true, theory is way to pompous for what I said Basically, I though for 5 secconds and pulled that out from my ass, lol. It has given some results in the past, lol. You must confess, it wasn't totaly nonsense.. Mystery has made is points well,don't worry..
Lighten up folks!
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
"You mean to tell me that you can't tell the difference between "generally", and the contextualization above, in terms of 'sizeable sections'?"
Yes I can. And?
And...therefore you should know better than to ask why I said you were wrong in the way you went about your generalization. LOL.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"By saying that contemporary coastal Northwest Africans are generally darker than southwestern Europeans"
I didn't say that. I said Europeans, period. I latter did say that the same could be said even if only using Southern Europeans. Which it can.
LOL. You start of saying that you weren't saying that, only to end the comment with acknowledging that you did say something to that effect.
quote:Mystery Solver:
"you are ignoring the frequent outlier sections [in terms of natural African skin gradients] on the coastal tips of northwest Africa, who are not much different from their European neighbours when it comes to skin shade."
I'm ignoring nothing, and I am perfectly aware of this fact. I didn't even mention coastal tips of Northwest Africa, but North Africa. Don't start pulling strawmen.
Well, when you generalize coastal north Africans the way you did, that ignores the point you proclaim to not be ignoring. In what way is that a strawman?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"I'll call it as I see it. You're flat out wrong to generalize in that manner."
I was? Why? Generalizations aren't perfect and can only go so far. That doesn't make them incorrect or wrong. Only imprecise.
You keep asking me why, when I've literally explained why multiple times now.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
What I said would be the same as saying:
"The average North African is darker than the average European"
And you say: "Oh, but you are forgeting the many nuances and overlaps"
This is what is a true strawman, because you are citing your own words, and passing them off as mine.
But using your rationale, I can make a generalization along the lines that you made of 'north Africa' towards the coastal tips of north Africa, by saying that they are lighter shaded than other Africans to their south on average, but on average, they approach the same skin shades as European neighbors to the north. So now what?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
And I say: "Yes, and?" "I am not denying them, am I?" "So what's your point exactly?"
That you keep missing the point, only to then ask what the point is, as you're doing now.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Notice, again, that I didn't say SouthWestern Europeans and Coastal North-West Africans. And even there, from what I know, when looking at the averages South-Western Europeans are lighter than Coastal North-West Africans, even if the overlap becomes much, much bigger.
Well, we are dealing with Moorish rule in "southwestern Europe", and so, what makes you think somewhere else in Europe is the focus at hand? The same with north Africa. The said Africans moved into "Southwestern Europe" through "northwestern Africa"; what makes you think then, that we are talking about the whole of North Africa?
According to what do you deem that "Southwestern" Europeans are lighter than "coastal Northwest Africans" on average?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
So, the veracity of the statement would remain.
"Of course it does, because as I just said, they are more frequent in the coastal tips than your statement makes it out to be with that generalization"
Yes, and? Again, what's your point?
And so, you can't ignore the fact that contemporary coastal Africans from that region do approach skin tones of southwest Europeans, and are therefore likely to be much lighter on average than the Almoravids who spearheaded the Moorish [African] rule in southwestern Europe, and that you don't have evidence that application of the "Moor" appellation on them is any different than the context in which it was used by Greco-Romans towards the North Africans, perceived to be 'dark skinned/black'. How many times must this point be communicated, before it sinks in?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
You provide no information that makes my statement untrue. In general, North Africans are darker than Europeans. Period. This is non-debatable.
You have provided no evidence which makes your statement true, in terms of "northwest Africans vs. southwest Europeans". Of course, it is quite debatable; it ain't going to be otherwise, simply because your questionable words have 'magic' or some 'supernatural' essence to them.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Introducing the fact that the difference between average South-Western Europeans and average Coast North-West Africans is quite small serves to complete my statment, and make it more correct, not making it wrong. So you should have said: "Yes, but to be more precise..." or "Yes, but don't forget that..."
And that's what again, we call strawman, when you want to listen to yourself speak, or 'wish' to hear what you'd like others to say, rather than listening to what is actually being said.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
And I would obviously agree with you. Not saying it's flat out wrong. But, as you said, you'll call it as you see it. You made your point, and I have made mine.
Well, you may well like to see my point however you would like, but your's is flat out wrong, because it doesn't hold up to evidence.
quote: Miguel Antunes:
Let's agree to disagree then, and let each people figure it out for herself.
I agree that you are flat out wrong, not because I feel that we are simply sharing opinions here, but because my claims are based on objective assessment, while yours lack objective merit. How about that!
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"and I also told you what was wrong in the second case, to which you decided not to reply"
Hum, what are you talking about? That dark doesn't mean black?
Citation of where I made such a claim, if you believe it isn't a fantasy of yours?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
It doesn't. My hair is dark. It isn't black. Going by the most common definitions black and dark aren't the same. Black is a colour. Dark is an adjective which implies lack of lightness. It may be black as it may not. But then, this part of the debate was rendered meaningless, since you never defined what black was for you anyway.
Antunes, it's best you save energy answering questions, rather than wasting them on non-issues. The issue at hand was what you dilineate as 'dark skin' and 'black skin'. I asked you to point to us, at what limit does 'dark skin' cease being 'black'. You danced around and dodged this question in all sorts of manner.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Not sure what you're trying to get across here, but the relevancy of talking about the 'southern' origins of the Almoravids, a specific group which ruled in southwestern Europe, is that they would have been as dark, if not even darker than the north Africans Greco-Romans called Moors, and for that reason, according to the etymology you reproduced herein. Since, you haven't shown any evidence that this connotation had changed on the onset of Almoravid presence in southwestern Europe, then we will have to go with the Greco-Roman understanding of the term, in the Medieval time in question...since this term was inherited directly from the antiquated term."
I agree with this. And no, I showed no evidence. I only proposed a theory, which people would take it as they want. You presented your arguments as to why such theory would be wrong, arguments which *I* will take as I want.
Again, you are mixing apples with oranges. My assessment is based on actual "material" that I come across, and yours is uncorroborated wishful "assumptions". Notice the difference now?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"'Black' to me, is a euphemism for the natural visible skin pigmentation gradients of Saharo-tropical Africa"
Ok, still a bit fuzzy, but more clear anyway. Your definition is as valid as anyone else. And yes, now I can say, the Moors were black, if by black we mean "the natural visible skin pigmentation gradients of Saharo-tropical Africa".
It isn't fuzzy, if you look at skin tone gradient maps, based on actual tests done on various populations, as well as skin tone prediction map vis-a-vis regional UV radiation [see: Jablonski and Chaplin].
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"You may have been arguing past me, but I wasn't doing so, with respect to you. See my post on your obligation to delineate what limits 'dark-skin' from being referred to 'black', and see if you can deliver this time around"
I have no such delineation. Black to me is a colour which is well known. Very few times have I seen black people. And they might have been a very dark brown anyway. But this is besides the point.
Then case closed. Your supposed dilineation of 'dark skin' from 'black' is meaningless.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
When I used black here, I was using Doug's M definition, the only one which was proposed to me when I asked for one, which he described as medium brown and darker. In coloquial language, when I use black it has the same meaning as yours pratically...if you're wondering.
And mine would be what? And what you and Doug have to say about black between the two of you, is your business. It is my business, however, the context you apply in the discourse between you and I.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"If it makes you feel better to put it this way, as a way of not having to say 'black', then I say whatever works for you. But then, at least be consistent in referring to sub-Saharan Africans in the same way."
My feelings are irrelevant. I feel neither better nor worse with all that was discussed here.
Could have fooled me, with all that talk about agreeing to disagree, and the idea that each of us have a sensible substantial point to make, when clearly your end is suffering severely from objectivity, in contrast to mine.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
As I just said, yes, the Moors were black, by using your definition of black. As for the last part, I don't remember being not consistent in that matter when it came to SSA. At least in this thread.
Oh well, so now you're settling for "black". Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Here we go again....
"LOL. You start of saying that you weren't saying that, only to end the comment with acknowledging that you did say something to that effect."
Yes, why lol? My original comment didn't say that. Only after I added that, as a sub hypothesis. So I did say that. *After* you add already pulled your strawman.
"Well, when you generalize coastal north Africans the way you did, that ignores the point you proclaim to not be ignoring. In what way is that a strawman?"
It ignores for the sole purpose of the generalization. Generalizations ignore what's not average, as you know. But they don't deny the existence of what's non average. When ones says in "in general" or "generaly". Had I said only "North Africans are darker than Europeans" as absolute fact, then of course, I would be wrong. And it's a straw man since I didn't mention coastal north africans and south western europeans at first..."By saying that contemporary coastal Northwest Africans are generally darker than southwestern Europeans..." I did say that.
Basically, this what happened, at least to my understanding:
"North Africans are darker than Europeans" I say, and you reply, "No, because Coastal North-West Africans and South-Western Europeans have the same pigmentation" And *this* is were the strawman happened, because I never mentioned because "Coastal North-West Africans and South-Western Europeans" in the first place. But them after your strawman I said: "Even when talking about Coastal North-West Africans and South-Western Europeans, the first ones are darker than the last ones"
This is of course paraphrased. You and everybody else is free to check the real sequence of events.
"This is what is a true strawman, because you are citing your own words, and passing them off as mine."
Passing off? Never. It's quite clear that's only a scenarion I created from my mind to better explain my position. I never said those were your words. It was an analogy. Again, people can take them as they want. If my analogy doesn't convince you, or you doens't portray the discussion at hand in a rightfull way, so be it. It's not a strawman. I'm not attacking your points for something you didn't say!
"But using your rationale, I can make a generalization along the lines that you made of 'north Africa' towards the coastal tips of north Africa, by saying that they are lighter shaded than other Africans to their south on average, but on average, they approach the same skin shades as European neighbors to the north. So now what?"
First I did not made a generalization of "North Africa" towards the coastal tips of North Africa. I made a generalization of North Africa period. And that generalization you made is accepted by me.
"Well, we are dealing with Moorish rule in "southwestern Europe", and so, what makes you think somewhere else in Europe is the focus at hand?"
Irrelevant. Attack my comment for that if you wish. But that doesn't change the fact that I only said "European".
"The same with north Africa. The said Africans moved into "Southwestern Europe" through "northwestern Africa"; what makes you think then, that we are talking about the whole of North Africa?"
See above. No. I'll explain again. You could have said that my generalization was irrelevant because "Europe" and "North Africa" wasn't the point, but yes "South-Western Europe" and "North-Western Africa" or whatever was. I can perfectly accept that.
"According to what do you deem that "Southwestern" Europeans are lighter than "coastal Northwest Africans" on average?"
This map. As you can see, the far north of the peninsula is of a diferent colour than the rest. That colour is the same as the one on the coastal strip of North-West Africa. By the simply fact that Iberia as a part of it that is lighter than Coastal North Africa. one can reach that conclusion.
There's also things I have read, such as Coon's Races of Europe. Yes, it's not the Bible, outdated, etc. I know. And of course my personal observation. But that map alreadly explains it.
"And so, you can't ignore the fact that contemporary coastal Africans from that region do approach skin tones of southwest Europeans, and are therefore likely to be much lighter on average than the Almoravids who spearheaded the Moorish [African] rule in southwestern Europe, and that you don't have evidence that application of the "Moor" appellation on them is any different than the context in which it was used by Greco-Romans towards the North Africans, perceived to be 'dark skinned/black'. How many times must this point be communicated, before it sinks in?"
What? I already acepted it before. Perhaps you failed to notice or I expressed my self badly.
"And that's what again, we call strawman, when you want to listen to yourself speak, or 'wish' to hear what you'd like others to say, rather than listening to what is actually being said."
No, no strawman. This is merely my oppinion. It was a personal sugestion. I've listened to what you said, and for that same reason I made this comment. Again, take it as you want.
"I agree that you are flat out wrong, not because I feel that we are simply sharing opinions here, but because my claims are based on objective assessment, while yours lack objective merit. How about that!"
Hum, no they don't. See above. North Africans are darker than Europeans, inspite of any regional variation.
"Citation of where I made such a claim, if you believe it isn't a fantasy of yours?"
You don't recognize your own words? I asked you a question. If you don't want to answer it's fine. What do you mean by this:
"and I also told you what was wrong in the second case, to which you decided not to reply"
?
"Antunes, it's best you save energy answering questions, rather than wasting them on non-issues. The issue at hand was what you dilineate as 'dark skin' and 'black skin'. I asked you to point to us, at what limit does 'dark skin' cease being 'black'. You danced around and dodged this question in all sorts of manner"
No, I didn't dogded. More than once I said that I was following Doug's M definition, stated in this thread for all to see. But if you my personal answer then dark skin ceases to be black skin with it ceases to of the colour black.
"Again, you are mixing apples with oranges. My assessment is based on actual "material" that I come across, and yours is uncorroborated wishful "assumptions". Notice the difference now?"
Never said there was no difference. or that they were qualitatively the same. Still, I have seen that "material" for most of it. Though, I do choose to believe for the most part that you are in fact basing yourself in such "material", since despite of your personality you seem an honest man. There's nothing like seeing with my own eyes though, and hence I asked for such material. Wich did the best to provide. Now it remains to be seen if such materail will convince, but this is besides your interest.
"And mine would be what?"
This:
"the natural visible skin pigmentation gradients of Saharo-tropical Africa"
You had just said it.
"Could have fooled me, with all that talk about agreeing to disagree, and the idea that each of us have a sensible substantial point to make, when clearly your end is suffering severely from objectivity, in contrast to mine"
Mere speculation. Besides the point anyway. Believe as you will.
"Oh well, so now you're settling for "black"."
Well, only know was I given a definition of Moor and Black for the purpose of this thread. Acordingly, answering yes to the question asked in this thread seems to be logical conclusion.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Transfered to my next post...
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
Here we go again....
"LOL. You start of saying that you weren't saying that, only to end the comment with acknowledging that you did say something to that effect."
So I did say that. *After* you add already pulled your strawman.
Nuff said. Not going to follow you in the tangled web of yours.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Well, when you generalize coastal north Africans the way you did, that ignores the point you proclaim to not be ignoring. In what way is that a strawman?"
It ignores for the sole purpose of the generalization. Generalizations ignore what's not average, as you know. But they don't deny the existence of what's non average.
Well, you generalization is flawed, for reasons I stated. Can't emphasize that enough.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"This is what is a true strawman, because you are citing your own words, and passing them off as mine."
Passing off? Never.
Easy then. "Actually" cite me on the posts that you were passing off as my mine.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
It's quite clear that's only a scenarion I created from my mind to better explain my position.
You scenarios are strawman, because they are a figment of your imagination, not something I've actually said.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
I never said those were your words. It was an analogy.
When you put, "you said" this or that, that is putting words into somebody else's mouth, whether you are aware of that or not.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Again, people can take them as they want.
Great then. I take them for the strawmen that they are.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
If my analogy doesn't convince you, or you doens't portray the discussion at hand in a rightfull way, so be it. It's not a strawman. I'm not attacking your points for something you didn't say!
You can be damn sure that a strawman will not convince me in any shape or form, and indeed, you are also right about not actually attacking something I've said, when you are busy knocking down strawmen.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"But using your rationale, I can make a generalization along the lines that you made of 'north Africa' towards the coastal tips of north Africa, by saying that they are lighter shaded than other Africans to their south on average, but on average, they approach the same skin shades as European neighbors to the north. So now what?"
First I did not made a generalization of "North Africa" towards the coastal tips of North Africa. I made a generalization of North Africa period.
Miguel, again, you know very well that we are not talking about the whole of "North Africa", as opposed to "northwest Africa" from where the Africans moved into southwestern Europe to rule therein. Not sure, how generalizing the whole North Africa helps you, any more than it does "northwest Africa", since again, pattern of skin gradients are not the same all the way; there are clearly more substantial outlier groups in the coastal northwest African end than the northeastern end. Even your own postings of a map, makes this clear to you, if you wish to see it.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Well, we are dealing with Moorish rule in "southwestern Europe", and so, what makes you think somewhere else in Europe is the focus at hand?"
Irrelevant. Attack my comment for that if you wish. But that doesn't change the fact that I only said "European".
Well, then if it makes you feel any better, your talk of generalized Europe makes very very little sense and irrelvant, when we are clearly talking about southwestern Europe, which is where the African Moors directly ruled.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"The same with north Africa. The said Africans moved into "Southwestern Europe" through "northwestern Africa"; what makes you think then, that we are talking about the whole of North Africa?"
See above. No. I'll explain again. You could have said that my generalization was irrelevant because "Europe" and "North Africa" wasn't the point, but yes "South-Western Europe" and "North-Western Africa" or whatever was. I can perfectly accept that.
Okay. Your generalization is a non-sequitur. There; are you happier now? LOL.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"According to what do you deem that "Southwestern" Europeans are lighter than "coastal Northwest Africans" on average?"
This map. As you can see, the far north of the peninsula is of a diferent colour than the rest. That colour is the same as the one on the coastal strip of North-West Africa. By the simply fact that Iberia as a part of it that is lighter than Coastal North Africa. one can reach that conclusion.
In case you don't seem to notice in the map, all the European regions close to Northwest Africa, *including the Iberian peninsula*, are well within the same general range depicted on the coastal tip of northwest Africa [which is what I've been getting you to see all along]. How does that help you in any way?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
There's also things I have read, such as Coon's Races of Europe. Yes, it's not the Bible, outdated, etc. I know. And of course my personal observation. But that map alreadly explains it.
You said "Coon" and "outdated" in the same comment; need I say more?
quote:Miguel Antones:
"And so, you can't ignore the fact that contemporary coastal Africans from that region do approach skin tones of southwest Europeans, and are therefore likely to be much lighter on average than the Almoravids who spearheaded the Moorish [African] rule in southwestern Europe, and that you don't have evidence that application of the "Moor" appellation on them is any different than the context in which it was used by Greco-Romans towards the North Africans, perceived to be 'dark skinned/black'. How many times must this point be communicated, before it sinks in?"
What? I already acepted it before. Perhaps you failed to notice or I expressed my self badly.
Well, your acceptance is acknowledged.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"And that's what again, we call strawman, when you want to listen to yourself speak, or 'wish' to hear what you'd like others to say, rather than listening to what is actually being said."
No, no strawman. This is merely my oppinion. It was a personal sugestion. I've listened to what you said, and for that same reason I made this comment. Again, take it as you want.
Not that again. See prior post on this issue above.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"I agree that you are flat out wrong, not because I feel that we are simply sharing opinions here, but because my claims are based on objective assessment, while yours lack objective merit. How about that!"
Hum, no they don't. See above. North Africans are darker than Europeans, inspite of any regional variation.
I've seen the map, and it refutes your idea about the "Iberian peninsula" which is where Africans ruled, are on average lighter than the northwest African on the coastal tip of the continent.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Citation of where I made such a claim, if you believe it isn't a fantasy of yours?"
You don't recognize your own words? I asked you a question. If you don't want to answer it's fine.
Of course, I recognize my own words; I just don't recognize that ones that you falsely attribute to me.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
What do you mean by this:
"and I also told you what was wrong in the second case, to which you decided not to reply"
?
Yes, but how does that resemble your attribution that I asked you to cite me on?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Antunes, it's best you save energy answering questions, rather than wasting them on non-issues. The issue at hand was what you dilineate as 'dark skin' and 'black skin'. I asked you to point to us, at what limit does 'dark skin' cease being 'black'. You danced around and dodged this question in all sorts of manner"
No, I didn't dogded. More than once I said that I was following Doug's M definition, stated in this thread for all to see. But if you my personal answer then dark skin ceases to be black skin with it ceases to of the colour black.
I've already said that what you and Doug have to say about "black skin" doesn't concern me. What concerns me, is your need to establish with relative precision, your claim that "dark skin" and 'black' isn't the same .
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Again, you are mixing apples with oranges. My assessment is based on actual "material" that I come across, and yours is uncorroborated wishful "assumptions". Notice the difference now?"
Never said there was no difference. or that they were qualitatively the same. Still, I have seen that "material" for most of it. Though, I do choose to believe for the most part that you are in fact basing yourself in such "material", since despite of your personality you seem an honest man. There's nothing like seeing with my own eyes though, and hence I asked for such material. Wich did the best to provide. Now it remains to be seen if such materail will convince, but this is besides your interest.
Well, you've attested to at least the following materials that carry weight here:
*your own reproduction of the etymology for "Moor", which you haven't shown any evidence changed on the onset of African Moorish rule in the Iberian peninsula.
*the skin tone map above shows that Saharan groups are generally relatively darker than coastal tip northwest Africans, a noticeable section of whom fall into the same general level as those in southern Europe.
*Medieval depictions and accounts by historians of dark-skinned leading figures of the Almoravids and African Moors.
*The Almoravids came from southward of the regions where Greco-Romans identified North Africans as "Maures", alluding to their precieved darker skin.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"And mine would be what?"
This:
"the natural visible skin pigmentation gradients of Saharo-tropical Africa"
You had just said it.
Okay then. It doesn't get any better than an actual citation.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Could have fooled me, with all that talk about agreeing to disagree, and the idea that each of us have a sensible substantial point to make, when clearly your end is suffering severely from objectivity, in contrast to mine"
Mere speculation. Besides the point anyway. Believe as you will.
Not so, see the aforementioned materials that I briefly laid down.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Oh well, so now you're settling for "black"."
Well, only know was I given a definition of Moor and Black for the purpose of this thread. Acordingly, answering yes to the question asked in this thread seems to be logical conclusion.
Okay then. Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Nevermind. All of this is leading to nowhere. I don't even know why I am arguing with you. It was only about my "theory" which you refuted in your own way, then I guess I started discussing other things.I should have ended it right there. We only disagreed on irrelevant stuff mostly.
Only one remark. Not all of the Iberian Peninsula is of the same colour as Coastal North-West Africa. When averaged, it would tilt in favour of making the Peninsula lighter than Coastal North-West Africa. And as you said, people tend to get lighter the further they are away from the Equator. The Iberian Peninsula is further away from the equator than Coastal North-West Africa. Not by much, but it is.
More importantly, that map was made in 1940. Frankly, we don't know how things were in 1080 or 180 bc. Yes, based on radiation one can more or less predict the pigmentation, but as one can see, pigmentation is not uniform even in areas when such radiation is the same. Compare Northern Europeans who are fair skinend to Eskimos and the like who are considered dark. Radiation also has a lesser effect as peoples evolve and start using technology to help their survival. At some point, natural selection ceases to apply, since nature can't affect Man no more. For example. Northern European descended people in Australia. Cleary not adapted to the terrain for the most part, but they managed. Or black people living in Europe. Similar things might have existed back then.
We are only sure of the following (according to Mystery Solver, since I haven't done any research, and correct me if I am wrong)
Maur means dark. How dark? Darker than Romans and Greeks at least. (Are there any depictions of ancient Maures?) Moors (Almoravids? I'm still not sure of what I should label as Moors) were named as such because they were dark too (when compared to Iberians?). In this case we have the depictions which show how dark they were. More, considering their origin, one can also reach a conclusion on how dark they might have been. Going by the average Joe on the street, many of them would be labeled as "black". (Black is no valid scientific definition though, no?)
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
We only disagreed on irrelevant stuff mostly.
I don't consider the following irrelevant:
*Disagreement on the context of "Moor" appellation on Africans in question on the onset of their rule in the Iberian peninsula, by way of weight of evidence...whether this was merely geographic and stripped of its 'dark skin' connotation, or the inheritance of the antiquated term with along with its context of 'dark skin' intact.
*Disagreement about the manner in which you generalized "coastal northwest Africans" and vis-a-vis first "Europeans", and then "Southwest Europeans"/"Iberian peninsula".
*Disagreement on the relevance of bringing generalized "north Africa" and "Europe" into the discussion, when we are discussing "the use of Northwest Africa" to spearhead African rule in "southwest Europe".
*Disagreement in delineation of 'dark skin' and 'black' without giving a limiting point of when 'dark skin' ceases to be 'black'.
*Disagreement in the significance of accounts of historians in mentioning dark skin Moorish figures, as well as that of art depictions of dark skin Moors, as that of the four dark Moorish heads on the flag.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Only one remark. Not all of the Iberian Peninsula is of the same colour as Coastal North-West Africa. When averaged, it would tilt in favour of making the Peninsula lighter than Coastal North-West Africa.
The evidence you, yourself chose to present, says that you're wrong on that account.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
And as you said, people tend to get lighter the further they are away from the Equator. The Iberian Peninsula is further away from the equator than Coastal North-West Africa. Not by much, but it is.
Coastal tip of Northwest Africa became that way, not because of natural skin variation in response to UV radiation, but primarily due to geneflow with its European neighbors.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
More importantly, that map was made in 1940. Frankly, we don't know how things were in 1080 or 180 bc.
Well, we know that light skin groups were in coastal north Africa during the late Dynastic periods of Egypt, because there are wall paintings of them. Does the Tamahou ring a bell? This would have been well before the Almoravid rule in the Iberian peninsula.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Yes, based on radiation one can more or less predict the pigmentation, but as one can see, pigmentation is not uniform even in areas when such radiation is the same.
The map you posted is not skin tone prediction based on UV radiation; it based on studies of actual populations from region to region.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Compare Northern Europeans who are fair skinend to Eskimos and the like who are considered dark. Radiation also has a lesser effect as peoples evolve and start using technology to help their survival.
At some point, natural selection ceases to apply, since nature can't affect Man no more. For example. Northern European descended people in Australia. Cleary not adapted to the terrain for the most part, but they managed. Or black people living in Europe. Similar things might have existed back then.
Irrelevant. That issue has been dealt with in previous skin color discussions. Our focus here is on the Iberian peninsula and "northwest Africa" from where the Africans moved into the Iberian peninsula. You've admitted just moments ago to your tendency to drift away from the specific issues at hand; well, you are doing it again.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
We are only sure of the following (according to Mystery Solver, since I haven't done any research, and correct me if I am wrong)
Maur means dark. How dark? Darker than Romans and Greeks at least. (Are there any depictions of ancient Maures?) Moors (Almoravids? I'm still not sure of what I should label as Moors) were named as such because they were dark too (when compared to Iberians?).
You may not be sure, but your representation of the etymology isn't fuzzy about what it meant, and you've produced no evidence that it was stripped off this meaning on the onset of Almoravid rule in the Iberian peninsula, whose leading figures have been described as dark skinned, and expectedly so, given the region they came from. This is one of the points, as I mentioned earlier, that led further to our exchanges.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
In this case we have the depictions which show how dark they were. More, considering their origin, one can also reach a conclusion on how dark they might have been. Going by the average Joe on the street, many of them would be labeled as "black". (Black is no valid scientific definition though, no?)
They were likely as dark as the ranges seen the Saharan to Sahelian belts today.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
From a recently bumped thread (emphasis mine)
quote:Originally posted by Thought2: The Moors By Ross Brann, Cornell University
"Isidore of Seville, who died well before Islam came to Iberia, follows Roman usage in referring to northwest Africa as Mauritania (from which maurus/moro is derived) on account, he says, of its inhabitants **blackness**."
[This message has been edited by Thought2 (edited 31 March 2005).]
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
quote:Originally posted by Thought2: The Moors By Ross Brann, Cornell University
An elegiac passage from the thirteenth century Primera cronica general (chapter 559 General Chronicle of Spain) recounts the events of 711 fro what is construed as the (temporary) downfall of "Spain" in that year. The text testifies that semantic transformation of "Moor" was not nearly as benign as some readers have assumed:
"*Disagreement on the context of "Moor" appellation on Africans in question on the onset of their rule in the Iberian peninsula, by way of weight of evidence...whether this was merely geographic and stripped of its 'dark skin' connotation, or the inheritance of the antiquated term with along with its context of 'dark skin' intact"
Either them being named Moors because they were dark or because they came from Mauretania is irrelevant because in the end Moors were quite dark, at least part of them. This has been more than established. It was merely an interesting concept, or so I thought, which occured to me, and I decided to present it, to see what the experts here would have to say. You were the only one to do so, btw. You have made your point.
"*Disagreement about the manner in which you generalized "coastal northwest Africans" and vis-a-vis first "Europeans", and then "Southwest Europeans"/"Iberian peninsula"."
Irrelevant since Moors will continue to be dark, either if Coastal NA are darker or not than Iberians.
Btw you claim that, when speaking about them map and Iberians being lighter or not than Coastal NA:
"The evidence you, yourself chose to present, says that you're wrong on that account."
It does? Explain what's wrong with what I said instead of simply saying it's wrong. A part of Iberia *is* lighter than Coastal North-West Africa. Will not that change the final average? Making it lighter than Coastal NA? People on the 12-14 level don't have all the same pigmentation then magically, in Northern Spain, become lighter. No. Logic and experience says it will be gradual, hence it would be safe to assume that on the 12-14, the further north ones goes the further people are close to the 12 and the further south the closer they are to the 14. Disagree? Fine. Explain why. Claim lack of proof? Ok. Am I wrong? Perhaps. Lack of proof is not proof of lack. Disregard what I say then if you only want to discuss firmly prooved facts, since I bring none.
And in the end, yes, it's irrelevant because I only brought this to say that dark and black aren't the same by most standard definitions. Which they aren't. The Ancient Maurs and Moors continue to be dark (for southern Europeans standards) either they were "black" or not. I had already explained this, and you haven't said this wasn't so, concentrating instead on what do I mean by black, since only after that you could approach the question I guess. More than fair. Now you know what I mean by "black", this:
"dark as the ranges seen the Saharan to Sahelian belts today."
So where the Maurs in that range? I now already know that the Moors (Almoravids) were. Still, I wonder, acording to you, where all or near all Almoravids like that? Just a curiosity.
"*Disagreement on the relevance of bringing generalized "north Africa" and "Europe" into the discussion, when we are discussing "the use of Northwest Africa" to spearhead African rule in "southwest Europe"."
Hum, we didn't disagree. The moment you said that it wasn't relevant for those very reasons I agreed. If I didn't it was a lapse.
"*Disagreement in delineation of 'dark skin' and 'black' without giving a limiting point of when 'dark skin' ceases to be 'black'."
There could be no disagreement if there was no delineation. In fact, it seems we have the same concept of "black". Dark is of course very subjective. But I haven't labeled something as dakr which you didn't agree it. The same for what you labeled as dark.
"*Disagreement in the significance of accounts of historians in mentioning dark skin Moorish figures, as well as that of art depictions of dark skin Moors, as that of the four dark Moorish heads on the flag."
Only as to its importance. But the case of this ties with I am going to say next:
Strangely, you forgot to mention the most important disagreement, which really is the key for this discusion. What is a Moor. To me, a Moor is (or was) simply a Muslim from North Africa and the converted Iberians. Once it was established by you that Almoravids were the Moors in question, then most of the disagreements, if not all disapear, including the black heads.
Moving on:
What's the connection of this:
"Coastal tip of Northwest Africa became that way, not because of natural skin variation in response to UV radiation, but primarily due to geneflow with its European neighbors."
To this:
"And as you said, people tend to get lighter the further they are away from the Equator. The Iberian Peninsula is further away from the equator than Coastal North-West Africa. Not by much, but it is." said by me.
When did this geneflow happened? Couldn't it be possible that since the climate is so similar, that Coastal North Africans would have the same pigmentation as Iberians for example (its Europeans neighboors by excelence)?
"Well, we know that light skin groups were in coastal north Africa during the late Dynastic periods of Egypt, because there are wall paintings of them. Does the Tamahou ring a bell? This would have been well before the Almoravid rule in the Iberian peninsula."
So there were light skin groups in Coastal North Africa back then. How do the Maures fit into this? There was both dark and light groups? Or were the Temehu still darker than the Romans/Greeks? And tying with what you said up there, are these Tamahou the result of geneflow with Europeans?
"The map you posted is not skin tone prediction based on UV radiation; it based on studies of actual populations from region to region."
Never said it was. Why did you thought so?
"Irrelevant. That issue has been dealt with in previous skin color discussions. Our focus here is on the Iberian peninsula and "northwest Africa" from where the Africans moved into the Iberian peninsula. You've admitted just moments ago to your tendency to drift away from the specific issues at hand; well, you are doing it again."
Can't be helped I guess. Bare with me, if you may. Only some harmeless speculation. I like speculating, lol.
"You may not be sure, but your representation of the etymology isn't fuzzy about what it meant, and you've produced no evidence that it was stripped off this meaning on the onset of Almoravid rule in the Iberian peninsula, whose leading figures have been described as dark skinned, and expectedly so, given the region they came from. This is one of the points, as I mentioned earlier, that led further to our exchanges."
Yes, true. Can you answer my questions, if you may?
Many thanks.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
In addendum to Thought's reposted historic citations.
So, we have a continuum in historical writings of the Moors blackness and as brunette and ravenette European types but as blacks of an African type from the ancient Greeks who invented the term throughout all the ensuing ages of history right up to a native of just pre-conquest Hispania.
Any skepticism of their conclusions must be likewise supported from authors of the same places and time periods if such skepticism is anything more than opinionated personal bias.
Moors were black by the original Greek perspective of black, by the Byzantine perspective of black, by the Arab perspective of black, by the Iberian perspective of black, by the common European perspective of black, and by the modern popular perspective of black.
Were the Moors black? Yes. Ipso facto by any perspective of blackness from 2500 years ago up to the present they overall were black.
What more is there to say? Contemporaneous authors made it clear for all except the willfully blind and biased followers of the disgraced neo-Coonian John Baker school of race based anthropology to see.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Thank alTakruri.
Just one correction. Moors are not black by the modern Portuguese popular perspective of black. Which is interesting. Really, most if not all people here, when thinking of a Moor they simply think of a random muslim guy, though preferenciably from North Africa who looks like this:
For example, a friend of mine looks alot like that man, and in our group his nickname was the Moor. One of many examples of such mindset. I must confess that this mindset cause me some problems at first, but now I know better.
It would be interesting to study why and when did such started to happening.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
We're not interested in your academically disproven opinion or anecdotes. On this forum we are interested in what scholarship reveals about all aspects of Africana.
Even though you go on and on, essentially by the rules of put up or shut up, you've put nothing up so even though you stick repeat like a misreading compact disk you have been intellectually silenced. Everyone but you can see that.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
You're free to see it that way but I wasn't even arguing with this last post. With this last post I wasn't arguing that what was said to me here wasn't true, more like the opposite.
"I must confess that this mindset cause me some problems at first, but now I know better."
Here, I was giving credit where credit is due, to people like the ones in this board who thaught me many things. But if you want to be all agressive then so be it. Keep your knowledge for yourself then, and be happy with it. I fail to see the point though. You won't achieve anything with that. I on the other hand I learned many new things here, and tried to contribute in my own way. I brought up oppinions which I thought would be interesting. I see that you don't like it. A shame. I do learn alot by the "rules of put up and shut up". (rules which btw I am also playing by, I have "shut up" more than once) I know it can be hard, but you seem to be more than up to it
Again, Takruri, I think you have the wrong idea of myself. Might be language barrier. I read quite some posts before logging in and I thought you were cool. Seems not..
"On this forum we are interested in what scholarship reveals about all aspects of Africana"
So am I! That's why I ask many questions. Look even at the last post:
"It would be interesting to study why and when did such started to happening."
I just want to know.
"We're not interested in your academically disproven opinion or anecdotes"
As far as I know, my opinion and anecdotes haven't been the subject of academia, so they weren't disproven. They weren't proven either, that's true also. If it bothers you that much you can simply ignore my posts. But I don't really get your agressivity. I really don't. Other than calling you stiff I wasn't rude to you...
There have been far more worse posters here, trolls if you like than me. And again, if I am disruptive, the mods can warn me or ban me.
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
"I don't consider the following irrelevant"
I do.
Well, then that just shows how out of sync you are with the discussion; it says that you don't have a sense of focus, because you are operating from a weak premise of denial and wishful thinking, as opposed to your opponent who is apparently more focused, and can pinpoint the points of contention and their relevancy.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"*Disagreement on the context of "Moor" appellation on Africans in question on the onset of their rule in the Iberian peninsula, by way of weight of evidence...whether this was merely geographic and stripped of its 'dark skin' connotation, or the inheritance of the antiquated term with along with its context of 'dark skin' intact"
Either them being named Moors because they were dark or because they came from Mauretania is irrelevant because in the end Moors were quite dark, at least part of them. This has been more than established.
It isn't irrelevant, because you've been forced to back away from what you call a "theorey" of the possible exclusive geographical designation of the term, presumably devoid of its original context of alluding to dark skin/black Africans, because of lack of evidence for your 'theorey'.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
It was merely an interesting concept, or so I thought, which occured to me, and I decided to present it, to see what the experts here would have to say. You were the only one to do so, btw. You have made your point.
And hence, why it is relevant.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"*Disagreement about the manner in which you generalized "coastal northwest Africans" and vis-a-vis first "Europeans", and then "Southwest Europeans"/"Iberian peninsula"."
Irrelevant since Moors will continue to be dark, either Coastal NA are darker or not than Iberians.
Again, this isn't irrelevant, because you used coastal northwest Africans as a premise, in that all of them would not have been "black", and hence, put the term "Moor" into question. It was at this point you were told that the Almoravids, as the first to represent exclusive African rule in the Iberian peninsula, would have been on average darker than those north Africans on the coast, because where they came from, people are on average darker than their African neighbor along the coastal north areas. The point is that the "Moors" would have stayed in the context in its original denotation to dark skin [Africans], unless verified by evidence to the contrary, which you haven't produced.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Btw you claim that, when speaking about them map and Iberians being lighter or not than Coastal NA:
"The evidence you, yourself chose to present, says that you're wrong on that account."
It does? Explain what's wrong with what I said instead of simply saying it's wrong.
You said that by looking at the map, it is supposed to vindicate you on the average lighter shade of Iberians in comparison to northwest Africans in the coastal tips. Well, that is obviously not what the map shows. It shows the northwest Africans along the coast falling into the same general range found in southern Europe, including the Iberian peninsula. This has got be the fourth time I'm clarifying this to you, and I'm not sure that you'll get even so.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
A part of Iberia *is* lighter than Coastal North-West Africa. Will not that change the final average?
Are your eyes failing you? Essentially almost the entire portion of the Iberian peninsula falls into line with the shade shared in the coastal tips of Northwest Africa and the rest of southern Europe. What good does a supposed tinee miniscule portion falling outside of that range do you?
quote:Miguel Antune:
Making it lighter than Coastal NA? People on the 12-14 level don't have all the same pigmentation then magically, in Northern Spain, become lighter. No.
Faulty thinking. See post above.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Logic and experience says it will be gradual, hence it would be safe to assume that on the 12-14, the further north ones goes the further people are close to the 12 and the further south the closer they are to the 14. Disagree? Fine. Explain why. Claim lack of proof? Ok. Am I wrong? Perhaps. Lack of proof is not proof of lack. Disregard what I say then.
I disregard what you are saying, because the map is there for all those who can see, to see that your idea of Iberian peninsula being on average lighter shaded than the coastal tips of northwest Africa is ridiculous. Now of course, there are gradients in Northwest Africa as one goes southward. The Almoravids came from the darker shaded regions of the Saharan and Sahelian regions. You are dancing around this issue, because of a point you now proclaim to be irrelevant to you, which is that you're trying to pretend that your initial position was NOT, that north Africans would not have been uniformly dark skinned enough to warrant the "Moorish" appellation to allude to dark skin; however, when forced to deal with the Almoravids specifically, and told about where they emanate from, you then switched that to saying that, well, northwest Africans would have been still relatively darker than the Spanish Europeans. By this, I take it that you were hoping that they would not be considered "black" but just 'relative term' that Europeans used on this people. However, upon being confronted with where the Almoravids came from, you had no choice but recognize that they would have yet been darker than northwest Africans along the coasts.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
And in the end, yes, it's irrelevant because I only brought this to say that dark and black aren't the same by most standard definitions. Which they aren't.
Hence, you even contradict yourself, as I just noted above, and in this comment I'm now replying. You just gave us an account of a 'purpose' [highlighted] of your pushing forth exchanges on the issue you are presumably now calling 'irrelevant'. To this end, you've still failed to tell us when 'dark skin' ceases to be black, notwithstanding your repetition on the issue for *every* reply.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
The Ancient Maurs and Moors continue to be dark (for southern Europeans standards) either they were "black" or not.
Well, that makes no sense, because you've failed to quantify where 'black ends' and 'dark begins'.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
I had already explained this, and you haven't said this wasn't so, concentrating instead on what do I mean by black, since only after that you could approach the question I guess. More than fair.
From very early on in our exchange, I asked you the question of what delineates your idea of what constitutes 'dark skin' from 'black'; you've dodged the question, dancing around the claim of supposedly repeating after Doug on the one hand, and myself on another. You posted an already 'translated' piece from some Italian historian, presumably Maria Laurino, which doesn't tell us much about the original terms used in the untranslated texts, or that it specifically deals with the Almoravids - the first exclusive African rulers in the Iberian peninsula, or that it was simply delineating who were dark skin Saharan groups from the yet darker Sahelian or sub-Saharan African groups. Being aware of dark skin gradient in Africa delimits 'black' in what way from 'dark skin', precisely speaking?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Now you know what I mean by "black", this:
"dark as the ranges seen the Saharan to Sahelian belts today."
Nope I don't know what you mean by 'black'. I only see you hiding behind parroting my words, which is why you flip flop from saying that you are supposedly using in it Doug's terms, and on the other hand, my terms. What's the case: is 'dark skin' to be differentiated from 'black'; if so, precisely where does black begin and end, and likewise, where does dark skin begin and end?!
quote:Miguel Antunes:
So where the Maurs in that range? I now already know that the Moors (Almoravids) were. Still, I wonder, acording to you, where all or near all Almoravids like that? Just a curiosity.
I've already answered this question as it pertains to the Almoravids. You have access to skin tone maps; what is hard about getting it, since all you have to do, is to simply look at the maps?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"*Disagreement on the relevance of bringing generalized "north Africa" and "Europe" into the discussion, when we are discussing "the use of Northwest Africa" to spearhead African rule in "southwest Europe"."
Hum, we didn't disagree. The moment you said that it wasn't relevant for those very reasons I agreed. If I didn't it was a lapse.
It was relevant to you, in distracting from the real issues at hand. Only when demonstrated to you that it would be futile to continue using it, did you realize that it outlived its usefulness.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"*Disagreement in delineation of 'dark skin' and 'black' without giving a limiting point of when 'dark skin' ceases to be 'black'."
There could be no disagreement if there was no delineation. In fact, it seems we have the same concept of "black". Dark is of course very subjective. But I haven't labeled something as dakr which you didn't agree it. The same for what you labeled as dark.
'Dark skin' isn't subjective to me, as I've already given you a concise idea of what I mean by it, which is a lot more than I can say for you. And no, I still don't know that we have the same concept of 'black', because you refuse to define what 'dark skin' is, and how it separates from 'black'.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"*Disagreement in the significance of accounts of historians in mentioning dark skin Moorish figures, as well as that of art depictions of dark skin Moors, as that of the four dark Moorish heads on the flag."
Only as to its importance. But the case of this ties with I am going to say next:
Strangely, you forgot to mention the most important disagreement, which really is the key for this discusion. What is a Moor. To me, a Moor is (or was) simply a Muslim from North Africa and the converted Iberians. Once it was established by you that Almoravids were the Moors in question, then most of the disagreements, if not all disapear, including the black heads.
Well, apparently the application of Moors drifted as the continued on from the Almoravids to the Almohads and then, the likes of Nasrids. The word became synonymous with African Muslims there over time regardless of whether they were the lighter kinds from coastal northwest African tips or from the more southward regions, and during the later supposed 'enlightened' periods of Europeans, these groups were placed into ambiguity due to contempt for the Muslims and other folks during those periods, where by it became synonymous with Islamic rule in southern Europe, and it was at this point, we begin to see pale European looking "Moors". However, none of this changes the very likelihood that the term as applied at the time of Almoravid presence, was no different than the context in which the word was inherited in, i.e. dark skin/black Africans of the Mauretania. Your lack of evidence to the contrary to this end, speaks of this.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Moving on:
What's the connection of this:
"Coastal tip of Northwest Africa became that way, not because of natural skin variation in response to UV radiation, but primarily due to geneflow with its European neighbors."
To this:
"And as you said, people tend to get lighter the further they are away from the Equator. The Iberian Peninsula is further away from the equator than Coastal North-West Africa. Not by much, but it is." said by me.
None, because the former is telling you why the coastal Northwest Africans present an 'outlier' on the natural skin gradients of the continent, while the latter is telling you the phenomenon behind natural skin tone gradients in response to UV radiation across latitudes. The latter doesn't tell you that the skin shade levels on the coastal tips of northwest Africa are part of the natural African skin shade gradients, without the assistance of gene flow from the European neighbours to the north.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Still, have you any proof? When did this geneflow happened?
What, you're ignorant of gene flow from southwestern Europe into Northwest Africa, and vice versa. This even after an example was presented in another discussion that you participated in?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Why, if the climate is so similar, would not Coastal North Africans have the same pigmentation as Iberians for example (its Europeans neighboors by excelence)?
UV radiation exposure is specifically responsible for natural skin shade variations to a large degree across the various latitudes. The burden is on you to show that the UV radiations in coastal northwest Africa is the same as those in the regions to its north.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Well, we know that light skin groups were in coastal north Africa during the late Dynastic periods of Egypt, because there are wall paintings of them. Does the Tamahou ring a bell? This would have been well before the Almoravid rule in the Iberian peninsula."
So there were light skin groups in Coastal North Africa back then. How do the Maures fit into this? There was both dark and light groups? Or were the Temehu still darker than the Romans/Greeks? And tying with what you said up there, are these Tamahou the result of geneflow with Europeans?
You tell me, after all you were able to come up with the etymology for "Maures"/Moors.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"The map you posted is not skin tone prediction based on UV radiation; it based on studies of actual populations from region to region."
Never said it was. Why did you thought so?
...because you spoke of 'skin prediction', and that isn't obviously the basis of the map you posted.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"Irrelevant. That issue has been dealt with in previous skin color discussions. Our focus here is on the Iberian peninsula and "northwest Africa" from where the Africans moved into the Iberian peninsula. You've admitted just moments ago to your tendency to drift away from the specific issues at hand; well, you are doing it again."
Can't be helped I guess. Bare with me, if you may. Only some harmeless speculation. I like speculating, lol.
Well then, do it in some other place, because it has no bearing on the specifics at hand. I've already been patient with you long enough as it is.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"You may not be sure, but your representation of the etymology isn't fuzzy about what it meant, and you've produced no evidence that it was stripped off this meaning on the onset of Almoravid rule in the Iberian peninsula, whose leading figures have been described as dark skinned, and expectedly so, given the region they came from. This is one of the points, as I mentioned earlier, that led further to our exchanges."
Yes, true. Can you answer my questions, if you may?
Many thanks.
I've more than anwered your "questions". How about returning the favor for the first time, and answer the outstanding ones I've been asking you at the begining of our exchanges till now!
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Lookit. if I'm pushing your buttons sorry. What you write obviously means what you think it does but through my all day rum filter it seemed you were holding out against millenia of evidence that a Maur is a black in favor of your local Moro is a brunette Iberian opinion. I mean we all know a moreno/a can be an African black or a European brunette/ravenette pending context
Sorry to have rubbed you raw. OK? But this ain't no chatroom we're about disseminating valid Africana not sharing subjective opinions.
The thing is, all you've posited has come up here many times before you trapsayed in, but much to your credit you're of a better metal and higher calibre than the likes of Arrow and Evil Euro who more or less advanced nearly identical proposals and neo-Coonian/John Baker discredited mockery of physical and cultural anthropology as did yourself.
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: You're free to see it that way but I wasn't even arguing with this last post. With this last post I wasn't arguing that what was said to me here wasn't true, more like the opposite.
"I must confess that this mindset cause me some problems at first, but now I know better."
Here, I was giving credit where credit is due, to people like the ones in this board who thaught me many things. But if you want to be all agressive then so be it. Keep your knowledge for yourself then, and be happy with it. I fail to see the point though. You won't achieve anything with that. I on the other hand I learned many new things here, and tried to contribute in my own way. I brought up oppinions which I thought would be interesting. I see that you don't like it. A shame. I do learn alot by the "rules of put up and shut up". (rules which btw I am also playing by, I have "shut up" more than once) I know it can be hard, but you seem to be more than up to it
Again, Takruri, I think you have the wrong idea of myself. Might be language barrier. I read quite some posts before logging in and I thought you were cool. Seems not..
"On this forum we are interested in what scholarship reveals about all aspects of Africana"
So am I! That's why I ask many questions. Look even at the last post:
"It would be interesting to study why and when did such started to happening."
I just want to know.
"We're not interested in your academically disproven opinion or anecdotes"
As far as I know, my opinion and anecdotes haven't been the subject of academia, so they weren't disproven. They weren't proven either, that's true also. If it bothers you that much you can simply ignore my posts. But I don't really get your agressivity. I really don't. Other than calling you stiff I wasn't rude to you...
There have been far more worse posters here, trolls if you like than me. And again, if I am disruptive, the mods can warn me or ban me.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Ok, I'll answer your questions.
What is black to me? Honestly?
This:
Unless deemed necessary I will avoid using black to define people. If their skin is really black I will refer to them as such. But colloquialy black would be someone who looks to me to be Africa except for coastal north africa. Even if similar to your own it's far from objective, don't you think? Hence my need to avoid using it. Hency my preference to use other people's definitions, since I know they won't disagree. Now I know, I should have asked yours much sonner.
Dark? Also far from objective, but to me dark is so called olive (light brown?) and darker. I have posted a pic of Moroccan in the post before this one. He is right at the beginning of what is dark to me. The border is not easy to pinpoin though. Using the map, the range of colors that start's at 15? Yes, I think that's basically it.
"I've already been patient with you long enough as it is."
This is true. Thanks again.
"What, you're ignorant of gene flow from southwestern Europe into Northwest Africa, and vice versa. This even after an example was presented in another discussion that you participated in?"
No, I remember. You said that it was due to the slave trade and also Iberians Moors going to Morocco, right?
"You tell me, after all you were able to come up with the etymology for "Maures"/Moors."
Yes, there were both light and dark groups in Coastal North Africa at least since the late dynastic period of Egypt. The Tamahou were the light ones. I also remember that some Lybians were decribed or depicted as dark skinned. Even if this is untrue, the Maures prove that darkskinned people inhabited Coastal North Africa as well. So there were of both types yes.
Only one question remains, are the Tamahou the result of European geneflow? What do you think?
"Well, then that just shows how out of sync you are with the discussion; it says that you don't have a sense of focus, because you are operating from a weak premise of denial and wishful thinking"
True, I am out of sync and don't have much of a sense of focus besides the oppening posts were I was trying to know what Moor and Black were in this context. But trust me, there's no denial (of what?) nor any wishful thinking from my part. I don't think that just because I want something to be true, that I convince myself it is. I don't want anything to be true anyway. The only thing I wish is the truth no matter it may be. I won't settle for something easely though. I apologize if this characteristic of myself was unpleasant for any of you.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Oh, no problem Takruri.
I was holding out at first yes, but then I saw the evidence and now I know better. Ok, I'll try to not make more unfound comments and assertations. Yes, I have seen those Evil Euro and others, but most of the time I did not agree with them and I could see their were wrong! So I'm *not* glad that I sound like them. It wasn't my intention. Really it was not.
Thanks for your patience!
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Please use the internal search engine to find what we all have already written on the tamahou tjemehu TMHHW tehenu THHNW and whatever variant spellings exist for these two NA ethnies known to the AE's.
It should take you at least a day to digest not merely skim read all the material. Come back with clarifying questions or your own value add AFTER you do the necessary homework (thus saving us uneeded aggravation which we will only turn right back on you).
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
Unless deemed necessary I will avoid using black to define people. If their skin is really black I will refer to them as such.
Nobody's skin is "really" black. It is an illusion of the dispersion effects of the electromagnetic spectrum, devoid of wavelengths of visible light.
quote:Miguel Antunes:
Dark? Also far from objective, but to me dark is so called olive (light brown?) and darker. I have posted a pic of Moroccan in the post before this one. He is right at the beginning of what is dark to me. The border is not easy to pinpoin though. Using the map, the range of colors that start's at 15? Yes, I think that's basically it.
Now of course, you do realize that this doesn't mean 'dark' in ancient literature reflects 'your' interpretation of dark, right?
quote:Miguel Antunes:
"What, you're ignorant of gene flow from southwestern Europe into Northwest Africa, and vice versa. This even after an example was presented in another discussion that you participated in?"
No, I remember. You said that it was due to the slave trade and also Iberians Moors going to Morocco, right?
Okay then.
quote:Minguel Antunes:
"You tell me, after all you were able to come up with the etymology for "Maures"/Moors."
Yes, there were both light and dark groups in Coastal North Africa at least since the late dynastic period of Egypt. The Tamahou were the light ones. I also remember that some Lybians were decribed or depicted as dark skinned. Even if this is untrue, the Maures prove that darkskinned people inhabited Coastal North Africa as well. So there were of both types yes.
Only one question remains, are the Tamahou the result of European geneflow? What do you think?
Again, I cannot be certain, save for the part about this not being in the Paleolithic. However, since Phoenicians were there prior to Europeans, initial light shade contributions may have largely come from Phoenicians [involvement in the region spans ca. 1100 BC - 600 BC (200 BC); see metmuseum.org], perhaps represented by some of the J lineages in the region, and then people from across the Mediterranean sea region, perhaps the likes of Minoans. The combined crania from Proto-historical era of the Algerian area and Carthage have been revealed to be quite morpho-metrically heterogenous, going back to ca. 1500 BC. through to the period when Phoenician influence in the region was at its height [ca. 900 BC to 200 BC].
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
"Nobody's skin is "really" black. It is an illusion of the dispersion effects of the electromagnetic spectrum, devoid of wavelengths of visible light."
Yes, I know. If someone's skin is registered by my brain then, to be of the colour black I would call him or her a black skinned. Some people can get pretty dark, though they're probably a very dark brown.
"Now of course, you do realize that this doesn't mean 'dark' in ancient literature reflects 'your' interpretation of dark, right?"
Yes, sure.
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
A Miguel,
What do Gabrielle Reece, Vin Diesel, Rashida Jones and Wentworth Miller (Prison Break, the series) have in common? WHich one of those would you call moreno/a? Groups may have varying degrees of the same ancestry but they will be expressed in different ways. The appellation Moro is the same thing? First look at the origin of the word Moro. It is definately not European. It is African!
You say you are have origin in Portugal, then look at the Brzilian phenotype range! It is mirrowed in all Central America and South America, where in a family one will see varying degrees of phenotype and colour distinction and they are all in the same family! The roots are the same.
Posted by dan5678 (Member # 13968) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: For Miguel
It's no mystery what a black is or who's black.
The real question is what is a white person. Sangre Limpieza excluded all Moors who were not renegade Spaniards from the blue blood in veins beneath white skin.
So what is a white? Only the blue vein society which excludes all southern Europeans without some kind of Germanic/Nordic ancestry.
Ergo your Greek, Latin, Keltic Euros aren't real white people. Goths and Vandals were the only whites of old Spain. That's why the Moors and Arabs dubbed it Al Andalus -- of the Vandals.
Southern Europeans are on average darker than their northern European counterparts. This is reality that finds expression in skin tone maps and hair color maps.
And also, noting the UV radiation differentiation as one goes from southern Europe to the northern regions therein...
...every group on the same geographical latitudes as Europe appear to have the beige-like shade, save for that northwestern corner of Europe.
Egyptsearch link Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
quote:Originally posted by yazid904: A Miguel,
What do Gabrielle Reece, Vin Diesel, Rashida Jones and Wentworth Miller (Prison Break, the series) have in common? WHich one of those would you call moreno/a? Groups may have varying degrees of the same ancestry but they will be expressed in different ways. The appellation Moro is the same thing? First look at the origin of the word Moro. It is definately not European. It is African!
You say you are have origin in Portugal, then look at the Brzilian phenotype range! It is mirrowed in all Central America and South America, where in a family one will see varying degrees of phenotype and colour distinction and they are all in the same family! The roots are the same.
Yazid, Moreno means brunette in Portugal. I am a moreno since my eyes and hair are dark. It can also apply to skin, if someone is light brown, or well tanned it will be called moreno. But any darker than that (which is the darkest Portuguese usually can get) and the person will be labeled as black or south asian (here even darker arabs are called south asian). Some dark Portuguese will be called a "Moor" like my friend is, but's that simply because in our imaginary Moors are only slightly darker than us, I don't know how such came to happen. So Moor isn't usually used as a way to describe people, only sometimes.
Those people you name, I know they all have black blood, though I don't know if people here would detect it. I suppose Vin Diesel and Rashida Jones would be called "Moreno", since their hair, eye and skin pigmentation is in the range. The other two seem too fair for it, specially Gabrielle. Miller still has the dark hair for it.
I must confess, I don't understand your Brazil/Latin America comment though.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
@dan5678:
Southern Europeans are darker than Northern ones. Now the difference, in winter time isn't that big, and plenty of Southern Europeans are in range of Northern Europeans when it comes to the skin. But the difference is there, which makes sense considering we adapted to sunnier climate.
I don't even know what's the White Blue Vein Society. Are thse people who can see their blue veins? lol For me white always meant European and Christian, but other people have their definitions, which doesn't bother me, since I don't base my identity on being white.
Posted by yazid904 (Member # 7708) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: I must confess, I don't understand your Brazil/Latin America comment though.
In Brazil and the rest of Latin America, it is common to see individuals of the same family appearing to be of different ethnicities, though they have the same parents. Argentina, Uruguay and Paraguay had more immigration from Europe and therfore less of an indigenous population.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Morenos applies to brunettes and ravenettes as well as Africans because, as previously submitted, Euro street knowledge has it that the Moros gave all the Latins (Iberians, Italians, Sicilians, even French) their darker hair eyes and skin.
i have been to Brazil(Salvador specifically) and from what I heard and saw the pigmentation breakdown is as follows:
1) branco: white
2)moreno: obviously not "branco" but relatively close.
2)mulato: this could apply to a wide spectrum--from brown to yellow but with Africanoid hair
3)preto: black. I was called "preto" by a boy of about 5 years old and he was promptly chastised by his parent. I was amused--because, hell, the young boy was correct.
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
Southern Europeans are darker than Northern ones. Now the difference, in winter time isn't that big, and plenty of Southern Europeans are in range of Northern Europeans when it comes to the skin. But the difference is there, which makes sense considering we adapted to sunnier climate.
Distinction in phenotypic [and genetic as well] trends between southern Europeans and their western Northern Europeans is as clear as that between day and night, no matter how "Pan-Europeanists" feel about it.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Some modern videos from within the old Moorish heartland of southern Morocco:
Why such fascination about Moors? Most here are not even muslims, so i don't really understand why you care about them so much since they would have looked down upon you anyways regardless if they were white, blue, black or yellow, they were simply muslim fundamentalists in particular the Almohavids. Color was never the case but religion was in the center and if you are not a muslim, then you would have been percieved as an enemy, a kaffir thus an object of subjugation nothing more or less about it. No "black" or "white" unity there, sorry.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Who are you directing this to?
Surely you aren't implying that studying the culture of populations in Morocco and elsewhere is Islamic? Islam may be predominant there as a religion, but culture is not religion. Singing, dancing, painting, writing poetry, making swords and other cultural activities did not start with Islam. Islam is a religion that over time was infused with the cultural traditions and practices of peoples who ADOPTED Islam. To study these cultures and people is not to be fascinated with Islam. Tell an Imazigh that their history and culture is Islamic and see what they say.
I am sure you are not saying that learning history makes someone fascinated with any particular group or religion. That is the second time I have heard you say that.
Does studying the crusades make someone fascinated with Christianity? Does studying World War II make one fascinated with Hitler? Whatever you are trying to say, you aren't making any sense.
To me, it is fascinating to see the fact that so-called Moorish culture is really an extension of old African, Asian, Indian, Persian, Greek and Roman culture. So it isn't a fascination with Muslims, it is a fascination with history and putting the pieces into place in order to have a proper perspective on how things happened, when, where and by who.
When I see Moors I see African and ancient Egyptian culture under the banner of Islam for the most part. Sorry, this isn't about loving Muslims, it is about understanding how Islam is a new religion built on roots that are much older and how African cultural traditions have impacted the cultures of East and West.
Posted by Yonis (Member # 7684) on :
quote:Doug M: I am sure you are not saying that learning history makes someone fascinated with any particular group or religion. That is the second time I have heard you say that.
Of course it is, you are fascinated by a group who wouldn't exist without Islam and professed their whole existance and movement to the religion of Islam, which unified and gave them the spiritual strength that kept them going on.
That's why i find it strange that non-muslims would try to claim such a group, since obviously they wouldn't care of anyone outside the islamic religion and considered him/her a kaffir, who's open for subjugation.
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
The Almoravids mainly comprised of the Sanhaja and other Western Sahara Tamazight groups, who adopted the religion. They of course had a clear ethnic identity long before Islam came along, just like many Jewish, Christianized and Islamicized Africans continue to have a clear ethnic identity, history with their local traditions intact. In west Africa for instance, Islam is infused with local traditions which have been referred to by some ill-informed outsiders as "pagan" traditions.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Yonis:
quote:Doug M: I am sure you are not saying that learning history makes someone fascinated with any particular group or religion. That is the second time I have heard you say that.
Of course it is, you are fascinated by a group who wouldn't exist without Islam and professed their whole existance and movement to the religion of Islam, which unified and gave them the spiritual strength that kept them going on.
That's why i find it strange that non-muslims would try to claim such a group, since obviously they wouldn't care of anyone outside the islamic religion and considered him/her a kaffir, who's open for subjugation.
The study of history is not an act of fascination. That is something you seem to have a problem with. When you study history and are willing to dig deep to get the facts and accurate data, that does not reflect a fascination with said group, but a fascination with THE FACTS. It only seems that the reason this represents fascination for you is because it goes against the historical dogma that has been taught in Western history saying that the West is purely a result of Greek and Roman heritage, with no input from anyone or anywhere else. This dogma therefore covers up the history of Islam in Europe and the part played by Africans in bringing advanced culture and civilization to Europe. So of course anyone who goes off the beaten path and tries to fill in the blanks of this period is someone who is really interested in this era.
Like I said however, I look at the Moorish period as being heavily influenced by Egypt and its customs, among others. The pastel colors, the colorful striped clothing, the castles, the Kasbahs even Islam itself all derive from Egyptian and African elements. Therefore, when I study the moors I am not just studying Islam I am studying African history as a continuous flow of history.
Colorful stripes (headdresses etc)
The colorful robes in stripes and pastels and the colorful leathers seen in Morocco were partly derived from the traditions of Egyptian fashion that can be seen in the Ramessid period of clorful leathers and stripes.
Dancing with canes and swords and using lutes and flutes are another tradition ancient along the Nile and in Africa.
Worshipping prostrate as a sign of humility and reverence for a god, burning incense and using fragrant oils and perfumes are also thousands of years old on the Nile.
The whitewashed homes and dwellings of the Muslim period all trace back partly to the traditions of whitewashed mud brick housing in Egypt and Sudan. The ships of the Muslim era are derived from the Feluccah and other boats along the Nile. The wearing of all white as sign of purity was in Africa thousands of years before a Islam. Purification in sacred waters prior to worship again another practice thousands of years old in Africa.
All of this is what I see when I study Moorish history and partly is what I am looking for, the connections between the Moorish period and previous cultures in Africa and elsewhere.
Posted by dan5678 (Member # 13968) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: Morenos applies to brunettes and ravenettes as well as Africans because, as previously submitted, Euro street knowledge has it that the Moros gave all the Latins (Iberians, Italians, Sicilians, even French) their darker hair eyes and skin.
What idiots. LOL!! They make absolutely no sense, say stupid things "i dont like morenos" (idiots) and base their views upon old wives tales. We know from depictions of southern Europeans (Iberians, Italians, Sicilians, even French) since ancient times that they had dark hair and eyes long before any contact with the Moors. Plus dark hair people and eyes are more common world wide then blond haired blue eyed people are.
Also check this out:
Ancient Germans weren't so Fair: She extracted DNA from ancient human bones as old as 3000 years old from three different locations in Germany and looked for these SNPs. Her findings suggest that red hair and fair skin was very uncommon among ancient Germans. Out of a total of 26 people analysed, Schmidt found only one person with red hair and fair skin, a man from the Middle Ages. All the other people had more UV-tolerant skin that tans easily. http://www.abc.net.au/science/news/stories/s1154815.htm
although some of her other comments leaves you scratching your head. Posted by dan5678 (Member # 13968) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Some modern videos from within the old Moorish heartland of southern Morocco:
Nice. Thanks for posting those, Doug. Great videos. Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
@Yazid:
Yes, I know. That's what happen when the groups who mix *are* of different phenotypes. But what's the relevance of this?
@lamin:
Yes, I have been to Salvador too lol. And I know about the way Brazilians classify themselves. But it has no bearing on Portuguese from Portugal terms.
@Mystery Solver:
Yes, usually Northern Europeans and Southern Europeans can be told apart, bar some more or less significant overlap.
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
@Mystery Solver:
Yes, usually Northern Europeans and Southern Europeans can be told apart, bar some more or less significant overlap.
And?
Posted by Arwa (Member # 11172) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M:
The whitewashed homes and dwellings of the Muslim period all trace back partly to the traditions of whitewashed mud brick housing in Egypt and Sudan. The ships of the Muslim era are derived from the Feluccah and other boats along the Nile. The wearing of all white as sign of purity was in Africa thousands of years before a Islam. Purification in sacred waters prior to worship again another practice thousands of years old in Africa.
Wow!
I had no idea! Thank you Doug M!!
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
quote:Originally posted by Mystery Solver:
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
@Mystery Solver:
Yes, usually Northern Europeans and Southern Europeans can be told apart, bar some more or less significant overlap.
And?
And that's it. What else?
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Let's come back to reality...Moors are Muslims from North and West Africa...it is well known that Muslims mixed among themselves and Muslim foreigners for centuries...Moors looked white, black, brown...they were a mixed bag of people...not completely black...not completely white...not completely brown...same thing in many parts of the Muslim world...Even in Africa...Muslims are the most mixed among native Africans: whether in Maghreb, West Africa, the Horn of Africa or Coastal East Africa...Moors=not Black...not Brown...not White...Moors=U.N.
Posted by dan5678 (Member # 13968) on :
quote:Originally posted by Mystery Solver:
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes:
Southern Europeans are darker than Northern ones. Now the difference, in winter time isn't that big, and plenty of Southern Europeans are in range of Northern Europeans when it comes to the skin. But the difference is there, which makes sense considering we adapted to sunnier climate.
Distinction in phenotypic [and genetic as well] trends between southern Europeans and their western Northern Europeans is as clear as that between day and night, no matter how "Pan-Europeanists" feel about it.
I doubt Southern European phenotype is mainly due to admixture with Moors or non Europeans...what about genetic admixture in the Horn of Africa, did it affect Ethiopian or Somali phenotype? What about slanted eyes among Swede and Northern Russian(Blond and Blue-eyed European) is it due to foreign admixture with Asian population as their genetic makeup might indicate? What about African American, by how much their phenotype has been affected by genetic admixture (they are lighter than Black Africans, is it due to the weather or genetic admixture)?
Posted by dan5678 (Member # 13968) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Some more nice berber fun videos.
These are Great!! Thanks again, Doug. Posted by dan5678 (Member # 13968) on :
quote:Originally posted by AFRICA I: I doubt Southern European phenotype is mainly due to admixture with Moors or non Europeans...what about genetic admixture in the Horn of Africa, did it affect Ethiopian or Somali phenotype? What about slanted eyes among Swede and Northern Russian(Blond and Blue-eyed European) is it due to foreign admixture with Asian population as their genetic makeup might indicate? What about African American, by how much their phenotype has been affected by genetic admixture (they are lighter than Black Africans, is due to the weather or genetic admixture)?
Yes, usually Northern Europeans and Southern Europeans can be told apart, bar some more or less significant overlap.
And? And that's it. What else?
As you've confirmed, you had no point in writing me back in the first place.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
If that's your interpretation... Is there an overlap between "night and day"?
Posted by Mystery Solver (Member # 9033) on :
quote:Originally posted by Miguel Antunes: If that's your interpretation... Is there an overlap between "night and day"?
You cease making sense with each reply it seems. What is your point in telling me about the so-called overlap? It is not like you're putting out some new revelation here on such. My response regarding differentiated genotypic and phenotypic trends as one ventures from southern Europe to northern west Europe were in direct response to something someone said, unlike your post to mine, including this one, which doesn't even make sense. I am however, open to seeing how you intend to clarify exactly what your point is.
Posted by Miguel Antunes (Member # 13983) on :
Ok, perhaps I misunderstood, it seemed you were saying that the Northern Europeans and Southern Europeans are like "night and day". Something which I don't exactly agree, but then, it's all relative really.
Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
Bump...let's get back on topic...lol. A year later.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
One thing I cannot reiterate enough. The chasm between ancient Moorish North Africa and Spain and today is as wide and deep as that between ancient Egypt and the present. The lands of the Moors were under such constant states of attack and counterattack that many people, cultural details and monuments have been lost. In Morocco, many of the now glorified ancient monuments of the Almoravides and Almohades, who made the greatest mark on Moroccan architecture, were in ruin at the turn of the century. It is in fact due to modern FOREIGN MONEY and foreigners that many of these monuments have been returned to some vestige of their former glory. o
Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: One thing I cannot reiterate enough. The chasm between ancient Moorish North Africa and Spain and today is as wide and deep as that between ancient Egypt and the present. The lands of the Moors were under such constant states of attack and counterattack that many people, cultural details and monuments have been lost. In Morocco, many of the now glorified ancient monuments of the Almoravides and Almohades, who made the greatest mark on Moroccan architecture, were in ruin at the turn of the century. It is in fact due to modern FOREIGN MONEY and foreigners that many of these monuments have been returned to some vestige of their former glory. o
I have this lost Intro to African History teacher who keeps repeating that the Berbers are White (as well as the Almoravids and Tuareg).
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
He is correct. Most of what we call the Moors in Spain consisted of the Arabian army that swept across north africa during the Muslim conquest.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Actually he is incorrect. Most scholars state unequivocally that the armies that swept the Iberian peninsula from Africa were AFRICANS. And a great number of those Berbers were black, especially the Almoravids and Almohads.
And the Islamic world during the time of Moorish Spain included blacks from across Northern Africa, into Arabia proper, India and South Asia. That was the Islamic world of the time and MOST of these people were NOT Arabs and a great many were indeed black.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
More Morrocans
Posted by SmiteYT (Member # 15889) on :
Regarding the original question, where the Moors Black as in Negro?
Of course not, only those imported by the Berbers in a servile role.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Question: What do you mean by "negro"??...
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The simple fact is that the Moors were a population of Africans from various parts of Northern and Western Africa and many of whom were definitely black. They were primarily speakers of Berber languages who ranged from the Sahara to Morocco and Mauritania. They also were the traders who operated over extensive PRE Islamic trade networks that crossed the Sahara from North to South and East to West. These Africans made up the majority of the forces in Spain, but there were also Muslims from other parts of the world there as well, like Syria, Arabia, Iraq, Persia and to a lesser degree India and South Asia. (In fact many of the decorative traditions in art and architecture of Moorish Spain actually have more in common with Indian and Chinese architecture than Persian architecture, which shows how extensive the trading and information networks were in that time. )
But no matter how many Africans there were in Spain, they still were the minority and over time many of them were mixed with European blood, just as many North Africans also have European blood. This was only furthered by the arrival of more Arab tribes during and after the time of Moorish Spain.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The simple fact is that the Moors were a population of Africans from various parts of Northern and Western Africa and many of whom were definitely black. They were primarily speakers of Berber languages who ranged from the Sahara to Morocco and Mauritania. They also were the traders who operated over extensive PRE Islamic trade networks that crossed the Sahara from North to South and East to West. These Africans made up the majority of the forces in Spain, but there were also Muslims from other parts of the world there as well, like Syria, Arabia, Iraq, Persia and to a lesser degree India and South Asia. (In fact many of the decorative traditions in art and architecture of Moorish Spain actually have more in common with Indian and Chinese architecture than Persian architecture, which shows how extensive the trading and information networks were in that time. )
But no matter how many Africans there were in Spain, they still were the minority and over time many of them were mixed with European blood, just as many North Africans also have European blood (and many Europeans have African blood). This was only furthered by the arrival of more Arab tribes during and after the time of Moorish Spain. The original Moors were indeed predominantly black Africans, but over time their numbers decreased due to the influx of various populations and interaction with Europeans. This included the Turks who introduced millions of European sex slaves into Northern Africa. And keep in mind that there is a big difference between the Morocco and North West Africa today, versus the Morocco and North West Africa of 1000 years ago, during the height of Moorish Spain. There was no Morocco 1000 years ago, as the country did not exist. What existed were various city states and kingdoms, many of whom had strong relations with kingdoms to the South, as it was from the South that Gold and other precious commodities flowed. In fact, it was the GOLD that was the basis of the wealth of Moorish Spain (and much of the Islamic world) and that gold came from black Africans. And it was this trade in gold, camels, spices, leather and other commodities that created MANY wealthy black kingdoms in the Sahara and other regions to the South of Morocco. But these links to the South were largely broken as a result of the consolidation of power by Arab elites in Morocco who turned against their Southern neighbors and sacked places like Timbuktu.
But yes, many North Africans are simply mixed African-Eurasians:
And many of the flamboyant "Moors" seen in European paintings are really more WEST AFRICAN than North African, as North African dress is not as flamboyant and the head scarves and attire gets MORE fancy as you go to the South into places like Mali, Niger and Nigeria. And the reason for this is that West Africa has had a very important cultural impact on the Islamic cultures of Africa, through trade and other contacts.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
I tend to see these Moors as allegorical figures who represent Blue Blood (1500-1789), which is Black Blood, after the 'Blue Men' as European Blacks in Europe were known (500-1500). I did not see the Black Madonna's included, but the Vierge Noir Du Puy, was destroyed during the French Revolution. The Black Madonna's have to be connected with the Rise of the Black Magi or Black King in European iconography, which signaled the start of Black Kingship (1500-1789).
Source: Titel: Iconographie de la Vierge Noire du Puy / [catalogue réalisé par F. Vialet et B. Gourtay] Auteur: F. Vialet; B. Gourtay Jaar: 1983 Uitgever: Le Puy : Baptistère Saint-Jean Annotatie: Tentoonstellingscatalogus Lit. opg Omvang: 275 p. : ill. ; 21 cm
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: And many of the flamboyant "Moors" seen in European paintings are really more WEST AFRICAN than North African, as North African dress is not as flamboyant and the head scarves and attire gets MORE fancy as you go to the South into places like Mali, Niger and Nigeria. And the reason for this is that West Africa has had a very important cultural impact on the Islamic cultures of Africa, through trade and other contacts.
Edmund, you are mixing up your facts and making up false conclusions. Yes, concepts of European nobility and aristocracy were heavily influenced by Africans and others during the middle ages. This is beyond doubt. However, the images of the "Moors" you are referring to have more to do with the Europeans portraying the "exotic" black West Africans they encountered as they became more involved in West Africa through slavery, trade and later colonialism. But these are not Moors in the sense of Muslim Africans in Spain, but Africans labelled as Moors because the term was a reference to black skin. Since West Africans are the blackest people close to Europe, it would only make sense for Moors to be thus depicted as West African types. This goes along with the fact that by the 1800s many of the original Moors had long been displaced from their original positions in Morocco and Mauretania and those who remained were mainly mixed mulattoes. Therefore, to find a true Moor (black person), one would have to go further South, as in West Africa.
"Exotic" flamboyant Nigerians, inspiration behind the European "Moorish" portaits being posted.
And note they do not have the stereotypical "negroid" features that you claim they do:
(in fact, many of these Africans remind me more of old kingdom portraits then anything else.)
Note the batik glyphs worn in this photo, which are ancient West African symbols found all over North Africa, going back to ancient kingdoms of Northern Africa, including Tunisia, Morocco, Libya and Algeria: Nike Davies: foremost batik artist of West Africa http://www.nikeart.com/
The symbols are called adinkra and the one I am referring to is called "Kramo bone amma yeannhu kramo pa" and means "We cannot separate the good from the bad because of pretence and hypocrisy. " or "The bad moslem makes it difficult for the good one to be noticed) Symbol of a WARNING AGAINST DECEPTION and HYPOCRACY. "
And note they do not have the stereotypical "negroid" features that you claim they do: [/QB]
SAY WHAT? You have lost me here, Honey. Where did I made this statement in regard to these pictures you are showing me now? But please be clever, now you have found out about Americans researching Black presidents as Abe Lincoln and Melungeons and what not. I'm doing the same in Europe where these people originated before they became Americans. I'm following the iconographic trail and call them 'a fixed mulatto race.' Also because I have noticed that these researchers alsways try to underplay the 'Blackness,' not speaking of the dark skin, always pointing out that their ancestors are 'Nubian,'so perhaps Black but 'good' Black. Many of these images presented on Youtube are not chronological. It's a start though! To the intermarrying Blue Blooded Nobility it were MOORS and their own ancestors as well; CLASSICAL AFRICANS. Very few East Africans in sight in European art (1300-1789).
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The only one claiming African ancestry for Abraham Lincoln and African features of European white royalty is YOU Edmond.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: The only one claiming African ancestry for Abraham Lincoln and African features of European white royalty is YOU Edmond.
These things usually start with one person, before you have lightbulps all over the world.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Lets stay away from the absurd and stick with the facts. Many of the first slaves in America were enslaved Moors from Spain and Portugal.
quote: [170] In the sixteenth century, Negro, Moorish, and Morisco slaves made up a sizable and conspicuous part of the population of Seville. Throughout the century slaves abounded among the crowds that filled the streets of this teeming metropolis. They could be found in all the focal points of the city -- along the wharves, in the Arenal, and in the public squares and market places. To many contemporaries, the presence of so many slaves did much to create the cosmopolitan atmosphere for which the city was well known. Some observers even claimed that there were almost as many Negro and Moorish slaves as free citizens. Others compared the city to a giant chessboard containing an equal number of white and black chessmen. (1)
[171] People usually referred to the Moorish and Morisco slaves as esclavos blancos. The Moors were most often North African prisoners of war. The conflict in the Mediterranean between Spain and the Turks and their allies, the Barbary pirates, brought a steady stream of North African slaves into Seville during the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries. In 1508, for example, the Spaniards took eight thousand prisoners at Oran, and in 1535 Charles V's campaign against Tunis netted eighteen thousand captives. Most of the Moriscos came from Granada. The wars against Granada at the end of the fifteenth century resulted in the seizure of many prisoners who were eventually enslaved. In addition, an undetermined number of Moriscos became slaves during the course of the sixteenth century, mainly after the uprisings of 1500 and1568-1570. (2)
Some information about Morisco slaves in Seville appears in the census of 1580. In that year there were 148 such slaves in the five parishes of San Pedro, San Ildefonso, San Gil, San Andrés, and San Marcos. The largest contingent was in San Andrés (47), followed by San Ildefonso (43); the smallest number were in San Gil which, as has been noted, contained a large free Morisco population. In general, female slaves outnumbered males, and there were few captive children. The overwhelming majority of slaves -- male and female -- were between twenty and forty years of age. There were almost none over the age of sixty and a very small number of youths and older children, clearly a reflection of the low birth rate and limited life span among slaves. The frequent practice of manumission also helped [172] to reduce the numbers of slaves in the older group (forty to sixty years) and among the children. Most Morisco slaves in Seville were women between the ages of twenty and forty years.(3)
While contemporary writers often exaggerated the size of the unfree population of Seville, there is no doubt that in the sixteenth century Seville harbored the largest slave community in Spain. We can never know their exact numbers throughout the century, but we do have fairly satisfactory statistics from a census taken by church officials in 1565. In that year Seville had 6,327 slaves out of a total population of 85,538 people, that is, one slave for every fourteen inhabitants. (4) Although this account does not tell what proportion of these slaves were Negroes, Moors, or Moriscos, other sources indicate that Negroes outnumbered the other two groups, especially in the second half of the century. (5) The majority of slaves in Seville, therefore, would appear to have been Negroes.
Sixteenth-century Sevillians found nothing new or unusual about the existence of numerous slaves in their city. Negro slavery, especially, had been a part of its life for many centuries. We do not know when the first Africans were introduced into Seville after its reconquest from the Moslems in 1248, but the chroniclers state that by the end [173] of the fourteenth century many Negro slaves had been brought there by merchants engaged in the trans-Saharian trade. During this period the municipal authorities tried to ease the rigors of servile life by allowing the Negroes certain privileges, such as the right to gather together on feast days and perform their own dances and songs. Eventually it became customary for one of them to be named by city officials as mayoral (steward) over the rest, with authority to protect them against their masters, defend them before the courts of law, and settle their quarrels. (6) In a similar manner the church, although primarily interested in conversion, also tried to ameliorate the physical conditions of slavery. During the last years of the fourteenth century the church expressed its charitable intentions by establishing the Hospital of Our Lady of the Angels in the parish of San Bernardo to serve the Negro population. A short time later the church made a further gesture toward incorporating Negroes into the spiritual fold by creating a Negro religious confraternity to run this hospital. In subsequent years many wealthy Sevillians helped to maintain Our Lady of the Angels; a notable donor was the Duke of Medina Sidonia, who at his death in 1463 left 1,000 maravedís for the poor of this institution. (7)
The duke's donation to the Hospital of Our Lady of [174] the Angels came at a time when Seville had already begun to feel the effects of the opening of West Africa by the Portuguese. Greater numbers of Negro slaves were entering the river port, as Andalusian shipowners, including members of the highest nobility, competed with the Portuguese in organizing raiding expeditions on the West African coast. It was not until 1479 that the Spaniards finally recognized the Portuguese monopoly, and even then they did so reluctantly. Throughout the second half of the fifteenth century, Negroes were brought directly into the ports of southern Spain by Spanish shippers. Others were transported overland from Lisbon by Spanish and Portuguese merchants, a practice which accounts for the presence of Negro slaves in such frontier towns as Huelva, Badajoz, and Jerez de los Caballeros. By the reign of Ferdinand and Isabella, the Negro population of Seville had grown so large that the Catholic kings decided to place them under greater royal supervision and control. In 1475 Juan de Valladolid, a royal servant, who was known popularly as the "Negro count," was appointed mayoral of the Seville Negro community. (8)
After the discovery of the New World the constant demand for a source of cheap labor to work the mines and plantations of America increased the flow of Negroes into Seville during the sixteenth century. The city soon became one of the most important slave centers in Western Europe, second only to Lisbon. In fact the first Negro [175] slaves introduced into the New World came from Seville, and some of them had been born in that city. During the first decades of the sixteenth century, the Spanish monarchs, anxious to keep the colonies free from religious taint, insisted that the slaves sent to America be Christians -- that they should have been born in Spain or have resided there long enough to be baptized. In 1510, for example, King Ferdinand gave permission to ship as many as two hundred slaves from Seville for sale to the settlers of Hispaniola or for work on the royal properties there. (9) Eventually slaves were shipped directly from Africa to America, though they continued to come to Seville as well. (10) Throughout the century, merchants, sea captains, and others brought slaves to the Sevillian market, located in the heart of the business district. Here slaves were bought and sold amidst the noise and bustle of street vendors hawking their wares and future conquistadors recruiting men for their New World expeditions. Apparently they were not exhibited and sold at the block as was the custom elsewhere. Instead a group of slaves and their owner would go about the streets accompanied by an auctioneer who called out to onlookers offering them for sale. According to Cervantes [176] in El trato de Argel, Christian slaves were sold in this same manner in Morocco. (11) ... Among the Negroes who assembled in the Plaza de Santa María la Blanca were many freedmen and women. Although most Sevillian Negroes were slaves, the city also contained a significant free Negro population. Enfranchisement was not a step toward economic and social betterment, however, for Negroes and mulattoes, whether slaves or freedmen, remained on the lowest rungs of the social ladder. Ex-slaves continued to work in unskilled and menial jobs and to reside in the same neighborhoods as before their emancipation. A combination of discrimination and unfavorable economic conditions prevented freedmen from rising in society. The artisans feared Negro competition and jealously excluded them from the few skilled positions which the inadequate Sevillian industry afforded. Even unskilled jobs were at a premium in Seville because of the steady flow of landless peasants from the countryside into the town. Chronic unemployment and severe food shortages were the realities of life for the majority of Sevillians throughout the sixteenth century. (33)
Competition for jobs strained relations between freedmen and the white Sevilhian laborers. The whites showed [188] their contempt for Negroes with the customary sidewalk jeer (estornudo). (34) On the individual level, however, Negroes and whites mixed freely, and contacts were friendly. Miscegenation and common-law unions were frequent. Many Sevillians, including members of the clergy, maintained illicit relations with female household slaves and in some instances recognized their illegitimate children. Among the servant class miscegenation was common practice, and mixed marriages were not unknown.(35)
Although Negro freedmen and slaves lived on the fringe of Sevillian life socially and economically, they enjoyed full membership in the church. True religious conversion among newly baptized Negroes was unusual, but by the second generation many had become sincere and pious Christians. The very willingness of Negroes to become Christians and to remain faithful to their new religion facilitated their popular acceptance. In addition, their incorporation into the social and ritual activities of the church accelerated the process of their Hispanization. Through their parish churches and their confraternities slaves and freedmen took part in all the city-wide religious celebrations of the period. The Negro and mulatto brotherhoods marched in full regalia in the many religious processions, including those of Holy Week. On one such occasion, the dress and the insignias of the Negro brotherhood were [189] so elaborate and costly as to draw censure from the clergy. In another instance, according to the chronicler Ortiz de Zúñiga, a member of the Negro confraternity sold himself as a slave in order to cover the high cost of his group's participation in a religious festival. Negro performers also took part in the autos connected with the festival of Corpus Christi. In 1590 the city government paid eight ducats to Leonor Rija, a mulatto, to appear on a float in the Corpus Christi celebration and to sing, dance, and play the guitar, together with four other mulatto women and two men. (36)
If it was difficult for freedmen to improve their status in Seville, they might seize the opportunity to emigrate to the New World. The registers of the Casa de Contratación indicate that many Negro freedmen crossed the ocean to America during the sixteenth century. (37) Most of these emigrants were single men and women, but we can also find instances of women with young children and of family groups. A good example was the Bonilla family -- husband, wife, and two children -- who signed up at the Casa de Contratación in 1555. Many freedmen accompanied their former masters to the New World as servants. In 1538, for instance, the freedman Bernardo declared that he was traveling to Florida as a valet of his ex-master Captain Pedro Calderón. A year later another freedman by the name of Domingo went to Peru with his former owner, the adventurer [190] Lope de Aguirre, whose later exploits in the Amazon region won him the unfortunate epithet of "the tyrant." Many newly freed women came to America as ladies' maids or as members of the large and varied entourages that customarily accompanied wealthy families emigrating to the colonies. Such was the position of Quiteria Gómez, a former slave, who with three other servants -- one white male and two white females -- traveled with the widow Francisca de Carrera and her seven children to Peru during 1555. Doña Francisca's two sisters made up the rest of the party-, fourteen persons in all.
Now of course, this article sort of buries the fact that the first slaves in America were Moors, but it is there plain as day and it is clear that these Moors were blacks. And, if any place had a high amount of mixed ancestry among the noble classes, it was Spain and Portugal, especially in the 15th and 16th centuries, as a result of the Moorish occupation. The first piece in bold is a reference to this. The second bold section is a reference to the black confraternities of Spain who were partly the basis for the robes of the KKK in America.
This goes to show that there was a LOT of black blood intermingled among the Spanish and much of this goes back PRIOR to the 15th century, including the Moors and before that the Carthagenians and even before that other African groups.
Posted by Lord Sauron (Member # 6729) on :
quote:Originally posted by Egmond Codfried:
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: The only one claiming African ancestry for Abraham Lincoln and African features of European white royalty is YOU Edmond.
These things usually start with one person, before you have lightbulps all over the world.
DougM that can't be. Because according to the slant eyed shitty filopeeeno everyone in America came from "central" Africa. There were no enslaved Moroccans, Algerians or other North Africans in America.
What you wrote is bound to make `_` aka Djehuti the dirty filopeeeno quite upset.
I won't comment on the rest of what she-male Jenkins (aka Doug) wrote because I don't have the time to set it straight.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
As I said earlier, Moorish Spain was but the western end of the Islamic world that contained many black populations from West Africa to the Sahara to the Levant, Arabia, Persia into Afghanistan, India and South Asia. It is impossible to pretend that all these people were Arabs, when in fact most were NOT Arabs.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
And while on the subject of influence, let me say that Mr. Kehinde Wiley, the part Nigerian, has been very influential himself on contemporary art and fashion:
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: The only one claiming African ancestry for Abraham Lincoln and African features of European white royalty is YOU Edmond.
Dear, I'm not the only nor the first one who claims that some American's which we have considered White's, were actually of colour. The thread about Abe Lincoln offers many names of people who researched and wrote books about these things. If you only would look at the sources given. It's just that I brought this to your attention. And you are posting a lot of beautifull stuff, thank you for that.
Posted by Obama Boy (Member # 11484) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: And while on the subject of influence, let me say that Mr. Kehinde Wiley, the part Nigerian, has been very influential himself on contemporary art and fashion:
Yorubas are the best for ever and ever!
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
quote: Edmund, you are mixing up your facts and making up false conclusions. Yes, concepts of European nobility and aristocracy were heavily influenced by Africans and others during the middle ages. This is beyond doubt. However, the images of the "Moors" you are referring to have more to do with the Europeans portraying the "exotic" black West Africans they encountered as they became more involved in West Africa through slavery, trade and later colonialism. But these are not Moors in the sense of Muslim Africans in Spain, but Africans labelled as Moors because the term was a reference to black skin. Since West Africans are the blackest people close to Europe, it would only make sense for Moors to be thus depicted as West African types. This goes along with the fact that by the 1800s many of the original Moors had long been displaced from their original positions in Morocco and Mauretania and those who remained were mainly mixed mulattoes. Therefore, to find a true Moor (black person), one would have to go further South, as in West Africa.
"Exotic" flamboyant Nigerians, inspiration behind the European "Moorish" portaits being posted.
And note they do not have the stereotypical "negroid" features that you claim they do:
It's not clear how you came to these conclusions. Did you researched sources or are you repeating conclusion of other people? Or are you offering hypotheses, which is not a crime. I have read these explanations written in important looking books, and rejected them because they do not sit well with what I encounter. Personally those Spanish Moors do not figure in my research, because I find little trace of them in West Europe. Studies which deny Europe being populated by Blacks as well as White's are out to show that Black's did not contribute to civilization. But Van Sertima writes about Egyptian mining colonies in Spain, from classical times, before the Muslims arrived. The Grimaldi Human, even older Africans in Europe. So when they find Blacks building the pyramids, they come up with a ploy which says that East Africans are in fact Caucasians, so they are White's. Suddenly between 1300-1400, way before the slavery era which started in 1444, Europeans in the south of Germany started using Black Herald’s, Black Page’s and Black Kings in religious and secular imagery, and that needs to be explained. Paul Kaplan did great research, but he mentions that The De Medici family was White, so I know he is a eurocentric and prevents himself for finding the truth. Charles IV of Luxembourg must have been a Black man and started to put a Black King in the middle. After 1500 all the European Kings were of colour, citing a pitch black, Classical Moor as their ancestor and source of Blue Blood. My research starts with personal descriptions, mainly 18th century which describes nobles and kings as black and brown people. Still they are shown as White’s. Why? That’s the basis of my research.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
As for the idea of African influence on the concepts and imagery surrounding the Madonnas and saints of Europe, there is no question that Africa and elsewhere has had a profound impact:
Just as they also had a profound impact on many other aspects of European royalty and custom, including horse culture, which is DIRECTLY influenced by the cultures of Africa and Asia:
(Moorish Saddle the progenitor of American western cowboy saddles and traditions)
And again, going back to the inner African connections of the ancient Moors, Marrakesch, which was FOUNDED by African Almoravids from the South, is STILL the largest souk in Africa. This is a testament to the ancient trade caravans and exchanges of culture and know how from South to North and vice versa.
And Marrakesch is just one of the surviving examples of an ancient African market and trading center based around Saharan caravans and founded by Africans. Others, like Sijilmasa, have not survived. And not only is this city testament to the ancient ties to inner Africa in terms of culture, but it also is reflected in the name itself, which is believed by some to be a reflection of the blackness of the inhabitants. This could be looked at in two ways. One is by the root "mar" or "maure" meaning black and the other is in the term Kesh or Kech which some feel is derived from Kush (as in son of Ham). Either way, this city is from where the name of the country Morocco derives.
quote: The origins of the city's name have been argued over for centuries. The most current belief is that the name is of Berber derivation referring to "The Sons of Kutch" or "Land of the Sons of Kutch" which may well relate to the Biblical figure Kutch, son of Sham who lived in Upper Egypt, Ethiopia and southern Arabia.
Others believe Marrakech is derived from the Masmooda dialect meaning "Do not linger", a warning to travellers that the area prior to the establishment of the city was notorious for highwaymen.
Regardless of the origins of the word, Marrakech gave its name to the whole country of Morocco in all its many foreign versions -- Morocco, Maroc, Morokko, Marruecos, etc. All these names come from the Latin "Morroch" which derives from the medieval name for Marrakech.
The Almoravides made Marrakech the capital of an empire that covered most of the Magreb (North West Africa) and extended well into Europe. With the Almoravide conquest of Southern Spain, Marrakech was invested with the exquisite cosmopolitan culture of Andalucia. This cross-fertilization is rare indeed for a remote desert enclave.
Under the Almoravides Marrakech became a bastion of Islamic civilization and an intellectual centre where the most famous scholars and philosophers of the age converged. The power of the Almoravides also made Marrakech into a great commercial centre and wealth flowed into the city, further transforming its architecture.
Lavish buildings were constructed and splendid gardens were designed. The ancient ramparts and gates of the city are monuments to the city's medieval pre-eminence.
And it is in these ancient pathways that ancient African traditions in textiles, dyeing and woodworking fused with traditions from other parts of the world and produced Moorish culture.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Egmond Codfried:
quote: Edmund, you are mixing up your facts and making up false conclusions. Yes, concepts of European nobility and aristocracy were heavily influenced by Africans and others during the middle ages. This is beyond doubt. However, the images of the "Moors" you are referring to have more to do with the Europeans portraying the "exotic" black West Africans they encountered as they became more involved in West Africa through slavery, trade and later colonialism. But these are not Moors in the sense of Muslim Africans in Spain, but Africans labelled as Moors because the term was a reference to black skin. Since West Africans are the blackest people close to Europe, it would only make sense for Moors to be thus depicted as West African types. This goes along with the fact that by the 1800s many of the original Moors had long been displaced from their original positions in Morocco and Mauretania and those who remained were mainly mixed mulattoes. Therefore, to find a true Moor (black person), one would have to go further South, as in West Africa.
"Exotic" flamboyant Nigerians, inspiration behind the European "Moorish" portaits being posted.
And note they do not have the stereotypical "negroid" features that you claim they do:
It's not clear how you came to these conclusions. Did you researched sources or are you repeating conclusion of other people? Or are you offering hypotheses, which is not a crime. I have read these explanations written in important looking books, and rejected them because they do not sit well with what I encounter. Personally those Spanish Moors do not figure in my research, because I find little trace of them in West Europe. Studies which deny Europe being populated by Blacks as well as White's are out to show that Black's did not contribute to civilization. But Van Sertima writes about Egyptian mining colonies in Spain, from classical times, before the Muslims arrived. The Grimaldi Human, even older Africans in Europe. So when they find Blacks building the pyramids, they come up with a ploy which says that East Africans are in fact Caucasians, so they are White's. Suddenly between 1300-1400, way before the slavery era which started in 1444, Europeans in the south of Germany started using Black Herald’s, Black Page’s and Black Kings in religious and secular imagery, and that needs to be explained. Paul Kaplan did great research, but he mentions that The De Medici family was White, so I know he is a eurocentric and prevents himself for finding the truth. Charles IV of Luxembourg must have been a Black man and started to put a Black King in the middle. After 1500 all the European Kings were of colour, citing a pitch black, Classical Moor as their ancestor and source of Blue Blood. My research starts with personal descriptions, mainly 18th century which describes nobles and kings as black and brown people. Still they are shown as White’s. Why? That’s the basis of my research.
The simple fact is that many aspects of European royal traditions were DIRECTLY influenced by blacks from Africa, particularly those from Spain. This is because traditions of royalty are THOUSANDS of years old in Africa, not to mention India and Asia. THAT is where Europe got its influences and THAT is why you see more Africans in European art of the 13th and 14th centuries. And this increased due to the European exploration and exploitation of inner Africa.
How on earth can you talk about African influence on European culture and NOT talk about the ancient African presence in Southern Europe, which included the Moors? THAT is nonsense in my opinion.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: As for the idea of African influence on the concepts and imagery surrounding the Madonnas and saints of Europe, there is no question that Africa and elsewhere has had a profound impact: Just as they also had a profound impact on many other aspects of European royalty and custom, including horse culture, which is DIRECTLY influenced by the cultures of Africa and Asia:
We are in agreement. But I’m not settling for general statements, I’m searching for facts. Some Europeans give condescending answers like ‘those White’s living then were less racist’ and would ‘permit’ Blacks in high places. Still believing that the Kings were White, as a Black European King is something totally impossible to them. Some accuse me that I steal White authors, because Blacks have no writers. In regard to baroness Isabelle de Charrière who had a Black looking grandmother and wrote about herself as being coloured: ‘She does not have the white hands.’ Many Black themes in her work, too. You find sources if you study the Notes and the Bibliography offered by other studies. You find how they neglect to show or mention certain things, which could throw a new light on the outcome. In Europe today people are actively discouraged to discover things, to do their own research. Publisher caution would-be writers that they are not interested in their own research. As I come from Surinam I know how our own writers and researchers were always ridiculed by the coloniser. Only permitting a few Surinam writers, who voice the colonial viewpoint. Even today a Surinam scholar had to finish his research about how much money was made from the Surinam slaves and by whom, in Africa. In Holland they did not accept his thesis, because they tell the people that this information is not available anymore. And that everybody was exploited, so nobody deserves restitution. All lies!
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Edmund, it is not shocking or amazing that some European royal families had black blood. That is a known fact. This is not really a secret either. Yes, some of these mixed bloods are distorted in European art, but most are not, as even Russia had black generals and royalty. But to take that and say that MOST European royalty in the Middle Ages or in Western Europe was black or had black blood is RIDICULOUS and NOT supported by the facts.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Edmund, it is not shocking or amazing that some European royal families had black blood. That is a known fact. This is not really a secret either. Yes, some of these mixed bloods are distorted in European art, but most are not, as even Russia had black generals and royalty. But to take that and say that MOST European royalty in the Middle Ages or in Western Europe was black or had black blood is RIDICULOUS and NOT supported by the facts.
Madame de Staël. Writer. Politician. Germaine baroness de Staël-Holstein. Daughter of De Necker, Minister of Finance of Louis XVI
Dear,
I can tell that you have no clue what scientific research is all about. For example: Are you familiar with any particular kind of research after say (fictional); breeding practises of a largely unknown, microscopic sand hopper, living in some deserted landscape. Well, there is somebody out there researching it, writing a paper and graduating, earning a title.
So the criteria is not, oh this is interesting to me so I consider this a worthy subject. It does not work like this. People choose a subject they like and get busy with it. Sometimes starting from scratch. Research is not the same as reading other peoples books, and accepting these as facts for all times. Because they are in books.
What I have found are descriptions of black and pitch black elite person, and NO EXPLANATION where they came from. Anybody with a little curiosity will ask where they came from and how they entered the elite. I found they themselves were the elite. Is not like some White guy took pity and married some Black slave girl. They were Black, Nobility started with Blacks in Europe.
Like someone else on this forum, this deaf and speech impaired homophobic gay guy, you seem to regard yourself as the fountain of all knowledge. You and only you know what is true and worthy.
Well, that strike's me as RIDICULOUS. The more one researches the more one realises how little we know.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Moors were, for the most part, Arabs involved in the Muslim conquest of North Africa. This nis really a closed issue and has been for years. Obviously there may have been some black Africans involved but not many.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Question: What do you mean by "negro"??...
I'm shocked at this fake description! He is a Surinam from Amsterdam, for godsakes!
"Profile for Djehuti Rate Member 5: Highest Rating 4 3 2 1: Lowest Rating Member Status: Member Member Number: 6698 Registered: 17 February, 2005 Posts: 12146 Member Rated: (Votes: 44) Location: Atlanta, Georgia, USA Occupation: student Interests: sports, video games, anything fun ICQ ID: 05481"
Then we get Doug M who sounds just like Djehuti. This is what I would call 'sick and twisted.'
Profile for Doug M Rate Member 5: Highest Rating 4 3 2 1: Lowest Rating Member Status: Member Member Number: 7650 Registered: 16 May, 2005 Posts: 3562 Member Rated: (Votes: 10)
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Moors were, for the most part, Arabs involved in the Muslim conquest of North Africa. This nis really a closed issue and has been for years. Obviously there may have been some black Africans involved but not many.
Actually the Moors were NOT Arabs for the most part, otherwise they would have simply been called Arabs. Arabs were and have ALWAYS been a minority in the Islamic world and Arabs are MOST DEFINITELY the minority in Islamic Africa today. Africa is a significant part of the Islamic world.
And these images of the percentages of Muslim populations by country reflect the fact that those you claim as "Arab" are really simply mixed Asian and Africans to begin with, as Islam straddles Africa and Asia, with a large number of Muslims historically coming from Central Asia. And as shown earlier, the first arabians were Africans to begin with.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, You can believe that if you wish but it is never going to be mainstream scholarship. keep in mind that Europeans did not have the data we have today. Any Muslim invader would have been a Moor to them and , in fact, most of them were from Arabia. You can trace the campaign all across north Africa.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The fact is that most of the armies in Spain were Africans. No scholar disputes this. Therefore, you need to check your facts. And no scholar claims that most Moors in Spain were Arabs. Please check your sources and show me a modern scholar who claims that most invaders of Spain were Arabs. I doubt you will find any. But I will wait patiently. And, while you are at it, look up what an Arab is, because many of them actually are mixed with Africans to begin with. Most Arabs that we see in the imagery of the West are really Turks, who were the major power behind Islam during most of the Middle Ages right up until WWI.
Posted by JMT (Member # 12050) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug, You can believe that if you wish but it is never going to be mainstream scholarship. keep in mind that Europeans did not have the data we have today. Any Muslim invader would have been a Moor to them and , in fact, most of them were from Arabia. You can trace the campaign all across north Africa.
You failed to present one shred of evidence to back up your bogus claims when asked to do so. You're an insecure troll looking for attention. Your idea of "mainstream" scholarship is the eurocentric viewpoint which is laced with nothing but distortions and lies. Bug off!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Every history book known to man backs up my point. Educate yourself on the Arabian conquest of north africa istead of putting out racist bigoted propaganda.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Most of the books I have read going back to grade school says that they were predominantly Africans who invaded Spain. Care to tell me what books you are referring to?
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
This I expect to be another nick of our own Mutant-in-Residence Djehuti alias Doug M alias Euroskeptic alias JMT. So by creating many nicks you win an argument, and by browbeating another human being.
quote:Originally posted by JMT:
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug, You can believe that if you wish but it is never going to be mainstream scholarship. keep in mind that Europeans did not have the data we have today. Any Muslim invader would have been a Moor to them and , in fact, most of them were from Arabia. You can trace the campaign all across north Africa.
You failed to present one shred of evidence to back up your bogus claims when asked to do so. You're an insecure troll looking for attention. Your idea of "mainstream" scholarship is the eurocentric viewpoint which is laced with nothing but distortions and lies. Bug off!
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
More examples of the African traditions that were part of the Moorish legacy:
quote:TheAmericanPatriot wrote: Every history book known to man backs up my point. Educate yourself on the Arabian conquest of north africa istead of putting out racist bigoted propaganda.
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Most of the books I have read going back to grade school says that they were predominantly Africans who invaded Spain. Care to tell me what books you are referring to?
Indeed, and it was the same for all of my history books on the subject and I went to a predominantly white school (not that it mattered).
Tell us Hore, why all the history texts agree that the invasion of Iberia consisted primarily of Africans??
Posted by argyle104 (Member # 14634) on :
Djehuti wrote:
---------------------------- Tell us Hore, why all the history texts agree that the invasion of Iberia consisted primarily of Africans?? ----------------------------
Interesting waffle, yet again. Considering how a simple search of your posting history shows you saying the opposite. You are on record as saying that the invasion "consisted of Arabs and Berbers with a few blacks from sub-saharan West Africa".
Folks note in his statement how he divides up Africans between "Arabs", "Berbers", and "black sub-saharan west Africans". Again this is something from discredited people like Coon and Howell that you will see the above demented mentality and terminology.
Djehuti, what does an arab look like? What does a berber look like? Why do you use racial pseudoscience terms like "black sub-saharan west Africans"? What do they look like?
Again people this boy is on the lower end of the keyboard scholar pack which is why he waffles and contradicts himself so much. He has to agree with what his more respected pack members say. Even though his past statements disagree with what his pack members say.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
Mary learn't at her white school that Will Smith doesn't look like a Kushite and Greek clasical philosophy was "home grown". LOL
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Black african populations would have been unable at the time to sustain such a major operation on their own. The leadership and organization of the North African invasion was arabian.
akobem, Mary's school was correct. The idea of African influence in Greece is radical nonsense and is not being taught by any Classical scholar.
Posted by argyle104 (Member # 14634) on :
Notice how the white racist TheAmericanPatriot not only agrees but comes to the defense of his fellow racist Djehuti.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Gaygoyle99<-- wrote: Interesting waffle, yet again. Considering how a simple search of your posting history shows you saying the opposite. You are on record as saying that the invasion "consisted of Arabs and Berbers with a few blacks from sub-saharan West Africa".
Where did I say that?? Please produce an acutal quote instead of your usual lies.
quote:Folks note in his statement how he divides up Africans between "Arabs", "Berbers", and "black sub-saharan west Africans". Again this is something from discredited people like Coon and Howell that you will see the above demented mentality and terminology.
Again, what statement was this? Produce the actual quote instead of making crap up. Arabs aren't African at all Berber is a linguistic group in which most speakers are 'black'. I never subscribe to the false Sub-Saran (black)/North (non-black) divide of Africa you lying buffoon!
quote:Djehuti, what does an arab look like? What does a berber look like? Why do you use racial pseudoscience terms like "black sub-saharan west Africans"? What do they look like?
You tell me. Since 'Arabs' vary in looks as they are not a single ethnicity and the first Arabs of southern Arabia, the Qahtani were black, moron.
quote:Again people this boy is on the lower end of the keyboard scholar pack which is why he waffles and contradicts himself so much. He has to agree with what his more respected pack members say. Even though his past statements disagree with what his pack members say.
I never contradict myself because I know what I'm talking about, and don't even bother appealing to the intelligent people of this forum who know that you are a lying Euro-nut who projects his racist guilt on to me.
quote:Wako-Ako wrote: Mary learn't at her white school that Will Smith doesn't look like a Kushite and Greek clasical philosophy was "home grown". LOL
LOL @ Eva joining in her boyfriend's fun. Sorry but Will Smith a modern African American is not an ancient Nile Valley African, and yes Classical philosophy of Greece was native that doesn't mean that it had no influence or rather roots from elsewhere as the Greeks specifically stated so.
Posted by argyle104 (Member # 14634) on :
akoben wrote:
------------------------------ Mary learn't at her white school that Will Smith doesn't look like a Kushite ------------------------------
The freak Djehuti also believes that "west" African do not vary in skin color and if they do it must be from Europeans. All one needs to do is view his posts from the beginning of the year if they want verification.
He has also stated that he does not believe that Algeria, Morocco, Mauritania, Mali, Tunisia, and Niger are "west" Africans.
Again all one has to do is search out his past posts to observe his sickening need to parce Africa up into the racial categories established by eurocentrist in order to claim ancient Egypt.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
So save your lies for someone stupid enough to believe them-- like your boyfriends.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Black african populations would have been unable at the time to sustain such a major operation on their own. The leadership and organization of the North African invasion was arabian.
But according to your absurd racist logic, Black Africans could not sustain such a major operation because... they were black Africans, and black Africans are an inferior people with low IQs right??
quote:akobem, Mary's school was correct. The idea of African influence in Greece is radical nonsense and is not being taught by any Classical scholar.
Don't even try to plea with wako-ako because not only is he against Lefkowitz, but he suffers from the same mental condition of bigottry as you only the object of his denigration are Jews and not blacks. Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Black african populations would have been unable at the time to sustain such a major operation on their own. The leadership and organization of the North African invasion was arabian.
akobem, Mary's school was correct. The idea of African influence in Greece is radical nonsense and is not being taught by any Classical scholar.
Cute, care to provide evidence of "Black Africans" unable to sustain a major operation on their own. This is academia and in academia we need your sources...other than your bogus White American Superiority B.S.... The Ancient Egyptians, Kushites, Abyssinians, Ghana...led successful military expeditions exacting tribute from non Africans. The Moors were just one of the many powerful African Armies of the day.
First off the Moorish occupation was led by a Berber General not an Arab...and Al-Andalus declared separation from Arabia...
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
Wouldn't it be nice if them Moors could ride once more and deliver us from this economical crisis we have today.
Posted by ArabianArab (Member # 15626) on :
The creme de la creme of Moorish sociesty were of the ARAB race. The servants, serf, slaves and foot soldiers were mostly berbers with little sub saharans.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
What is an ARAB? A TRUE Arabian is someone who is part African to begin with. Some could be confused with Ethiopians. So what on earth are you talking about? In fact, there was (and still is) an African presence in the Levant all the way into Syria and in Iran. So some of these people were DARK to begin with. The early rulers of Andalus were a mixture of Syrians, Saracens (Baghdad) and Arabians along with Africans. Arabs were the MINORITY in the Islamic world at the time and still are. The only thing that they had to maintain power was the tradition of Arab ancestry being used to determine descent from Mohommed. Many people only having the slightest amount of Arab blood but claim to be Arab. It is exactly that form of Arab supremacy that caused so many wars and divisions among Muslims to begin with and ultimately is the reason why Moorish Spain was defeated by the Christians.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, You know full well what an arab is.
Posted by ArabianArab (Member # 15626) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: What is an ARAB? A TRUE Arabian is someone who is part African to begin with. Some could be confused with Ethiopians. So what on earth are you talking about? In fact, there was (and still is) an African presence in the Levant all the way into Syria and in Iran. So some of these people were DARK to begin with. The early rulers of Andalus were a mixture of Syrians, Saracens (Baghdad) and Arabians along with Africans. Arabs were the MINORITY in the Islamic world at the time and still are. The only thing that they had to maintain power was the tradition of Arab ancestry being used to determine descent from Mohommed. Many people only having the slightest amount of Arab blood but claim to be Arab. It is exactly that form of Arab supremacy that caused so many wars and divisions among Muslims to begin with and ultimately is the reason why Moorish Spain was defeated by the Christians.
Arab is anyone who is decendant from an Arab tribe. That is to say an off spring of Qahtan or Adnan that is what is meant by Arab. Arab can also be someone who speaks Arabic and identifies themselves as Arab and has some degree of Arab culture.
The first rulers of Andalus were the Ummayad Qureaish Arabs. Futhermore you cannot seperate Islam from it's Arab roots.
The only Muslims who belive in the idea of rulership being reseave rights of the prophets family are the shia, most arabs are not shia.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Correct. What 'Patriot' fails to realize is that the Qahtani of southern Arabia were the original Arabs and they themselves were black!! An Arab by definition is someone who is native to Arabia and speaks the Arabic language, such persons vary in color and features with many Arabians having African ancestry. Today the definition of 'Arab' is extended to anyone who speaks Arabic and practices Arab culture regardless of whether they are Arabian or not, including many Africans.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Anyway, you guys just waste your time and energy arguing with someone like Hore (american patriot). It was already explained to him countless times not only in this thread but others that Moors were NOT Arabs but Africans! The word Moor itself is derived from the Greek maure meaning 'black' as in inhabitant of Africa.
But then what do you expect from a bigot? He even sent me this private message:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: every text on the subject shows the invasion of spain as a part of the arabian Muslim conquest of north africa. I have never seen such a bunch of nutty assertions in my life as a put forward on this board. **Black Africans have no seminal acomplishments to their name in the history of the human race. When the industrial age opened they were, for the most part, still in the neolithic era. They have low IQ's relative to the rest of the world and have been a cultural mess for centuries. As individuals they can acomplish a great deal. As a group of people they simply do not have the capacity to make an impact.**[QUOTE] Posted by argyle104 (Member # 14634) on :
Look at the filopeeeno piece of **** waffling again as to Arabs. This dumb ass has bauling like a baby about Africans and Arabs being separate.
Your slant eyed ass is a walking lying contradiction if there ever was one.
Worry about the supply of Tarantula Chitlins that your island is running short of due to high demand. LOL : )
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:gaygoyle9<-- : Look at the filopeeeno piece of **** waffling again as to Arabs. This dumb ass has bauling like a baby about Africans and Arabs being separate.
Where did I say Africans and Arabs are seperate when I just said many Arabs have African ancestry, lying buffoon?!
quote:Your slant eyed ass is a walking lying contradiction if there ever was one.
Actually my eyes aren't slanted but even if they were, I could still actually see and read what's there or not unlike your lunatic ass!
quote:Worry about the supply of Tarantula Chitlins that your island is running short of due to high demand. LOL : )
LOL I'd rather eat that any day than the d*cks YOU eat. Posted by ArabianArab (Member # 15626) on :
No Djehuti, the Qahtan were never black, maybe dark but never black or negroid.
Posted by Ebony Allen (Member # 12771) on :
I think Moor may just mean someone with a swarthy complexion, but not only black people. I do know that many of them were black.
Posted by ArabianArab (Member # 15626) on :
How were many of them black and how do you know this? What is your prove? The Moorish elite were Arabs and the peseans were Berbers.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
There very few who were black. Any darker complected person was called black in that time. That is where these crazy ideas come from. If the arabian invasion of North Africa hhad not taken place there would not have been a muslim in Spain. These guys all know that.
Posted by Alive-(What Box) (Member # 10819) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Black african populations would have been unable at the time to sustain such a major operation on their own. The leadership and organization of the North African invasion was arabian.
The same could be said before any Arab armies were organized (all it took was Islam to light the fuse for the Islamic armies).
To say that all Moorish operation in Europe was 'Arab'-controlled is a misleading I think.
They were (at least overtly) all religion motivated, but not Arab-owned.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
They bwere arab owned. The communication and command line stetched from Spain back to arabia.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: There very few who were black. Any darker complected person was called black in that time. That is where these crazy ideas come from. If the arabian invasion of North Africa hhad not taken place there would not have been a muslim in Spain. These guys all know that.
These ideas come from the Europeans who saw them and CALLED them black. That is why they called them Moors in the first place. Moor in Europe has always been a word for blacks, not simply someone darker than whites. It is for very dark black people from Africa. Otherwise they would have simply called them Arab, Mohammedan or Muslim. They are called Moors, the history books call them Moorish Africans and from that you get the idea that they were African Blacks. So the only one with crazy ideas is you. Yes, many of the rulers in the early period were of Syrian descent, but these people were a very small minority as most of that ruling dynasty of Umayyads in Syria was killed. So many of the later Umayyads of Spain were mixed with Africans and also Europeans. In fact many Moors were mixed with Europeans as time went on. But the first African armies to cross into Spain were primarily blacks and this is not to mention the later Almoravid and Almohade armies which also featured large numbers of blacks.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: They bwere arab owned. The communication and command line stetched from Spain back to arabia.
No they weren't. The self proclaimed Caliph of Islam was in Baghdad and Syria not Arabia. In fact, the Caliphate was never located in Arabia and after the overthrow of the Abbassids the various caliphs became independent and most were NOT Arab and Al Andalus was one of the first to declare its independence. But even under the Abbassids MOST of the Islamic world at the time was not made up of Arabs:
And many of these places in the Arab world from Africa, to Al Andalus to the Levant, Arabia, Persia, Afghanistan and India had BLACKS who were a significant part of the community. In fact, many of the traders and explorers who sailed and participated in the trade of spices and other commodities from Africa to Asia were blacks and there are many communities in South Asia to this day who call themselves Moors. The spread of Islam did not turn everyone into Arabs no matter how much you want to pretend it did.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You guys are making things up and twing other information out of context. African negroids were not, under any set of circumstances, the people we think of as Moors. You can presch this nonsense all you want but it never goes beyond this board and other afrocentric sites.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by ArabianArab: No Djehuti, the Qahtan were never black, maybe dark but never black or negroid.
Incorrect. The Qahtani peoples of southern Arabia like the Mahra and Seba were black people either of African ancestry and/or aboriginal ancestry.
I don't know about the Qur'an, but it's the reason why Biblical as well as other ancient historical texts describe South Arabians as Arabian 'Kushites'.
Even modern anthropological studies from Westerners call many indigenous southern Arabians 'Hamitic' in appearance. We've discussed this several times before in this board.
As an 'Arabian Arab' I thought you would know better.
quote:Originally posted by Ebony Allen: I think Moor may just mean someone with a swarthy complexion, but not only black people. I do know that many of them were black.
No. Again the word moor comes from the Greek word maure which means black. It was a word the Greeks used to describe the indigenous (black) populations of Africa from Egyptians to Libyans etc. The word can be found in the modern day African countries of not only Morrocco but also Mauretania.
Have you heard of the Christian Saint 'Maurice'? He was member of the Coptic Church of Egypt and is from Thebes Upper Egypt.
Europeans gave him the name Maurice for a reason
The non-black Muslims were called Saracen by Europeans. It was only in later times that 'Moor' became extended to all darker Muslims despite their actual color.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Doug, you waste your time arguing with someone like Hore. This is the same man who wrote the message below!
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: every text on the subject shows the invasion of spain as a part of the arabian Muslim conquest of north africa. I have never seen such a bunch of nutty assertions in my life as a put forward on this board. **Black Africans have no seminal acomplishments to their name in the history of the human race. When the industrial age opened they were, for the most part, still in the neolithic era. They have low IQ's relative to the rest of the world and have been a cultural mess for centuries. As individuals they can acomplish a great deal. As a group of people they simply do not have the capacity to make an impact.**
Now despite his typical red-neck rants, I still gave him a chance by telling him to look up the two main North African dynasties that took over Iberia.
quote: You guys are making things up and twing other information out of context. African negroids were not, under any set of circumstances, the people we think of as Moors. You can presch this nonsense all you want but it never goes beyond this board and other afrocentric sites.
LOL We make nothing up, and how can you not be 'afrocentric' about the fact that the Islamic conquest of Iberia consisted primarily of Africans
I've already explained to Ebony, and I'll tell you again, the very word 'Moor' means BLACK. Scientifically debunked racial concepts like "negroid" aside, the North Africans involved were indeed black.
So just to make it easier for you 'professor', go look up the two North African dynasties involved:
Then come back and let us know what you *think*.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: You guys are making things up and twing other information out of context. African negroids were not, under any set of circumstances, the people we think of as Moors. You can presch this nonsense all you want but it never goes beyond this board and other afrocentric sites.
Actually the only one making up gibberish is you. Simply stated the name MOOR was used in reference to the skin color of the Africans among the invaders of Spain. The word means black. Period. And all history books say quite clearly that Moors were invaders of Spain from Africa. Therefore Moor in reference to Islamic Spain means black African Muslim. It is consistent with the fact that BLACKS come from Africa and they were the MAJORITY of the African invaders of Spain.
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
TheAmericanPatriot Just showed himself as a racist, there is no need to debate him about the moors people are just going to be ignorant then let them stay ignorant.
The *FACT* is that Moor was a term used to describe the Africans that helped to invade Spain. Very few moors were light skinned most were Dark Skinned like the term means from what the Greek version was.
All of this coming from someone who is on record as saying that Africans who are "lighter" have "admixture". This heap of dung changes his tunes to fit whatever his pack members ie. Doug, rasol, and the loon who changes user ids daily.
He's like a puppy seeking their attention and acknowledge, hoping to not get kicked out of the pack. That's why he coattails their posts like a butler shouting.......
"Correct rasol" "Absolutely rasol" "Right rasol"
LOL
What shall we call this filopeeeeno puppy?
How about what people on this forum use to call him a few years ago......... LOL LOL LOL : )
Puppy "Chow"
HAHAHAHAHEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEE!!!!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
King loves to thrown the racist charge around. My guess is that anyone who does not agree with his demented, wild views of history is a racist. I have always observed that people who are quick to use that term are in fact racists themselves.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Giving the proper usage of the term Moor as applied in European language and the derivation of that word from its ancient Latin roots is not RACIST. It represents a logical explanation of the facts. To suggest otherwise or use such suggestions as a substitute for equally logical analysis, is nonsense.
In other words, calling someone racist is a cop out and does not address facts.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
It represents a lack of understanding of the facts Doug. The average person in 1330 did not understand the precise definitions you are trying to apply. To them anyone who was not white in a European sense was black.
Posted by Knowledgeiskey718 (Member # 15400) on :
quote:To them anyone who was not white in a European sense was black.
What was white to them in a "European sense", and how do you know???
What was black to them in a "European sense" and how do you know?
Posted by KING (Member # 9422) on :
TheAmericanPatriot
You were found to have said this about Africans:
every text on the subject shows the invasion of spain as a part of the arabian Muslim conquest of north africa. I have never seen such a bunch of nutty assertions in my life as a put forward on this board. ** Black Africans have no seminal acomplishments to their name in the history of the human race. When the industrial age opened they were, for the most part, still in the neolithic era. They have low IQ's relative to the rest of the world and have been a cultural mess for centuries. As individuals they can acomplish a great deal. As a group of people they simply do not have the capacity to make an impact.
Now if this is not racist I don't know what is.
Peace
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
That is correct King. Even at the beginning of the modern era most black african groups were still in a neolithic condition. That is not a racist statement, it is a statement of fact.
Posted by Alive-(What Box) (Member # 10819) on :
quote:Originally posted by KING:
Now if this is not racist I don't know what is.
It's definitely on the ignorant side, and a bit politically motivated (i.e., this comment was certainly intriguing in that regard: "As individuals they can acomplish a great deal. As a group of people they simply do not have the capacity" - 'Professor Hore').
quote:Originally posted by a formerly banned member, the Professor / AmericanHammer:
Black Africans have no seminal acomplishments to their name in the history of the human race.
This should tell anyone reading just how knowledgeble ThePatriot is.
quote:When the industrial age opened they were, for the most part, still in the neolithic era.
Proof?
Your scholarship-illiterate anti-scientific and anti-intellectual 'responses', grunts, and rants will be taken as admition to the fact that you don't have any, save for possibly some Texas white-folk gossip.
quote:They have low IQ's relative to the rest of the world
quote:As individuals they can acomplish a great deal. As a group of people they simply do not have the capacity to make an impact.
To illustrate for readers how politically motivated everything that comes from off this person's keyboard is, notice that the above bolded is just what many black-people-focused pro- integration & assimilation political people worldwide, as well as KKK members say. "you're nothing, unless you join us".
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Pray tell Alive, Did I miss the ships of Arfican nations exploring the coast of Europe in the 16th century? Did I miss African nations sailing north to Europe and openinmg a slave trade? Did i miss the broad array of technology resulting in the Industrial and technological revolution? Africa still lags decades behind the rest of the world in development
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: King loves to thrown the racist charge around. My guess is that anyone who does not agree with his demented, wild views of history is a racist. I have always observed that people who are quick to use that term are in fact racists themselves.
LOL First of all what you fail to realize is that what we agree with is the mainstream historical view!! 'Moor' as derived from the Greek word maure means BLACK!! Most of the invaders of Iberia were indigenous (black) North Africans. The lighter-skinned non-black Muslims were called Saracen.
And second of all, it is racist to espouse the ridiculous the view that black Africans were a low IQ people who accomplished nothing of historical value and were still living in the stone age during the rise of the industrial revolution!! These statements are all false as proven by the very mainstream history you keep relying on!
We discussed your allegations of IQ among African populations several times before and have debunked them every time. I suggest you read the book below by Dr. Stephen Jay Gould
And your historical allegations are just as if not more ridiculous as black Africans have been at the forefront of history. Not only did all of humanity originate in Africa in the first place, but Africans have been continuing to make history long after that. The spread of Afrasian languages including Semitic which birthed the great monotheistic religions of the world, the invention and spread of agriculture in the so-called 'Near East' as well as Europe was also the workd of peoples of African descent. The civilization of the Nile Valley, particularly Egypt which this whole forum is about, is black African! AND YOU KNOW THIS! Even during Medieval times while Europe was in its so-called "Dark Ages", The continent of Africa was thriving and was even involved in the first global economy via trade relations with Arabia, India, and China before Marco Polo, let alone Europe in general! Africans were even involved with trade with Europeans, essentially supporting Europe's broke economy since the fall of Rome with its own supply of gold! etc. etc. There is so much Africa has done historically even an entire thread dedicated to the topic fails to convey it all.
Yet YOU are denial of this? Why? Because you are red-neck who has been mentally bankrupt by racism!
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Oh and since I can't edit, I forgot to add:
It was these very same Moors (blacks) of Africa who after invading Iberia, advanced the Iberians technologically and economically enough for them to begin the Columbus Voyage!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Djehuti, Black africans do have a low IQ as a group. Obviously there are exceptions that prove the rule. Og the almost two hundred nations that comprise the globe they are among the most destitute and backward in the world. These cultures have simply had a difficult time adjusting to the modern world.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ And where is this evidence of this 'collective' low IQ among Africans?! Again, we have debunked your Hernstein and Murray Bell Curve studies many times before. And since what does having a broke or destitute economy have to do with IQ??! Most of the economies of Africa are destitute in the first place because of European colonialism!! Before Europeans, Africans were the wealthiest not only among themselves in their continent, but even in the entire globe! Did you forget the part of Africa's role in the first global economic network??
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Of course you don't have any [valid] answers for the above, do you?
Almohad Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Obviously the Europeans were far superior or they would not have been able to put black African nations in that positions. You cannot have it both ways. There is a reason why history has turned out the way it has. Simply ignoring reality is not an adequate thesis. Even in America black children have measured low IQ's and make up a segment of special education and 504 children all oout of line with their population. The same is true of the prison population, out of wedlock children etc. When Europeans found black Africans they found them in a neolithic state. If what you say is true the historical roles should have been reversed.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Again, you produce no evidence or any type of studies to back up your claims about low-IQ blacks.
You speak of the silly non-sequitor that just because Europeans subdued Africans, that it must mean they had low IQs. Yet Europeans also subdued many nations in Asia as well yet I never hear you say Asians have low IQs.
You talk about the plight of black children in American education, yet it seems you forgot about the fact we presented to you several times before about how African immigrants and their children surpass whites in education and careers both in America and in Europe!! Obviously if IQ is a factor, then they must have higher IQs then so so-called superior whites.
So perhaps you'll have better luck getting back to the topic of this thread...
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Obviously the Europeans were far superior or they would not have been able to put black African nations in that positions. You cannot have it both ways. There is a reason why history has turned out the way it has. Simply ignoring reality is not an adequate thesis. Even in America black children have measured low IQ's and make up a segment of special education and 504 children all oout of line with their population. The same is true of the prison population, out of wedlock children etc. When Europeans found black Africans they found them in a neolithic state. If what you say is true the historical roles should have been reversed.
Biased indeed.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Biased as well as stupid. All Hore does is repeat irrelevant conclusions about the economic situations of some blacks. Yes it's true blacks who live in low income communities or ghettos have the high rates of arrest and incarceration as well as out-of-wedlock children, but the same can be said of whites from low income areas or Hispanics, or Asians.
Non of this addresses his issue of 'IQ', and it certainly does not address the topic at hand:
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Biased as well as stupid. All Hore does is repeat irrelevant conclusions about the economic situations of some blacks. Yes it's true blacks who live in low income communities or ghettos have the high rates of arrest and incarceration as well as out-of-wedlock children, but the same can be said of whites from low income areas or Hispanics, or Asians.
Non of this addresses his issue of 'IQ', and it certainly does not address the topic at hand:
And they live that way(Afro-Americnas) thanks to the white americans continuoius oppersion, bias,discrimination and abudse to them, negated them of any priviledges American whites have.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
How were the evil whites able to that to these people if what you are say is correct Djehuti. Should it not be the other way around. Your position simply defies all logic. African Shakespeare? pray tell, who is that? African Newton? We could go on and on here. Africa is a cultural backwater and has been since the dawn of history and continues thus today. The contient is being over run now by Chinese and Indian immigrants and in the end they will dominate the landscape there.
Western Civilization created the modern world we all live in. All of you guys are speaking english here for a reason. I suppose we can contrast Oxford and MIT with Somalia and the Sudan. Hati is a text book case. Not a white man in it and it is run like a dog pound by it's own people.
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: How were the evil whites able to that to these people if what you are say is correct Djehuti. Should it not be the other way around. Your position simply defies all logic. African Shakespeare? pray tell, who is that? African Newton? We could go on and on here. Africa is a cultural backwater and has been since the dawn of history and continues thus today. The contient is being over run now by Chinese and Indian immigrants and in the end they will dominate the landscape there.
Western Civilization created the modern world we all live in. All of you guys are speaking english here for a reason. I suppose we can contrast Oxford and MIT with Somalia and the Sudan. Hati is a text book case. Not a white man in it and it is run like a dog pound by it's own people.
************BEEEEEEEEEEEEEEP*****************
TROLL ALERT
************BEEEEEEEEEEEEEEP*****************
Posted by Alive-(What Box) (Member # 10819) on :
quote:Originally posted by Alive-(What Box): Though the Asante don't seem as ferocious/ruthless an empire as .. say .. the Inca or the Zulu, vassal states are never too happy:
quote:The visit of the trading delegation in 1817 convinced the British government that Asante was a rich source of trade, and the government took over the coastal forts from private trading companies in 1821. The Asante quickly found cause to resent British policies along the coast; the British made their own arrangements with Asante's subject states, thus weakoning the control of the empire.
Nevertheless, the Asante initially tried to tolerate the intruders. As Basil Davidson wrote, "The general approach ... was to show enought strength to contain European ambitions within what were regarded as reasonable or inevitable limits, and then to make treaties of trade and friendship which, it was hoped, the Europeans would keep. Useful variations on this policy were found in playing off one set of Europeans against another. [<-- sound familiar?] The kings only fought when all else failed."
The Asante were forced to go to war in 1824, when the British governor, Sir Charles McCarthy, launched a campaign intended to break their grip on the region. The Asante soundly defeated the British, sending McCarthy to his death. For the next half century, the British government steered clear of direct involvement in Asante, while British merchants kept peace with the empire and made vast sums from their holdings along the coast.
Ultimately, the competing empires of Britain and Asante were bound to face each other down. In 1872, the king of Asante sent an expedition to the coast to subdue the defiant vassal states allied with the British. General Tia, the commander of the expedition, at first attempted to negotiate with the British governor, Sir Garnet Wolseley. Tia assured Wolseley that there could be peace between Asante and Britain, if only the British would stop supporting the vassal states (including the always-troublesome Denkyira). Wolseley's response, in 1874, was to being a full-scale invasion of Asante, which the battle-hardened veteran later called "the most horrible war I ever took part in."With great difficulty, the British forces finally occupied Kumasi and forced the Asante to sign the Treaty of Fomena, which guaranteed the British a free hand along the coast. The Asante rebuilt their empire, but their efforts were finally ended by another British invasion in 1900. The Asante then became subjects of teh British Empire and did not regain their independence until the nation of Ghana was formed in 1957.
From Centuries of Greatness - The West African Kingdoms 750 - 1900 by Philip Koslow.
Truth brings clarity unless one has an agenda.
Posted by Alive-(What Box) (Member # 10819) on :
quote:Originally posted by a formerly banned member, the Professor / AmericanHammer:
Black Africans have no seminal acomplishments to their name in the history of the human race.
quote:Originally posted by Habari: East African Iron Technology Iron technology has a long history in Africa. Steel is an alloy of iron. A high quality carbon steel was produced by the Bahaya people nearly 2000 thousand years ago. The Bahaya people are from the north-west area of what is now Tanzania, in East Africa. This quality of steel was not found in Europe until about the year 1800. The iron ore used by the Bahaya people had the formula Fe304.This was added to the top of the furnace with charcoal, as the source of carbon. The air entered the furnace through blow-pipes at the bottom. In this way the air was preheated, which improved the yield and quality of the iron. The temperature reached in the furnace was 1800°C.
Iron Technology in East Africa: Symbolism, Science, and Archaeology by Peter R. Schmidt
Peter R. Schmidt distills more than twenty years of research and scholarship into this major work on the history and culture of iron technology in East Africa from ancient times to the present. Although archaeologists have long held that ironmaking spread from a single point of origin in Europe, Schmidt shows that African iron smelting developed independently, based on the use of indigenous natural resources and local invention. Schmidt recounts the reenactment of traditional iron smelting by elders of the Haya people in northwestern Tanzania. Through analysis of the chemistry and metallurgy of the smelting process, he demonstrates the genius of African iron technology. The rich symbolism surrounding traditional methods of iron production sheds light on the history of iron technology and reveals its central cultural role.
quote:Originally posted by Mystery Solver:
By 4,000 BC: Ancestors of contemporary coastal Northwest African Afrasan/"Berber" speakers arrive in coastal Northwest Africa, Sahara and the Sahel.
Between 4000 BC and 1000 BC: At Tichitt-Walata - "Before 2000 BC, what is today the southern Sahara was inhabited by significant numbers of herders and farmers. On the rocky promontories of the Tichitt-Walata (Birou) and Tagant Plateaus in modern day Mauritania, they built what are considered among the earliest known civilizations in western Africa. Composed of more than 400 stone masonry settlements, with clear street layouts, some settlements had massive surrounding walls while others were less fortified. In a deteriorating environment, where arable land and pasturage were at a premium, the population grew and relatively large-scale political organizations emerged - factors which no doubt explain the homogeneity of architecture, settlement patterns, and material culture (e.g., lithic and ceramic traditions). This agro-pastoral society traded in jewelry and semi-precious stones from distant parts of the Sahara and Sahel, while crafts, hunting, and fishing were also important economic pursuits...Their elites built funerary monuments for themselves over a period extending from 4000 to 1000 BC." [sources: see Ray A. Kea, and Mauny, R. (1971), “The Western Sudan” in Shinnie: 66-87. Monteil, Charles (1953), “La Légende du Ouagadou et l’Origine des Soninke” in Mélanges Ethnologiques (Dakar: Bulletin del’Institut Francais del’Afrique Noir)]
By 3,000 BC: Evidence of iron working and production in West Africa.
"In fact, only in Africa do you find such a range of practices in the process of direct reduction [a method in which metal is obtained in a single operation without smelting],and metal workers who were so inventive that they could extract iron in furnaces made out of the trunks of banana trees," says Hamady Bocoum, one of the authors. [references: The Origins of Iron Metallurgy in Africa, 2002; "Iron Roads in Africa" project c/o UNESCO]
"by" 11,000 years BP ~ by 13,000 BC:
"The age of the sediment in which they were found suggests that the six ceramic fragments discovered between 2002 and 2005 are at least 11,400 years old. Most ancient ceramics from the Middle East and the central and eastern Sahara regions are 10,000 and between 9-10,000 years old, respectively." [see: Human population and paleoenvironment in West Africa]
^On that last note Ceramics and other African lithic technologies and along with other african lithic cultures made a big impact in migrating into South West Asia and in part giving rise to the neolithic.
This is my personal opinion, but, ommitting the Americas, the only other place in which ceramics were independently developed was East Asia.
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot:
They have low IQ's relative to the rest of the world
quote:Originally posted by Alive-(What Box): ^ I can verify what Sundiata has stated.
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: Examination of the volumes in the context of total cranial volume indicated that, whereas in men there was a proportionate increase of GM and WM as a function of cranial volume, in women the slope of increase of WM was significantly shallower than that for GM. This sex difference in intracranial tissue composition may reflect adaptation to the smaller cranial volumes of women. Sexual anatomic dimorphism has been comparable at least since the Middle Pleistocene hominids (Arsuaga et al., 1997). Because GM is the somatodendritic tissue where computation is done whereas WM is the myelinated connective tissue needed for information transfer across distant regions, a higher percentage of GM in women increases the proportion of tissue available for computational processes. This is a reasonable evolutionary strategy because smaller crania require shorter distances for information transfer; hence there could be relatively less need for WM.
^Djehuti's citation from a study concerned with sex relationships with white matter and gray matter brain composition. It was originally claimed to have been a study about brain functionality and sex [in favor of males, which was incorrect].
The context was different, but it's gives people who haven't thought about this whole matter (or have no idea of what they are talking about) a little insight.
A snippet from a site not running at the moment:
quote:The presented information above strongly suggests that African born blacks residing in western countries, as a group may possess IQs that are between 5 points and a full standard deviation (15 IQ points) above that of whites living in these countries (see, Gottfredson, 1998; Ostrowsky, 1999; Richardson, 2002; Cross, 1994; Williams, 2005) – This is especially true for those living in the United States and in the UK. One may also expect to find, according to much of the corroborative literature that relates IQ with education, approximately twice the number of African born immigrants with IQs in the 115 range, than among the general white American population (Gottfredson, 1998; Ostrowsky, 1999; Williams, 2005), and “more” than twice the number of African immigrants in the 125 IQ range (Gottfredson, 1998; The Journal of Blacks in Higher Education, 1999-2000). Race, Intelligence and IQ: Are Blacks Smarter? By Bernie Douglas (April 10, 2008) What is IQ and Why the Racial Controversy? IQ is a culturally, socially, and ideologically rooted concept; an index intended to predict success (i.e., to predict outcomes that are valued as success by some people) in a given society. The items on these tests are largely measures of achievement at various levels of competency (Sternberg et al, 1998a, 1999, 2003a) and are devised impressionistically by psychologists to simply mimic the psycholinguistic structures of schooling and middle class clerical/administrative occupations (Richardson, 2002). Alfred Binet, the IQ’s inventor, originally devised the IQ test to screen children for educational difficulties, and made clear its conceptual foundations (See Richardson, 2002). IQ tests are, and were originally designed to be nothing more than devices for generating numbers that are useful in assessing academic aptitude with in a given culture.
Most traditional Intelligence tests measure specific forms of cognitive ability that are said to be predictive of school functioning, but do not measure the many forms of intelligence that are beyond these more specific skills, such as music, creativity, art, interpersonal and intrapersonal abilities (Braaten and Norman, 2006). IQ and similar tests are also unable to measure potential, are not independent from what is measured by achievement tests, and are not powerful predictors of low reading performance (Siegel, 1989, Bradshaw, 2001). Test results in one child can vary according to mood, motivation, and fatigue, while the tests themselves show prominent rehearsal/learning effects, generally assume a degree of literacy, and are largely framed to suit Western cultural requirements (O’Brien, 2001). For these reasons, many argue that the use of IQ tests should be abandoned (Siegel, 1989, 1992; Vellutino et al, 2000, Bradshaw, 2001; Schonemann, 1997c). In addition, no tests except dynamic tests (see Sternberg & Grigorenko, 2002a) that require learning at the time of the test, directly measure ability to learn. Traditional tests focus much more on measuring past learning, which can be the result of differences in many factors, including motivation and available opportunities to learn.
To date there is no serious evidence demonstrating IQ tests to measure either an inborn property (see Hirsch 1970, 2004; Schonemann, 1997c, 2005; Kempthorn 1978, 1997, Capron et al, 1999) or what is commonly understood to mean “intelligence.” Intelligence is a highly subjective and culturally confound concept which is largely undefined (see Schonemann, 1997c; Sternberg, 1998; Cole et al, 1971; Guttman, 1955). The twin and adoption studies used to report heritability estimates in relationship to IQ tests have been shown repeatedly to be highly suspicious in nature. For example, statistical models used in twin studies and inferences from them relating to IQ tests tend to lack statistical validity (Capron et al., 1999; Kempthorn, 1997). The biometrical school of scientists who fit models to IQ data traces their intellectual ancestry to R. Fisher (1918), but their genetic models have no predictive value (See Vetta, 2002; Vetta, 1976; Capron and Vetta, 2006; Capron et al, 1999). Fisher himself was critical of the concept of heritability, because assortative mating, such as for IQ, introduces complexities into the study of a genetic trait (ibid). Schonemann (1997c) has shown that conventional heritability estimates often produce absurdly high values for variables that cannot possibly be genetic. For example, if one applies the traditional heritability arithmetic to the twin data collected by Loehlin and Nichols (1976), one finds that the answer to the question “Did you take a bubble bath last year” is 90% genetic (Schonemann, 1997c).
quote:
[...]
An example of this phenomenon can be seen in a study by Serpell R. (1979), in which Zambian and English children were asked to reproduce patterns in three media: wire models, clay models, or pencil and paper. The Zambian children excelled in the wire medium with which they were familiar, while the English children were best with pencil and paper. Both groups performed equally well with clay. Thus, children performed better with materials that were more familiar to them, from their own environments. Carraher, Carraher, and Schliemann (1985) studied a group of Brazilian children and found that the same children who were able to do the mathematics needed to run their street businesses were little able to do the same mathematics when presented in a formal schooling context.
[...]
quote:African Blacks Significantly Exceed Whites in Educational Attainment and Professional Employment African-born blacks comprise 16 percent of the U.S. foreign-born black population and are considerably more educated than other black immigrants (U.S. Bureau of the Census, 2000). The vast majority of these immigrants come from minority white countries in East and West Africa (e.g. Kenya and Nigeria), and less than 2 percent originate from North or South Africa (World Factbook, 2004; Yearbook of immigration Statistics, 2003). In an analysis of Census Bureau data by the Journal of Blacks in higher education, African immigrants to the United States were found more likely to be college educated than any other immigrant group, which included those from Europe, North America and Asia (also see U.S. Bureau of the Census, 2000). African immigrants have also been shown to be more highly educated than any native-born ethnic group including white and Asian Americans (see also, Logan & Deane, 2003; Williams, 2005; The Economist, 1996; Arthur, 2000; Selassie, 1998).
Most current data suggest that between 43.8 and 48.9 percent of all African immigrants in the United States hold a college diploma (Charles, 2007; U.S. Census, 2000). This is slightly more than the percentage of Asian immigrants to the U.S., nearly “double” the rate of native-born white Americans, and nearly four times the rate of native-born African Americans (Williams, 2005; The Journal of Blacks in Higher Education, 1999-2000). Black immigrants from Africa have also been shown to have rates of college graduation that are “more” than double that of the U.S.-born population, in general (Williams, 2005). For example, in 1997, 19.4 percent of all adult African immigrants in the United States held a “graduate degree”, compared to 8.1 percent of adult whites (a difference of “more than” double) and 3.8 percent of adult blacks in the United States, respectively (The Journal of Blacks in Higher Education, 1999-2000). This shows that America has an equally large achievement gap between white Americans and African born immigrants as between native born white and black Americans.
In the UK, 1988, the Commission for Racial Equality conducted an investigation on the admissions practices of St. George's, and other medical colleges, who set aside a certain number of places for minority students. This informal quota system reflected the percentage of minorities in the general population. However, minority students with Chinese, Indian, or black African heritage had higher academic qualifications for university admission than did whites (Blacks in Britain from the West Indies had lower academic credentials than did whites). In fact, blacks with African origins over the age of 30 had the highest educational qualifications of any ethnic group in the British Isles. Thus, the evidence pointed to the fact that minority quotas for University admissions were actually working against students from these ethnic groups who were on average more qualified for higher education than their white peers (Cross, 1994; Also see, Dustmann, Theodoropoulos, 2006).
Boring sh*yt on brain sizes and neurons:
quote:Race and Brain Size The majority of empirical studies on the matter of racial differences in brain size suggest that blacks from comparable environments will have larger brains than do others. Brain sizes vary considerably within any species, but this variation is not usually related to intelligence. Instead, it correlates loosely with body size: large people tend to have larger brains (Gould, 1981, 1999). As a result, women on average will have smaller brains than men (Peters, 1991). However, this does not indicate that the level of male intelligence is higher than female intelligence; Neanderthals had on average larger brains than anatomically modern humans (Tattersall, 1995; Gould, 1981) but most would agree that they were considerably less intelligent than Homo sapiens (Tattersal, 1995, 2004; Gould, 1981; Mithen 1998). In addition, female brains are structured in a way that would more than make up for any size differences.
Tobias (1970) compared 7 racial and national groups in a study on brain size, in which he reported that the brain size of American blacks was larger than any white group, (which included American, English and French whites) except those from the Swedish sub sample (who had the largest brains of any of the groups measured), and American blacks were also estimated to have some 200 million more neurons than American whites (See Tobias 1970; Weizmann et al. 1990). Gould (1981, 1996) discovered upon recalculating Morton’s skull data that the crania of blacks in his sample were on average larger than those of whites. Morton included in his sample of black skulls more females than he included in the white sample. For example, in his analysis of Hottentotts (black tribe from South Africa) all measured crania were of females; the Englishmen were all mature men. Morton had eliminated especially large brains from the African group and especially small brains from the European. Also, Morton did some early measurements with seed instead of shot. When he discovered that this method gave inconsistent results, he re did the Caucasian values with shot, but not the blacks (See Gould, 1981, 1996). After correcting these errors it was shown that the black sample had larger crania (and presumably, larger brains) than did whites (ibid).
Interestingly, during the time periods in which the data for the above mentioned studies were collected anthropomorphic research has shown that blacks were on average physically smaller in stature than whites and received poorer nutrition (e.g. Alan, 2006). Indicating that in spite of relatively lower anthropomorphic measurements and poorer nutritional intake, blacks still demonstrated larger brain volume.
Friedrich Tiedemann (a famous 17th century craniometrist) noted that many anthropologists in his time simply chose the smallest-brained and biggest-jawed African ‘skull’ they could find and then published a single drawing as "proof" of what every (Caucasian) observer already "knew" in any case! Tiedemann labored to produce the largest compilation of data ever assembled, with all items based entirely on his own measurements of skulls for all races. From his extensive tables (38 male African and 101 male Caucasian skulls), Tiedemann concludes that no differences in brain sizes can distinguish human races (See Gould, 1999). In some instances the favor was actually in the direction of blacks.
Most contemporary evidence shows that there is virtually no correlation between the intensity of different selective force gradients and cranial morphology (Harvati and Weaver, 2006; Keita, 2004; Roseman and Weaver, 2004; Roseman, 2004; Gould, 1981, 1996; Brace, 2001). Indeed, positive geographic selective force correlations relating to craniometric variables are usually only (vaguely) observed when samples from extreme cold (arctic) environments, such as Inuit types and Siberians, are included in analysis (Roseman, 2004; Harvati and Weaver, 2006). For example, Harvati and Weaver (2006) found a weak association between cranial centroid sizes and climatic variables, which approached, but did not reach, significance. This effect disappeared when an Inugsuk (a group from Greenland similar to Eskimos) sample was removed from the analysis (ibid). Roseman (2004) observed similar findings with a Siberian sample – once the Serbian sample was removed from the analysis, there was no indication that environmental temperature or latitude played ‘any’ role in cranial morphology. In sum, recent studies comparing craniometric and neutral genetic affinity matrices have concluded that, on average, human cranial variation fits a model of neutral expectation.
Keita (2004) in his principal components analysis on male crania from the northeast quadrant of Africa and selected European and other African series found no consistent ‘size differences’ between regional groups, as all samples showed marked variation in size. There were however some distinguishing differences in relationship to cranial shape between European and African samples, particularly with respect to nasal aperture and changes in the maxilla (part of the upper jaw from which the teeth grow). The primary goal of this study was to assess the anatomical basis of patterns of craniofacial variation along an African–European continuum, with special focus on North Africa. There was Interest in whether there was a sharp boundary separating any of these groups from each other (see Keita, 2004). In terms of overall cranial size, tropical African groups were found in many instances to have larger crania than European groups. For example, on close inspection of the 2 dimensional PC scatter plots, designating cranial size/shape, the Zulu sample appeared to have the largest crania of any group in the analysis, followed by Norse (Norway) and then Teita (Kenya). African crania were also found to be broader (wider) than European crania on average. Surprisingly, one European sample, Berg (Hungarian), correlated more closely with African samples in this respect than with other European samples. Tremendous overlap between all groups was observed in this study, for most variables (see Keita, 2004).
Other physical anthropological research has also shown the crania of Sub-Saharan Africans to be generally wider, exhibiting greater cranial breath than European and North African samples, verbatim. For example sub-Saharan specimens show a generalized vertical facial flattening, with consequent widening of the entire structure (Bruner and Manzi, 2004). This pattern involves interorbital and orbital enlargement, widening and flattening of the nasal bones and aperture, maxillary development and upper rotation, and a general widening and lowering of the face. The face shortens vertically and this flattening leads to a relative lateral enlargement of the whole morphology and maxillary frontward rotation (see Bruner and Manzi, 2004). The pattern toward the other extreme shows the opposite processes, with a general vertical stretching related to a lateral narrowing, as seen in European and North African samples (ibid).
Despite certain trends observed among African crania, Roseman and Weaver (2007) found that the amount of phenotypic variation in human cranial morphology decreases at the population level the further one travels from Sub-Saharan Africa. African populations tend to exhibit more cranial variation than do other world populations (Hanihara et al, 2003; Hiernaux, 1975; Keita, 2004; Roseman and Weaver, 2007). Relethford (1994) and Relethford and Harpending (1994) found that the amount of morphological variation among major geographic groups is relatively low, and is compatible with those based on the genetic data, where Africa shows the most variation. Manica et al (2007) note a smooth loss of genetic diversity with increasing distance from Africa, and along with this, using a large data set of skull measurements and an analytical framework equivalent to that used for genetic data, also show that the loss in genetic diversity is mirrored by a loss in phenotypic variability.
Extensive research in human genetics on ‘presumably’ neutral loci has shown that the overwhelming majority of human diversity is found among individuals within local populations. Previous studies of craniometric diversity are similar to these genetic apportionments, implying that interregionally differing selection pressures have played a limited role in producing contemporary human cranial diversity (Roseman and Weaver, 2004; Brace, 2001).
Genetic studies of human brainsize have discovered two genes that when mutated can result in severely
[...]
I think nuture definitely trumps nature, but he (Ssshaun002) isopen to his own popinions.
^The cited material neglects to mention though, that racial difference in brain size has been found to be negligable anyway.
Not to mention that you have morons with very large brains (increased brain size can indicate conditions such as retardation or cancer in certain disease cases and Neanderthal had larger crania aswell) while Jewish Scientist Albert Einstein had an average sized head.
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
Sorry Professor, but on this website we will have an academic debate...in which you must provide proof for your claims.
Blacks achievements were high and well known in the Arab World from the days when The Prophet sent his followers to Axum, to the Rise of the Moorish Occupation of Spain. To say blacks were not present in Moorish Spain is ironic, the Moors were a mix of Berbers ranging from black to white, sub sahran Blacks, Arabs, Jews, with Arabs as the Minority.
Once again we will examine ANOTHER important "ARABIC" Dynasty that was simualar in multicultural, academic and military might as Al-Andalusia....The Fatimid Dynasty of Egypt....
About ColorQ's Color Club | ColorQ Home | ColorQ Store Color Club Articles Etc Pet Sins Webzine Bible Study Corner Human Rights Corner You are here: ColorQ Home > Color Club > Black and Arab mixing in North Africa Black and Arab mixing in North Africa Return to ColorQ's Color Club
Since pre-Islamic times, sub-Saharan Africans had been taken as slaves to the Arab world, including North Africa. Unfortunately, this practice goes on today, in the form of black slavery in Sudan (Northeast Africa) and Mauritania (Northwest Africa), where descendants of Arabs still exploit black Africans.1
Prior to the Islamic conquests by Asian Arabs, many regions of North Africa were inhabited by the Berber, an indigenous African people.2 For this article, the term "North African" will include the native Berber as well as Arabs who came from Asia. Some Western scholars regard the Berber as "white Caucasian" who resemble Southern Europeans3, but other observers say the Berber appear neither European nor Arab nor Negroid. F, a Berber man from Algeria, say, "Berber skin color ranges from black to white. We cover a wide geographical region and have a wide range of appearances." Mitochondrial DNA analysis seems to corroborate F's observation; the amount of subSaharan African mDNA genetic contribution to Berber communities varied from 82% for the Tuaregs to 4% for the Rifains.4 "The Berber have their own languages", F says, "but when Arabs from Asia invaded North Africa, many Berbers accepted the Arab language and culture." The script of the Berbers is still used by the Tuaregs. For more information on the Tamazigh language, see www.libyamazigh.org.
People from the East Africa were sold as slaves in North Africa from up through the 19th century (Non-Africans were also sold, and in certain periods, comprised the majority of the slaves.)5 In the west, people from the Sahel region of West Africa were sent to the Maghrib (Northwest Africa). Colonies of Muslim traders in Ghana and Goa traded with local princes, obtaining black Africans for the trans-Saharan slave trade.6
Despite the inferior social status of slaves, many black Africans succeeded in gaining political power in North Africa. An Abbysinnian eunuch Abu' l-Misk Kafur al-Ikhshidi rose to become regent of Egypt (945-966).7
The Fatimid caliph az-Zahir (or al-Dhahir) had a Sudanese concubine who bore him the future Caliph al-Mustansir, heir to his throne. She ruled over Egypt after al-Zahir's death and during her son's childhood. Black regiments consisting of purchased slaves were already an important part of the Fatimid army, along with Turkish slaves. The political clout of the black African soldiers peaked during the reign of al-Mustansir (1035-94) on account of the support they received from the Queen Mother.8
It should be noted that blacks were not the only slaves in the Arab world. White slaves from Europe were also sold, as were Central Asians.9 It should also be noted that the trans-Saharan slave trade was not a one-way street of black slaves being sold to Arab countries. Arab and Turkish slaves were also sold to black Africans. See White slavery in Africa and Asia. Famous mixed people of black African and North African descent
The longest-reigning Imam-Caliph of the Fatimid dynasty, al-Mustansir
Ma'ad al-Mustansir Billah was born in 1029 to the Fatimid Caliph az-Zahir and Rasad, one of az-Zahir's wives.10 Rasad was variously reported as a slave of Sudanese, Abyssinian or Nubian origin.11 Az-Zahir had purchased her from the Jewish merchant Abu Sa'd al-Tustari.12 8 months after Ma'ad's birth, the caliph az-Zahir declared Rasad's son to be his successor.13
Al-Mustansir ascended the throne at age 7 following his father's death.14 The capable vizier al-Jarjarai was the de-facto ruler until the vizier's passing in 1044, after which the Queen Mother Rasad ruled as regent.15 She continued to exercise political power during the Caliph's adulthood.16
The long famine starting in 1065 destabilized Egypt.17 During this period, the merchants encouraged the Turks and the Berber soldiers to revolt and expel fifty thousand Sudani soldiers (The various factions were all part of the Fatimids' multi-ethnic armed forces).18 With the Sudani, Berber and Turkish factions engaging in open warfare, Egypt's infrastructure fell to ruin.19 Queen Mother Rasad backed the Sudanis with arms and financing.20
Following their defeat of the Sudanis in 1067, the Turks drained the treasury of al-Mustansir who was left with almost nothing except a country in shambles.21 In 1071, the caliph's mother Rasad was arrested and her assets confiscated.22 The Turks treated Al-Mustansir scornfully.23 In 1074, the caliph was able to end the Turks' influence with the help of Badr al Jamali and his Syrian troops.24 Al-Jamali, a former slave, became the next vizier and helped Mustansir restore order to Egypt.25 The viziership of al-Jamali was a shift in Egyptian politics. Al-Mustansir's mother Rasad no longer had the vast political power she previously wielded for almost 40 years, though she performed diplomatic functions at least until 1078.26 The longest reigning Caliph in any Islamic State, Al-Mustansir died in 1094 and was succeeded by his second son al-Mustaali.27
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Alive-(What Box): ^The cited material neglects to mention though, that racial difference in brain size has been found to be negligable anyway.
Not to mention that you have morons with very large brains (increased brain size can indicate conditions such as retardation or cancer in certain disease cases and Neanderthal had larger crania aswell) while Jewish Scientist Albert Einstein had an average sized head.
How can you talk about "racial differences" when you don't believe in "races"?
Einstein wasn't a genius but a plagiarist. You believe anything your white Jew master tells you, ain't that right Mr. "Africanist"? LOL
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
More for the Professor A.K.A American Patriot Famous people of African and Asian descent
Antara ibn-Shaddad al Absi - Antara (c.525-615) , was one of the seven great pre-Islamic Arab poets, author of the Divan. His father was King Shaddad of the Banu Abs, a Bedouin chief. His mother was Zabiba, an Ethiopian slave. The Bedouin did not acknowledge the paternity of the children they had with slaves. According to legend, Antara bargained with his father for Antara's freedom and Shaddad's recognition in return for the defeat of his tribe's enemies. Antar returned victorious from battle and was acknowledged as a noble, as befitted his paternity. He then married his free cousin Abla, to whom he had dedicated much of his poetry.
Antara (also romanized as 'Antar or Antarah) captured the Arab imagination and became the subject of much literature, including the famed Romance of Antar. The folk hero is still the subject of Arab storytellers today.
Khufaf ibn Nadba - Khufaf was a famous Arab poet from the pre-Islamic era. He was born to an Arab father of the Banu Sulaym and a black African slave mother named Nadba. During the Prophet's triumphal entry into Mecca, Khufaf bore the standard of his tribe.1
Sulayk ibn al-Sulaka - Also known as Ta'abbata Sharran, he is another famous Arab poet from the pre-Islamic era. He was born to an Arab father of the tribe of Fahm and a black African mother. Antar, Khufaf, Sulayk are known collectively as the Crows of the Arabs ('Aghribat al-'Arab) because of the dark complexion they inherited from their mothers.2
Prince Ibrahim ibn al-Mahdi - His father was the 3rd Abbassid Caliph al-Mahdi, who reigned in the 8th century. His mother was a black African.3
Caliph Al-Muktafi - He was a 12th century Abbassid Caliph. His mother was Nubian.4 Afro-Asian couples from the history books
Sultana Raziyya and Jamal al-Din Yakut - Raziyya (also romanized as Radiyya, Raziya or Razia) was the Mamluk queen who ascended the throne of Delhi in 1236. She was exceptional in that she was single at the time she became head of state, inheriting the throne from a father, not a husband. Her father was Iltutmish, a Turkish slave who became Sultan of Delhi.5
The Sultana appeared to be very fond of one of the officers in charge of her horses. He was an Ethiopian slave by the name of Jamal al-Din Yakut. She promoted him too rapidly from amir of horses to amir of amirs. The jealous amirs began spying on the queen and her officer. After seeing Jamal al-Din slide his arms under Raziyya's armpits when helping her mount her horse, her enemies spread the news through the city. Scandalized, the religious authorities and princes mobilized the army to depose Raziyya.6 This set in motion a series of events which led to her tragic death. Accounts differ on whether she died in battle or was murdered by a robber. Distinguishedwomen.com has one account of Raziyya's story.
Al-Farazdak and Umm Makkiya - Al-Farazdak was a celebrated Arab bard of 8th century. Umm (mother) Makkiya, his wife, was a black African. The two were described as 'inseparable'.7
Abraha and Raihäna - Abraha (also romanized as 'Abraha or Abreha ) was one of the Ethiopian generals who led the Ethiopian invasion of Yemen in 525 A.D. He soon established himself as ruler of Yemen, and being an able administrator, became one of the most luminous personalities in Southern Arabian history. Raihäna was a Yemenite noblewoman whom Abraha had abducted from her husband. She bore Abraha the two sons who would later inherit his throne - Yaksum and Masruq.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ LOL As usual, when someone mentions 'Jew', wako-ako shows up to spew!
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: How were the evil whites able to that to these people if what you are say is correct Djehuti. Should it not be the other way around. Your position simply defies all logic...
Do what? What are you referring to? Is this an reply to me or to prmiddleeastern who answered right above you??
quote:African Shakespeare? pray tell, who is that? African Newton? We could go on and on here. Africa is a cultural backwater and has been since the dawn of history and continues thus today. The contient is being over run now by Chinese and Indian immigrants and in the end they will dominate the landscape there.
Obviously you know nothing about African culture or history but the usual white-supremacist lies and propaganda from colonial days. The only reason why some of the African continent (and not all of it as you wish to believe) is being economically overrun by foreigners is that much of its native economic infrastructure was destroyed by European colonists; its corrupt governments are run by crooked politicians who have dealings with Chinese and other foreign exploiters. These same corrupt governments were established in the first place by again European colonists. Africa's economy was thriving and was even wealthier than that of Europe before its imperialist and colonialist times. We've told you this countless times, yet you refuse to accept this FACT! As for famous playwrights of scientists of Europe, again Europes success can only be explained at the cost of either borrowing or exploitation of other cultures.
quote:Western Civilization created the modern world we all live in. All of you guys are speaking english here for a reason...
Yes, but you forget that so-called 'Western Civilization' is the result of influence from ancient Asia and Africa!
quote:I suppose we can contrast Oxford and MIT with Somalia and the Sudan.
I don't see how. Oxford and MIT are colleges and Somalia and Sudan are nations. It's like comparing apples and shoes.
quote:Hati is a text book case. Not a white man in it and it is run like a dog pound by it's own people.
But Haiti was a slave nation which in itself was indirectly founded through white oppression. Which comes to show the corruption and degradation that results from oppression at the hands of white Westerners! You prove my point exactly.
Now, as usual all you've done is show your penchant for distracting from the real topic via your rants of the bad situation of blacks in modern times, all of which by the way was direct result of white Western oppression!
So why don't you address the main points of the topic of this thread for a change!
Jari! Alive! Please do not even bother engaging the 'professor' with long winded posts. This is NOT a thread about the accomplishments of black Africans throughout history!! This is a thread about one of the many accomplishments and that is the Moorish conquest of Iberia and the resulting ushering in of an 'enlightened' period of literature and advanced science to Europe!
Hore out of ignorance of the 'mainstream' history he vouches for, believes these Moores to be 'Arabs'. Yet the very mainstream scholarship he clings so tightly to says otherwise.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: It represents a lack of understanding of the facts Doug. The average person in 1330 did not understand the precise definitions you are trying to apply. To them anyone who was not white in a European sense was black.
Actually you are right and it is the FACTS that you do not understand. Moor and the term it derives from, Maure, means black and refers to the aboriginal black Africans of North West Africa. You have done nothing to challenge this with your low IQ arguments. Simply put, you have no concept of the facts and resort to distraction in order to avoid them. Which is a sure sign of a losing position.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: That is correct King. Even at the beginning of the modern era most black african groups were still in a neolithic condition. That is not a racist statement, it is a statement of fact.
And, by definition, Modern Era is a reference to the time period when Western Europe, particularly North Western Europe, arose OUT of the neolithic life style they had been in BECAUSE of contact with Africans and everyone else. Therefore, it is an acknowledgment of the fact that Europe is heavily indebted to Africans and EVERYONE ELSE for bringing them into the "modern" age. So even your own double talk reveals the facts, which are against what you are trying to imply, for if the IQ of North Western Europe was so great and above everyone else, including Africans, then Africans and everyone else wouldn't have BROUGHT THEM into the modern age.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Jari-Ankhamun: Sorry Professor, but on this website we will have an academic debate...in which you must provide proof for your claims.
Blacks achievements were high and well known in the Arab World from the days when The Prophet sent his followers to Axum, to the Rise of the Moorish Occupation of Spain. To say blacks were not present in Moorish Spain is ironic, the Moors were a mix of Berbers ranging from black to white, sub sahran Blacks, Arabs, Jews, with Arabs as the Minority.
Once again we will examine ANOTHER important "ARABIC" Dynasty that was simualar in multicultural, academic and military might as Al-Andalusia....The Fatimid Dynasty of Egypt....
About ColorQ's Color Club | ColorQ Home | ColorQ Store Color Club Articles Etc Pet Sins Webzine Bible Study Corner Human Rights Corner You are here: ColorQ Home > Color Club > Black and Arab mixing in North Africa Black and Arab mixing in North Africa Return to ColorQ's Color Club
Since pre-Islamic times, sub-Saharan Africans had been taken as slaves to the Arab world, including North Africa. Unfortunately, this practice goes on today, in the form of black slavery in Sudan (Northeast Africa) and Mauritania (Northwest Africa), where descendants of Arabs still exploit black Africans.1
Prior to the Islamic conquests by Asian Arabs, many regions of North Africa were inhabited by the Berber, an indigenous African people.2 For this article, the term "North African" will include the native Berber as well as Arabs who came from Asia. Some Western scholars regard the Berber as "white Caucasian" who resemble Southern Europeans3, but other observers say the Berber appear neither European nor Arab nor Negroid. F, a Berber man from Algeria, say, "Berber skin color ranges from black to white. We cover a wide geographical region and have a wide range of appearances." Mitochondrial DNA analysis seems to corroborate F's observation; the amount of subSaharan African mDNA genetic contribution to Berber communities varied from 82% for the Tuaregs to 4% for the Rifains.4 "The Berber have their own languages", F says, "but when Arabs from Asia invaded North Africa, many Berbers accepted the Arab language and culture." The script of the Berbers is still used by the Tuaregs. For more information on the Tamazigh language, see www.libyamazigh.org.
People from the East Africa were sold as slaves in North Africa from up through the 19th century (Non-Africans were also sold, and in certain periods, comprised the majority of the slaves.)5 In the west, people from the Sahel region of West Africa were sent to the Maghrib (Northwest Africa). Colonies of Muslim traders in Ghana and Goa traded with local princes, obtaining black Africans for the trans-Saharan slave trade.6
Despite the inferior social status of slaves, many black Africans succeeded in gaining political power in North Africa. An Abbysinnian eunuch Abu' l-Misk Kafur al-Ikhshidi rose to become regent of Egypt (945-966).7
The Fatimid caliph az-Zahir (or al-Dhahir) had a Sudanese concubine who bore him the future Caliph al-Mustansir, heir to his throne. She ruled over Egypt after al-Zahir's death and during her son's childhood. Black regiments consisting of purchased slaves were already an important part of the Fatimid army, along with Turkish slaves. The political clout of the black African soldiers peaked during the reign of al-Mustansir (1035-94) on account of the support they received from the Queen Mother.8
It should be noted that blacks were not the only slaves in the Arab world. White slaves from Europe were also sold, as were Central Asians.9 It should also be noted that the trans-Saharan slave trade was not a one-way street of black slaves being sold to Arab countries. Arab and Turkish slaves were also sold to black Africans. See White slavery in Africa and Asia. Famous mixed people of black African and North African descent
The longest-reigning Imam-Caliph of the Fatimid dynasty, al-Mustansir
Ma'ad al-Mustansir Billah was born in 1029 to the Fatimid Caliph az-Zahir and Rasad, one of az-Zahir's wives.10 Rasad was variously reported as a slave of Sudanese, Abyssinian or Nubian origin.11 Az-Zahir had purchased her from the Jewish merchant Abu Sa'd al-Tustari.12 8 months after Ma'ad's birth, the caliph az-Zahir declared Rasad's son to be his successor.13
Al-Mustansir ascended the throne at age 7 following his father's death.14 The capable vizier al-Jarjarai was the de-facto ruler until the vizier's passing in 1044, after which the Queen Mother Rasad ruled as regent.15 She continued to exercise political power during the Caliph's adulthood.16
The long famine starting in 1065 destabilized Egypt.17 During this period, the merchants encouraged the Turks and the Berber soldiers to revolt and expel fifty thousand Sudani soldiers (The various factions were all part of the Fatimids' multi-ethnic armed forces).18 With the Sudani, Berber and Turkish factions engaging in open warfare, Egypt's infrastructure fell to ruin.19 Queen Mother Rasad backed the Sudanis with arms and financing.20
Following their defeat of the Sudanis in 1067, the Turks drained the treasury of al-Mustansir who was left with almost nothing except a country in shambles.21 In 1071, the caliph's mother Rasad was arrested and her assets confiscated.22 The Turks treated Al-Mustansir scornfully.23 In 1074, the caliph was able to end the Turks' influence with the help of Badr al Jamali and his Syrian troops.24 Al-Jamali, a former slave, became the next vizier and helped Mustansir restore order to Egypt.25 The viziership of al-Jamali was a shift in Egyptian politics. Al-Mustansir's mother Rasad no longer had the vast political power she previously wielded for almost 40 years, though she performed diplomatic functions at least until 1078.26 The longest reigning Caliph in any Islamic State, Al-Mustansir died in 1094 and was succeeded by his second son al-Mustaali.27
Bottom line, Arabs have always been a minority since the spread of Islam from Arabia and the rulers of Islam are divided between Africans and Asians with Arabia in the middle. This actually fits the term Arab quite well, as many are really a mixture of African and central Asians to begin with.
And in Africa, black Africans are the majority of Muslims and they are not being enslaved by anyone.
Throughout history the Islamic world has been dominated most by Central Asians and Turks, followed by South Asians and Indians and then BLACK Africans. So all this nonsense about Arabs and Islam is blatant NON sense.
Just look at the largest Islamic populations and you will see that there are a VERY LARGE number of blacks in the Muslim population world wide:
1 Indonesia 182,570,000 2 Pakistan 134,480,000 3 India 121,000,000 4 Bangladesh 114,080,000 5 Turkey 65,510,000 6 Iran 62,430,000 7 Egypt 58,630,000 8 Nigeria 53,000,000 9 Algeria 30,530,000 10 Morocco 28,780,000
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Actually Doug, by 'Modern Era' he means the Industrial Revolution. Of course the very notion that Africans were still living in the "neolithic" as he claims by the beginning that era is hilarious! LOL Especially considering that Africans were using metallurgy long before Europeans and that as cited by Alive, they were even using carbon steel well before the 'Modern Era' when Europeans supposedly "invented" it!
But you are right, Hore resorts to distractions from the topic at hand. And the points of the topic still stand.
Blacks have played a major role in Islamic history from Africa to Arabia, to the Levant to Mesopotamia to Iran, to Afghanistan, Pakistan, India, South Asia and the Philippines. And this was especially true in the time period of Moorish Spain, which was the culmination of various aspects of ALL of these cultures from Africa to Arabia and Asia.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Actually Doug, by 'Modern Era' he means the Industrial Revolution. Of course the very notion that Africans were still living in the "neolithic" as he claims by the beginning that era is hilarious! LOL Especially considering that Africans were using metallurgy long before Europeans and that as cited by Alive, they were even using carbon steel well before the 'Modern Era' when Europeans supposedly "invented" it!
But you are right, Hore resorts to distractions from the topic at hand. And the points of the topic still stand.
You are probably right Djehuty, but even so that doesn't help the nutty Professor. In reality he has no choice but to focus on MODERNISM, meaning the last 200 years, as a source of pride and pinnacle of European "civilization" because for the over 200,000 years of human existence before this Europeans were NOT major players in ANY serious sense of the word. And for the last 5000 years, OTHER parts of the world have been leading the charge of civilization, while Europe was LATE to the game. Africa, Asia and the Americas ALL had civilization PRIOR to Europe, so therefore, European IQ is nothing SPECIAL in terms of human development. It is a MODERN FARCE designed to reinforce a MODERNIST perspective, which PURELY focuses on PRESENT history in order to IGNORE the fact that Europeans are NOT the prominent force behind the historical development of human civilization.
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
I really do no understand where the Notion that the Moors were not a culture that included black Africans. While I do believe there were "Whites" or Tawny Moors as Dr. Van Sertima calls them I believe the majority were indigenous Black Africans and Moorish Spain maybe resembled that of Egypt in the later period when Herodotus visited and noted the Egyptians were a black people with curly hair.
I mean if Blacks had been an important part of the Fatimid Dynasty why is Moorish Spain an exemption?
Yes, I find it funny how White Supremacists will use the so called "Modern Era" as proof of their superiority...LOL. The Moors were not only masters in the area of Astronomy but they excelled in Mechanics, Surgery, Geography, and agriculture this is of course hundreds of years before Europe. As someone noted Earlier the Reason the West is even advanced is due to the fact that the advanced cultures of the East and of Africa failed to unite under one banner. Europeans realized that it was better for them to unite as with in Spain Queen Isabella and king Ferdinand united the kingdoms of Castile and Aragon. In Al-Andalusia like in African and other Islamic states, the dynasty/empire became so successful, powerful and wealthy that the ruling class began to neglect its military powers. Instead they focused on the prosperity of the moment, so while they had an advanced and prosperous economy and nation the Army was weakened or the King or Caliph failed to name his Heir allowing for disunity and civil wars when he died. This is the same with countless African, Asian, and Islamic Empires...and also with the Naive American cultures too. White Europeans have known the best way to destroy a powerful nation is to turn the people there against each other. This is how they destroyed Africa, the Americas, Arabic and Islamic states and how they continue to do in places like Iraq. The Americans KNEW that Saddam Heiuseein led a secular government and kept the Islamic extremists in their place. Now Iraq is 20 time more chaotic with out Saddam...
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
New research suggests the Greeks borrowed their system known as alphabetic numerals from the Egyptians, and did not develop it themselves as was long believed. - Courtesy of BBC Science
^And that says nothing of the Greek writing itself; remember, there is a reason why even white supremacist fanatics -- who love to deny African contributions -- use a writing system on this board, which is essentially a repackaged ancient Nile Valley script, rather than an indigenous European script...for the same reason that they use a calendar system *today* that uses the Nile Valley example as a basis.
...and oh, I am sure there was also a good reason why Alexandria in the northeast corner of Africa was the major learning center of ancients - including ancient Greeks - for many learners/scholars from just about any social complex that became a part of the geopolitical network, in which many of the then major social complexes around the Mediterranean sea were a party; hint: think the Alexandria Library for example -- why this was the main learning center for Greek scholars, rather than a mainland ancient Greek example.
...
An analysis by Dr Stephen Chrisomalis of McGill University in Montreal, Canada, showed striking similarities between Greek alphabetic numerals and Egyptian demotic numerals, used in Egypt from the late 8th Century BC until around AD 450. - Courtesy of BBC Science
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Greeks did have learning centers in Greece. A connection between greece and Egypt in terms of greek development is rejected by all Classical scholars. Greek learning was almost entirely hjome grown. This is exactly why Greece is the foundation of Western Civilization and Egypt is not.
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
Recap: main learning center!
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Obviously TheAmericanPatriot has a limited capacity for comprehension. The overt point is that Greece expanded to conquer the KNOWN civilizations of the world at the time. NONE of these civilizations were in Europe. Egypt, Mesopotamia and India are all OUTSIDE of Europe and this is precisely where the Greeks went. The purpose was clear, which was to ABSORB the wisdom and culture of these ancient homes of civilization under the banner of Ancient Greece. Again, NONE of these places were in Europe and the only reason that Europeans admire Alexander so much is because of the politics of CONQUEST and using other cultures to ENRICH oneself. Ptolomy followed up on this by building the library of Alexander as a place where ALL the wisdom of the known world (NON EUROPEAN) would be collected and debated by (Greek) scholars.
quote: At the time of Demetrius, Greek libraries were usually collections of manuscripts by private individuals, such as Aristotle's Library of his own and other works. Egypt's temples often had shelves containing an assortment of religious and official texts, as did certain Museums in the Greek world. It was Ptolemy I's great ambition to possess all known world literature that created the idea of creating a true library. John Tzetzes records several centuries later that Callimachus cataloged 400,000 "mixed" scrolls (probably those that contained more than one chapter, work, or even author) and 90,000 "unmixed", plus an additional 42,000 in the Serapeum. Ptolemy's successors' methods for achieving his goal were certainly unique. Ptolemy III wrote a letter "to all the world's sovereigns" asking to borrow their books (Galen 17.1 Kühn p. 601ff). When Athens lent him the texts to Euripides, Aeschylus, and Sophocles, he had them copied, returned the copies, and kept the originals. Supposedly, all ships that stopped in the port of Alexandria were searched for books which were given them same treatment, thus the term "ship libraries" for the collection housed in the Museum. This unorthodox procedure did at least inspire the first systematic work in emendation and collation of classical texts without which none of the authors would have survived.
No classical scholar anywhere agrees with your point of view Doug
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Facts don't need agreement. Facts are either accepted or they aren't and there is NO SCHOLAR that disputes the fact that Alexandria was a center of Greek learning or that much of that learning came from cultures OTHER than Greece.
I think you need to actually CONSULT some scholars pretending to represent their views.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ LOL @ the nutty professor squirming! Hore, what Explora and Doug present to you comes from the very same 'mainstream' scholarship you keep rambling about!! Or do you not consider The Learning Center of the BBC to be mainstream anymore??
You already failed to address the points of the topic above. Please don't even bother goint to another topic you know you'll fail to properly adress also! Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
That isn't to say that the Greeks did not build on this knowledge, but the idea that Greek knowledge ONLY came from the minds of Greeks is PATENTLY FALSE. Contrary to what you think, NO scholar actually believes this. AND since civilization was not BORN in Greece, there is no DOUBT that Greek civilization was influenced by those places where civilization arose the earliest like Mesopotamia, Egypt and India. NO scholar can pretend that Greeks were the first civilization, because they weren't. The influence of Mesopotamia alone on Greece is overwhelming, not to mention Egypt and India as well. There are SO MANY fundamental facts of influence from these places on Greece that the idea of Greece being an ISLAND of intellect and civilization in a sea of ignorance is PURE PROPAGANDA.
The science and knowledge of Moorish Spain came from Greece, Rome, India, Persia, Mesopotamia, Egypt and the far east. Greek knowledge was only one aspect of this tradition. And certainly the traditions of knowledge are FAR OLDER in India, Persia, Mesopotamia and Egypt than Greece.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You ncan invent scholarship all you want Doug but you need to find me a classical scholar that does not believe that Greek development was internal. It is universally taught that way across the board. The cultures you mentioned recieved from the Greeks, they did not contribute to the Greeks.
Posted by prmiddleeastern (Member # 14038) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Western Civilization created the modern world we all live in. All of you guys are speaking english here for a reason. I suppose we can contrast Oxford and MIT with Somalia and the Sudan. Hati is a text book case. Not a white man in it and it is run like a dog pound by it's own people.
Western civilization is what it si because of the genetic, racial and cultural diversity on there,American speak English not because they wanted to, is because you forced them to speak it,African came here with thier own language and culture, but you took it from them to assimilate them to your culture and dominate them as your slaves,Amerindians lived with thier own language and culture and you also tried to streal it from them but they fpought back and still are speaking them and still American whites are trying to dominate them but they still resist.The problem with haiti is that there are wars between its people and a bad government because of evil individuals there.
Posted by prmiddleeastern (Member # 14038) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: The cultures you mentioned recieved from the Greeks, they did not contribute to the Greeks.
Also the Greeks created thier culture dominating and destroying other cultures, similar to what white american are doing now, that is the way they did it.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: You ncan invent scholarship all you want Doug but you need to find me a classical scholar that does not believe that Greek development was internal. It is universally taught that way across the board. The cultures you mentioned recieved from the Greeks, they did not contribute to the Greeks.
What precisely is Greek culture that was internal and not the result of influences of older civilizations? Sculpture? Art? Math? Architecture? Horses? Chariots? Armor? Swords? Sandals? Perfume? Clothes?
NONE of those things ORIGINATE in Greece and ALL of them were influenced by OUTSIDE cultures.
On top of that Greece at its height spanned 3 continents and had very distinct cultural differences found among these various regions. The farthest Western region had more similarities to Indian culture. The Mesopotamian region had similarities to that culture and of course you had the self described PHARAOHS of Egypt. So what on earth are you talking about?
And lastly, Greece did NOT bring math, architecture, science or religion to Egypt, Mesopotamia or India. They did not bring astronomy or astrology to Mesopotamia, India or Egypt. They did not invent cosmology and religion. What they did is CONQUERED more ancient cultures and BUILT on what was already there. Greece is NOT the origin of civilization. People had civilizations thousands of years before the Greeks and it is from there that ALL civilization originates. So called Western civilization is really a "melting pot" of VARIOUS ancient cultural influences from Africa, Asia, Greece, India and elsewhere. And in reality Western civilization did not exist, as a reference to the cultures and civilization that was built in Western Europe because western Europe HAD NO civilization that a) ORIGINATED in Western Europe or b) existed more than 1000 years ago. The West is not ancient Greece. Greece spans Europe and Asia and was a crossroads between the two. It was not the epitome of a "Western" paradigm, meaning purely the result of INTERNAL European ideas that originate in the WEST of Europe, which was a BACKWATER at the time of the Greeks.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Macedonian Empire of Alexander the Greek:
Certainly MOST of this Empire was not in Europe and reflects the fact that the most of the ancient "civilized world" was not in Europe. So it is impossible that the Greeks or Alexander in the third century B.C. INTRODUCED civilizations to places who had already been civilized for upwards of 3 to 4 thousand years prior.
Show me ONE scholar who contradicts this.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: You ncan invent scholarship all you want Doug but you need to find me a classical scholar that does not believe that Greek development was internal.
Yes you're absolutely right!!!
White scholars, such as Mary the philipino jacka**, believes that Greek classical philosophy was "home grown".
At last Mary finds a kindred spirit on so-called Greek philosophy not being a stolen legacy!
And to put it in perspective, Alexander the Greek came along almost 1000 years after Ramses "The Great", who was also a great military leader and someone who expanded territorial conquests by land and sea. Not to mention Thutmosis III who was another great military leader who led combined sea and land campaigns in the Levant and elsewhere 1w00 years prior to Alexander. Then there is Senwosret III who is called the Napoleon of Egypt and even mentioned by the Greeks who came along almost 1500 years prior to Alexander.
So what is the debate? What part of Greece was LATE to the game of civilization do you not understand?
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Macedonian Empire of Alexander the Greek:
Certainly MOST of this Empire was not in Europe and reflects the fact that the most of the ancient "civilized world" was not in Europe. So it is impossible that the Greeks or Alexander in the third century B.C. INTRODUCED civilizations to places who had already been civilized for upwards of 3 to 4 thousand years prior.
Show me ONE scholar who contradicts this.
And more to the point, how can you call this "Western" civilization when MOST of it was in the EAST?
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Greeks did have learning centers in Greece. A connection between greece and Egypt in terms of greek development is rejected by all Classical scholars. Greek learning was almost entirely hjome grown. This is exactly why Greece is the foundation of Western Civilization and Egypt is not.
Do you even stop to read the non sense you post? Greece is not the the foundation of Western Civilization, Rome is. Despite what you and other White American racist believe Greece's cultural center of influence was the East. The Greeks were not even considered a part of Western Civilization for a majority of the Dark Ages in Europe.
The only thing Greece founded for the West was the notion of Democracy and even that is thought to be Eastern in origin.
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M:
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Macedonian Empire of Alexander the Greek:
Certainly MOST of this Empire was not in Europe and reflects the fact that the most of the ancient "civilized world" was not in Europe. So it is impossible that the Greeks or Alexander in the third century B.C. INTRODUCED civilizations to places who had already been civilized for upwards of 3 to 4 thousand years prior.
Show me ONE scholar who contradicts this.
And more to the point, how can you call this "Western" civilization when MOST of it was in the EAST?
Exactly, this totally puts the notion that Greece was some how the Foundation for the West on its head. The Greeks were involved mainly with the East and Egypt and it was the East that preserved the Knowledge of the Greeks. While the Moors and all civilizations under the influence of Islamic scholarship including those of Africa such as Mali and Songhai had the works of the Greeks flourishing in the Scholarly circles the so called west shut down the Greek Schools of Philosophy and considered the Greeks to be pagan barbarians. The West had NO...NOOOO interest in the Greeks it was all concerned with Rome. Thanks to the Moors and the Islamic scholars we still have the works of the ancient Greeks available to us.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: How were the evil whites able to that to these people if what you are say is correct Djehuti. Should it not be the other way around. Your position simply defies all logic. African Shakespeare? pray tell, who is that? African Newton? We could go on and on here. Africa is a cultural backwater and has been since the dawn of history and continues thus today. The contient is being over run now by Chinese and Indian immigrants and in the end they will dominate the landscape there.
Western Civilization created the modern world we all live in. All of you guys are speaking english here for a reason. I suppose we can contrast Oxford and MIT with Somalia and the Sudan. Hati is a text book case. Not a white man in it and it is run like a dog pound by it's own people.
The "Western" world we live in today was created by CONQUEST. It was not created by intellect, respect for nature, human rights or lofty ideals about liberty, peace and universal brotherhood. The Europeans conquered precisely because THEY WERE NOT CIVILIZED. Being civilized means being CIVIL, which means not coming into someone's house, stabbing them in the back after they feed you and then RAPING their wife and killing their children. THAT is not CIVILIZED behavior in ANY sense. If you BELIEVE that this is what it means to be civilized, then YOU are the one who has LOW intelligence. The reason the Europeans were SO ABLE to conquer is because they took violence, death and destruction to a WHOLE NEW level and the fact that they were NOT CIVIL towards the people they met, who WERE CIVIL and therefore CIVIL-IZED. In all cases when Europeans arrived at new shores they were almost always welcomed in a CIVIL fashion and in almost ALL cases returned such gestures of CIVILITY with SAVAGERY. That is not something done by people with HIGH AMOUNTS of intelligence, no matter HOW MUCH you want to pretend it is.
As for Harvard and MIT, they would not exist if it was not for the examples set by the Universities BUILT by Africans and other NON EUROPEANS in Europe in the 10th century AD. But even with that, they WOULD NOT EXIST if it had NOT been for the UNINTELLIGENT SAVAGERY that early European explorers possessed when they first arrived in the Americas. There WAS NO MIT involved in their actions and MOST of the science used at the time ORIGINATED with the writings and knowledge of the Muslim world which included Africa, Asia and the Levant.
And on top of all of that, the OLDEST University in the world is not even in Europe, it is in Africa and is the University of Fez, which is the forerunner of Universities built in Spain that are the BASIS of modern Universities in the U.S. And at the time that Fez was founded there WERE NO Universities in Western Europe, because MOST of Europe was STILL living a neolithic existence ITSELF. So all your claiming of Europeans to have found Africans in "neolithic" conditions is A LIE. Not to mention that Egypt and Sudan had even OLDER civilizations that puts that NONSENSE to sleep, not to mention many other parts of Africa, including Mauretania and elsewhere. And this is on top of the fact that many civilizations had already come and gone by the time Western Europe STARTED emerging from the NEOLITHIC age that they lived in.
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
^^^^^^ Exactly, the only reason the so called "west" is advanced is due the hard work of preserving the intellectual work of the Ancient world and applying it to their civilizations. This is the foundation of the West....not some Storm Front dream of a white blond vikings creating their own civilization....but it is of the Greeks and Romans coming to these so called "Aryans" and murdering them, enslaving them and mocking them...and FORCING these so called "Aryans" into civilization. As far as the Greeks go, yes they were a white people but they do not represent the White people of Northern Europe, who want to claim their civilization. In any case the Greeks as a white people developed off of cultures and people that were more advanced and more older than theirs by people who were Asiatic or Africans. The Greeks contributed greatly to the pool of knowledge established by Asians and Africans and were revered and respected by Asians and Africans who KNEW of the importance of the Greeks before the so called West even thought about the Greeks as white people.
It it typical of a Red Neck American to use American universities and compare them to Africa. As if MIT or Harvard represent anything that is indigenous to Europe or represent something that was not established in Africa before Europeans came and pillaged the thriving and intellectual elite there.
It must be to note that Scholarship, Civilization, Written languages etc. in Africa were ESTABLISHED PEACEFULLY. The Arabs didn't invade Ghana and force them to develop a written language. The Egyptians didn't obtain the hieroglyph script by force nor did they force it on the Merotic Empire. I can go on and on but the facts remain, had the Romans not forced the illiterate and backward barbarian Nordics into civilization it would be a different case with Northern Europe.
There is nothing Europeans have done that was not practiced, invented, written about, or developed by Asians and Africans before them. We didn't need Europe or White people to arrive in the Modern Age....This is a misunderstanding that whites everywhere some how hold into their minds. It is unfortunately for them, a false inferiority mindset. The Moors had advanced surgery, agriculture, irrigation, city planning, and mechanics. The Mechanics of the Moors was astonishing. The had Mechanical beasts that entertained guests, mechanical thrones that rose off the ground and much more. Hero of Alexandria discovered the powers of steam around 150 B.C. Hero was either Phoenician or Egyptian in origin not European. Let me just note had not the Muslims preserved the works of Hero we would not know about him. If not for the Muslims we would not have the philosophy of the Greeks which would lead to the works of Europeans such as Copernicus, Newton, Galileo, or Einstein.
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
If the Truth is told Eurocentrics have no respect for other cultures OR of the foundations that other cultures set. This is why the Greeks once again do not fit in the Model of the West and why Rome and Byzantium are better suited as the foundation from the West. The Greeks broke their necks to travel and learn from people that were different from them. The Greeks knew that the works of the Mesopotamians, Indians, and Egyptians were valuable and must be preserved and used in Greek culture. The Greeks knew very well that the cultures older than theirs was somehow important to Greece even though the people we "Barbarians" who didn't speak Greek. Alexander the Great Revered Egypt as well as Persian culture. He knew it was important for his empire to be on the ground of the Ancient Cradles of civilization. Would the Greeks had burned the works of the Aztec peoples whom had Astrological observatories more advanced than theirs, a script advanced than theirs...intriguing Architecture and irrigation as advanced as theirs? It is funny to note that while the West considered Greeks to be Pagan barbarians the Scholars of Mali wrote enthusiastically about Aristotle the Muslim worlds favorite Greek philosopher. Isn't that funny....The Whites mocked the Greeks while Blacks praised them....
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by akoben: Yes you're absolutely right!!!
White scholars, such as Mary the philipino jacka**, believes that Greek classical philosophy was "home grown".
At last Mary finds a kindred spirit on so-called Greek philosophy not being a stolen legacy!
LOLOLOLOL
Yes Classical philosophy was! I never said all Greek philosophy, you moron. The roots of ancient Greek philosophy before Classical times was indeed Asian and African. So you can stop pulling on my pinoy penis. Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: You ncan invent scholarship all you want Doug but you need to find me a classical scholar that does not believe that Greek development was internal. It is universally taught that way across the board. The cultures you mentioned recieved from the Greeks, they did not contribute to the Greeks.
That depends on the time period you speak of. Yes Classical Greek civilization was developed internally but you keep forgetting that it was built on older roots! Greek civilization itself did not begin in Classical times but stretches earlier to the Bronze and even Neolithic ages before then. What you fail to realize is that mainstream scholarship agrees that these far more ancient roots are African and Western Asian! Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
And for the rest of you intelligent posters, don't allow the professor to lead you away with his silly red-herrings.
Let's not forget that the topic of the thread is Were the Moors black?
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: Yes Classical philosophy was! I never said all Greek philosophy, you moron. The roots of ancient Greek philosophy before Classical times was indeed Asian and African. So you can stop pulling on my pinoy penis.
Classical "Greek" philosophy is a stolen legacy you dumba**. You were required to back up your denials and bigoted dismissal of Prof. James here and you still chicken s**t.
Now you found a comrade in White American Patriot who agrees with your anti-African position. You fools always find each other somehow even when you pretend not to be on the same side. LOL
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by akoben: Classical "Greek" philosophy is a stolen legacy you dumba**. You were required to back up your denials and bigoted dismissal of Prof. James here and you still chicken s**t.
Nope. I did back up the FACTS in that thread you linked with basic historical facts that James got wrong, but you claimed it to be mere repetition of Lefkowitz when instead it is common historical knowledge. We also discussed in this thread here how there was Egyptian influence on Greek philosophy that the Greeks themselves made no attempt to hide and therefore it wasn't "stolen", and that such influence stretched farther back to archaic times and NOT Classical times.
So you are WRONG on both counts, and you know this as seen through your frustration via your ad-hominem cursing.
quote:Now you found a comrade in White American Patriot who agrees with your anti-African position. You fools always find each other somehow even when you pretend not to be on the same side. LOL
LMAO @ your psychotic delusion and projection! I'm not anti-African, but you are anti-Jewish. And since you are a biggot like Americanpatriot, it is YOU who has a lot in common with him! And like him, you too are in denial about alot of things and project your biggotry onto others.
Perhaps you and him should get together and do group therapy by a Jewish pyschiatrist. LOL Better yet, let's make the pyschiatrist a Falasha-- both Jewish and black so both you and patriot can confront your fears togther! Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by akoben:
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: Yes Classical philosophy was! I never said all Greek philosophy, you moron. The roots of ancient Greek philosophy before Classical times was indeed Asian and African. So you can stop pulling on my pinoy penis.
Classical "Greek" philosophy is a stolen legacy you dumba**. You were required to back up your denials and bigoted dismissal of Prof. James here and you still chicken s**t.
Now you found a comrade in White American Patriot who agrees with your anti-African position. You fools always find each other somehow even when you pretend not to be on the same side. LOL
Man you must be illiterate or either completely retarded of Classical civilization. The Greeks learned from other Asian and African cultures and applied it to their own...or as you say STOLE...but they developed their own philosophical theologies. The Greeks were an inspiration to African peoples and the produced ideas that would have been deemed heretic in Egypt.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Actually, wako-ako is illiterate and completely retarded about everything!!
Of course the learned or gained knowledge from cultures of western Asia and Africa (Egypt). Most of this cultural input took place during archaic times before the Classical period. Thus the very reason for many differences between Classical Greek thought and Egyptian, but many older roots and concepts especially those of 'natural' laws and science (from Egypt) remained the same.
And of course it was a cultural borrowing and no "theft" as the Greeks were very honest that their more ancient traditions did come from foreign and older civilizations like Egypt. They did NOT raid Egyptian libraries and steal knowledge! LOL Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: And for the rest of you intelligent posters, don't allow the professor to lead you away with his silly red-herrings.
Let's not forget that the topic of the thread is Were the Moors black?
The answers to this question are shown below
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: Oh we haven't forgotten the topic at hand. Doug and I have brought up a serious and often over looked topic....The World without the Northern European and his so called "Western" civilization. This is a topic that needs be discussed. As I said before Whites believe they are humanities savior that pioneered the world into the modern era when this is nothing but a fabricated lie. Now starting in the 19th century the West somehow STOLE Greece and incorporated her into its culture trying to make Greece the foundation of the West when Greece was actually more incorporated into the Eastern world affairs. Rome for a long time was the West's center or foundation now its Greece. It shows how shallow these people really are....its pathetic. Its because they realize that Rome was nothing more than a fake shovanistic megalomanic culture that was controlled by Greedy, money hungry, power hungry maniacs that did nothing but conquer, tax people to death and eventually self destruct under it own greed and false security. The funny thing is ROME is the culture that the West especially AMERICA was built on NOT GREECE. This is why we have a Capitol instead of the Polis, a Senate..etc. This is the culture the West was built on.
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: Yes Classical philosophy was! I never said all Greek philosophy, you moron. The roots of ancient Greek philosophy before Classical times was indeed Asian and African. So you can stop pulling on my pinoy penis.
Classical "Greek" philosophy is a stolen legacy you dumba**. You were required to back up your denials and bigoted dismissal of Prof. James here and you still chicken s**t.
Now you found a comrade in White American Patriot who agrees with your anti-African position. You fools always find each other somehow even when you pretend not to be on the same side. LOL
Man you must be illiterate or either completely retarded of Classical civilization. The Greeks learned from other Asian and African cultures and applied it to their own...or as you say STOLE...but they developed their own philosophical theologies. The Greeks were an inspiration to African peoples and the produced ideas that would have been deemed heretic in Egypt.
Actually in your attempt at saving Mary from her obligations you expose yourself as the illiterate, almost as illiterate as her! The word "stolen" actually comes from George GM James book you unread jacka** and it refers specific claims of what is known classical "Greek" philosophy. If you don't know the issues involved shut the f**k up and don't expose your ignorance.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Actually, wako-ako is illiterate and completely retarded about everything!!
Of course the learned or gained knowledge from cultures of western Asia and Africa (Egypt). Most of this cultural input took place during archaic times before the Classical period. Thus the very reason for many differences between Classical Greek thought and Egyptian, but many older roots and concepts especially those of 'natural' laws and science (from Egypt) remained the same.
And of course it was a cultural borrowing and no "theft" as the Greeks were very honest that their more ancient traditions did come from foreign and older civilizations like Egypt. They did NOT raid Egyptian libraries and steal knowledge! LOL
You're a** isn't out of the fire yet! LOL Coal tailing that jacka** who even down plays the influence of Egyptian architecture on Greco-Roman architecture, (he's an underhand Eurocentric just like you) can't save you from your obligations. You still have yet to back up your positions here. Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
Greece *did not stop* getting cultural input from the Nile Valley into the classical period, and that was another tacit point which was to be gleaned from the example provided by the aforementioned BBC Science citation; it was not referring to archaic Greece, but as a matter of fact, it was referring to classical Greece.
Posted by Mmmkay (Member # 10013) on :
quote:Originally posted by akoben:
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Actually, wako-ako is illiterate and completely retarded about everything!!
Of course the learned or gained knowledge from cultures of western Asia and Africa (Egypt). Most of this cultural input took place during archaic times before the Classical period. Thus the very reason for many differences between Classical Greek thought and Egyptian, but many older roots and concepts especially those of 'natural' laws and science (from Egypt) remained the same.
And of course it was a cultural borrowing and no "theft" as the Greeks were very honest that their more ancient traditions did come from foreign and older civilizations like Egypt. They did NOT raid Egyptian libraries and steal knowledge! LOL
^ You are profoundly retarded, and thats not a figure of speech, your not very bright lol.
Your pretty lucky their is no moderation on this board as you and your iterations would have been long gone by now.
Back to trolling now.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
^ come on, show us your pink panties mmmkay. we know that's all you're good for. LOL
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur: Greece *did not stop* getting cultural input from the Nile Valley into the classical period, and that was another tacit point which was to be gleaned from the example provided by the aforementioned BBC Science citation; it was not referring to archaic Greece, but as a matter of fact, it was referring to classical Greece.
Oh my, how will Mary respond...
One of her favorites have now openly distanced themselves from her BS! LOL
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Actually, wako-ako is illiterate and completely retarded about everything!!
Of course the learned or gained knowledge from cultures of western Asia and Africa (Egypt). Most of this cultural input took place during archaic times before the Classical period. Thus the very reason for many differences between Classical Greek thought and Egyptian, but many older roots and concepts especially those of 'natural' laws and science (from Egypt) remained the same.
And of course it was a cultural borrowing and no "theft" as the Greeks were very honest that their more ancient traditions did come from foreign and older civilizations like Egypt. They did NOT raid Egyptian libraries and steal knowledge! LOL
Conquering other cultures and acquiring their knowledge through warfare is not a peaceful transfer of knowledge. These cultures were raided and their libraries sacked, along with the rest of the country as part of conquest. Whether they acknowledge it or not it is still theft in the form of war and conquest.
Posted by Alive-(What Box) (Member # 10819) on :
Honestly, I once read a blog where upon recognition/verification that a poster was incorrect in one of his premises (that blacks have lesser neurons - the reverse is universally accepted as true) he seriously hypothesized that most of us get too much air when we breathe in because of our noses - I spilled my drink laughing almost spat on the keyboard and didn't respond (hadn't posted to begin with).
White Supremacy is old, really old infact, and accordingly senior moments abound.
quote:Originally posted by akoben: How can you talk about "racial differences" when you don't believe in "races"?
Ako: I was referring to the negligeable differences in black and white head averages and should have worded that better. Thanks for catching that, as indeed those comments could have easily been misconstrued as me implying that difference in brain size is 'racial'.
It is not -- unless you believe in a large-bodied melanated sub-species of humans adapted to the coldest of climates whom all (or predominantly most) large headed people are descended from.
Politically and socially (like Santa Claus) races do exist, but this *racial dichotomy* of homo sapiens sapiens has little to no meaning biologically [-> in reality] and folks who fuss about it are usually politically driven people.
I don't *believe in* 'human races' because they don't really exist: races as sub-species within our species (homo sapiens sapiens) that is.
Posted by Alive-(What Box) (Member # 10819) on :
^meant to bold: "head averages"
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
4 months ago: Ethnic Arab women spend the heat of the day in a grass hut at the makeshift village of Taiba, where Black Arabs displaced by insecurity and tribal tensions have set up shelters some 40 kilometers (30 miles) north of the eastern Chadian town of Gos Beida, June 9, 2008. The village receives no support from aid agencies. Reflecting the violence in Darfur that has swept in both directions across the Chad-Sudan border, there are 250,000 Sudanese refugees scattered in a dozen camps in eastern Chad and 180,000 internally displaced Chadians, U.N. officials say.
source: download
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
4 months ago: Abdallah Mahamat, 38, chief of the makeshift village of Taiba, stands in his grass hut some 40 kilometers (30 miles) north of the eastern Chadian town of Gos Beida, June 9, 2008. The village, where Black Arabs displaced by insecurity and tribal tensions have set up shelters, receives no support from aid agencies. Reflecting the violence in Darfur that has swept in both directions across the Chad-Sudan border, there are 250,000 Sudanese refugees scattered in a dozen camps in eastern Chad and 180,000 internally displaced Chadians, U.N. officials say.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur: Greece *did not stop* getting cultural input from the Nile Valley into the classical period, and that was another tacit point which was to be gleaned from the example provided by the aforementioned BBC Science citation; it was not referring to archaic Greece, but as a matter of fact, it was referring to classical Greece.
Oh my, how will Mary respond...
One of her favorites have now openly distanced themselves from her BS! LOL
I never said Greece stopped getting cultural influence by Classical times! I specifically spoke of philosophical influence which obviously was not "stolen" as you say.
How is Explorateur "my favorite"? Because he like I actually uses his brains? LOL
You can stop wetting your panties with excitement or pleas from other intelligent posters, Eva. Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I would like to see data from Classical scholars used to back up some of these silly ideas put forward here.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Of course, you haven't said anything as usual. Classical scholars cannot contradict facts. Greece at its high point was a EASTERN oriented culture, which spanned 3 continents (or 2 if you prefer) and had FUSED Greek culture with that of the natives in many parts. Greek rulers of Egypt called themselves pharaohs and continued building pharaonic style monuments. Greek rulers in Bactria, near India, fused their culture with pre existing Indian beliefs. MOST of the Greek empire WAS NOT in Europe or Greece. This is a fact that NO classical scholar can deny and therefore it is ridiculous to try and use them as a crutch for YOUR nonsense views of Greek history.
Just like your NONSENSE about Moors NOT being a reference to African muslims who were primarily black.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Obviously you know more than the experts in the field. Let me put it this way Doug. Classical Scholars will decide what is accepted history and what is not concerning greece. This demented poppy cock based on emotion and some sort of black political agenda is left out on the nut frienge of the discpline. If you cannot quote a Classical scholar to back up your point you do not have one. I suppose the next thing you will tell us is that you know more about medicine than our finest physicans.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^^ LOL You can keep denying it all you want to Hore, but even your precious mainstream scholarship agrees with what we've been saying all along about, well.. everything including foreign influence on Classical Greeks.
Here is what one mainstream source says about Egyptian influence on Western law:
In many respects, the ancient Egyptian laws remain with us today. The Greek lawgiver Solon visited Egypt in the 6th century BC, studied their law and adapted many aspects of it into the legal system of Athens. During Egypt's Greek period, Egyptian law continued to influence the separate Greek legal system. When the Romans took Egypt, their legal system was effected by both the Greeks and Egyptians, and today, we continue to implement a number of aspects of Roman law.
This is just one example. Do you want another one? Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Obviously you know more than the experts in the field. Let me put it this way Doug. Classical Scholars will decide what is accepted history and what is not concerning greece. This demented poppy cock based on emotion and some sort of black political agenda is left out on the nut frienge of the discpline. If you cannot quote a Classical scholar to back up your point you do not have one. I suppose the next thing you will tell us is that you know more about medicine than our finest physicans.
But here is the point. YOU are the one who is pretending to decide what is accepted history and what is not. I would be glad to engage an actual classical SCHOLAR, as I am sure it would be enlightening. But YOU, I am afraid, ARE NOT. Therefore, YOU can jump up and down about classical SCHOLARS all you want, but that does NOT mean that YOUR nonsense is valid or the same as that of such scholars.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti:
quote:Originally posted by akoben:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur: Greece *did not stop* getting cultural input from the Nile Valley into the classical period, and that was another tacit point which was to be gleaned from the example provided by the aforementioned BBC Science citation; it was not referring to archaic Greece, but as a matter of fact, it was referring to classical Greece.
Oh my, how will Mary respond...
One of her favorites have now openly distanced themselves from her BS! LOL
I never said Greece stopped getting cultural influence by Classical times! I specifically spoke of philosophical influence which obviously was not "stolen" as you say.
How is Explorateur "my favorite"? Because he like I actually uses his brains? LOL
You can stop wetting your panties with excitement or pleas from other intelligent posters, Eva.
Everyone saw what you said. Everyone saw your BS denial of a stolen legacy. Stop being such a p**y and at least try to back up your BS for once in your pathetic life.
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Obviously you know more than the experts in the field. Let me put it this way Doug. Classical Scholars will decide what is accepted history and what is not concerning greece. This demented poppy cock based on emotion and some sort of black political agenda is left out on the nut frienge of the discpline. If you cannot quote a Classical scholar to back up your point you do not have one. I suppose the next thing you will tell us is that you know more about medicine than our finest physicans.
You are the one my friend that needs to back up his claims, Where is YOUR proof that shows the Moors were Arabs...? You have no stance to question another poster about his sources.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, I asked you to find a classicl scholar who supported your view. That is not asking TOO MUCH. Just one classical scholar who will back up all of this made up negroid african nonsense you promote. Greek history is taught from the position that their civilization was "home grown." It is reasonable for me to attach more credibility to their position (Classical scholars) than yours, or even my own.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: Yes Classical Greek civilization was developed internally but you keep forgetting that it was built on older roots! Greek civilization itself did not begin in Classical times but stretches earlier to the Bronze and even Neolithic ages before then. What you fail to realize is that mainstream scholarship agrees that these far more ancient roots are African and Western Asian!
quote: You can keep denying it all you want to Hore, but even your precious mainstream scholarship agrees with what we've been saying all along about, well.. everything including foreign influence on Classical Greeks.
Here is what one mainstream source says about Egyptian influence on Western law:
In many respects, the ancient Egyptian laws remain with us today. The Greek lawgiver Solon visited Egypt in the 6th century BC, studied their law and adapted many aspects of it into the legal system of Athens. During Egypt's Greek period, Egyptian law continued to influence the separate Greek legal system. When the Romans took Egypt, their legal system was effected by both the Greeks and Egyptians, and today, we continue to implement a number of aspects of Roman law.
This is just one example. Do you want another one?
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug, I asked you to find a classicl scholar who supported your view. That is not asking TOO MUCH. Just one classical scholar who will back up all of this made up negroid african nonsense you promote. Greek history is taught from the position that their civilization was "home grown." It is reasonable for me to attach more credibility to their position (Classical scholars) than yours, or even my own.
You haven't asked me anything and the claims I made are not something that need to BE CONFIRMED by Classical scholars.
Simply put:
1) Egypt, Mesopotamia (Sumer, Elam, Persia, Babylon) and the Indus Valley PREDATE "classical" Greece by 3000 years or more. Therefore, CIVILIZATION did NOT start with the Greeks. PERIOD. That means ARTS, CULTURE, SCIENCE, WARFARE, ARCHITECTURE, COSMOLOGY and PHILOSOPHY. NONE of it started with the Greeks. NO classical author can dispute this and it is not necessary to CONSULT them.
2) Egypt was ruled in the late period by GREEKS who ADOPTED Egyptian customs. Again THESE ARE FACTS that ANYONE who studies history would know and be familiar with. Again, NO NEED to consult "classical" scholars on this.
The point is that the Greeks were but ONE of MANY civilizations that came along, they WERE NOT the first, they DID NOT invent civilization, they did NOT invent LAWS, the DID NOT invent science, they DID NOT invent writing, they did NOT invent art, they did NOT invent JACK. They IMPROVED on it.
The civilization of Western EUROPE did not come into existence until LONG AFTER the Greeks were gone from the scene. They have NO DIRECT connection to Ancient Greece. Greece was MOSTLY ORIENTED TO THE EAST and AFRICA and was NOT in Western Europe AT ALL.
This charade of you justifying your LACK of knowledge on the backs of classical scholars is LAME. YOU need to support YOUR OWN views and stop trying to rely on someone else. There IS NOTHING that I need to refer to the classical authors on, I have a GOOD general understanding of history and where the Greeks fit in.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Greek history is taught from the position that their civilization was "home grown."
American Patriot= Mary LOL
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Indeed, both professor Hore and professor Lefkowitz are just suffering from major psychological denial brought about by their racism.
Speaking of psychological denial, Assoben what about your disgrace as well as your sexuality. Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Indeed, both professor Hore and professor Lefkowitz are just suffering from major psychological denial brought about by their racism.
Yes indeed! Self criticism is a good start Mary. Keep it up. LOL
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ LOL As usual you delude yourself. Of course I am not Lefkowitz neither do I espouse any of her claims.
quote:Djehuti wrote about you: Actually his tactic since his first wretched appearance on this forum is to pretend to be an Africanist, yet all the while hide his own biggoted anti-jewish agenda. He cites Afrocentric books and sources he thinks can back up agenda by discrediting Jews both ancient and modern. Hence, his constant troll-crazed advocations of George James' book Stolen Legacy! I merely pointed out James' book is wrong due to basic historical errors on his part, as well as the fact that the Greeks never denied their Egyptian heritage, and what does he do?! He resorts to ad-hominem attacks, claiming I'm an advocate of Mary Lefkowitz! LOL It's more than likely he cited James' book in the first place solely to discredit Lefkowitz herself more than actually refuting her work Not Out of Africa. Yet apparently the derranged nazi forgot that Lefkowitz's work is a rebuttal to Martin Bernal's book Black Athena and that Bernal himself if also Jewish!! LOL
I bet Eva has never read James' work (unlike I) or any other Africanist scholar like Mostafa Gadalla, Molefi Asante, or Diop!! He is a pathetic liar as well as a biggot, and now the foolish nazi jackass only exposes his anti-African bias in this thread! LMAO
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
She is not the only classical scholar Dhehuti. I'll settle from any of them. You guys get on here and just make things up. Classical scholars are the authorities in that field, not you. My mind is open.....
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Yet you make the mistake of generalizing that just because there are experts in the same field they are all in agreement.
Lefkowitz was right about some things but wrong about others-- namely that Greek civilization was completely independent of foreign influence!
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Oh and I forgot:
Bernal is also a Classical scholar and the fact that he Lefkowitz are at odds obviously show that not all experts in a field are in concensus about everything.
Like Lefkowitz, Bernal was also right about some thngs but wrong about others. He is right that Greek civilization is the result of Neolithic to Bronze Age cultures from Asia and Africa.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Jesus Christ Djehuti. Bernal is NOT a classical scholar. He is an old Marxist political scientist. bernal does not count. He was peddling books to the afrocentric and radical market. The first guy, his name escapes me at the moment, that got Lefkowitz fired up was going around billing himself as an Egyptologist and he had no training in the field what so ever, a sociologist. This is all political crap. Lefkowitz is going to be right 99% of the time but that is beside the point. Any classical scholar will do. You cannot have it both ways. You quote experts when they agree with you and ignore them when they do not.
Bernal is not going to shape mainstream classical scholarship. What I want to hear is a SINGLE classical scholar who shares your position, or bernal's for that matter.
Posted by Knowledgeiskey718 (Member # 15400) on :
PRINCE AMONG SLAVES
Ab-dul Rahman Ibrahima Ibn Sori (a.k.a. Abdul-Rahman) was a prince from West Africa who was made a slave in the United States. In 1828, by the order of President John Quincy Adams and Secretary of State Henry Clay, he was freed after spending 40 years in slavery.
He was born in Timbo, West Africa, (in present day Guinea, Fouta Djallon). He was known as the "Prince of Slaves" or "Prince." He was a Fulbe or Fulani, (Fula) from the land of Futa Jallon. Abrahim left Futa in 1774 to study in Mali at Timbuktu. Abrahim was leader of one of his father's army divisions. After losing a battle to warring tribes he was captured and sold to slave traders in 1788 at the age of 26. He was bought by a Natchez, Mississippi cotton and tobacco farmer, where he eventually became the overseer of the plantation of Thomas Foster. In 1794 he married Isabella, another slave of Foster’s, and eventually fathered a large family -- 5 sons and 4 daughters.
By using his knowledge of growing cotton in Futa Jallon, Abdul-Rahman rose to a position of authority on the plantation and became the de facto foreman. This granted him the opportunity to grow his own vegetable garden and sell at the local market. During this time, he met an old acquaintance, Dr. John Cox. Dr. Cox was an Irish surgeon who served on an English ship. He was the first white man to reach Timbo after being stranded by his ship and falling ill. Cox stayed ashore for six months and was taken in by Abdul-Rahman's family. Cox appealed to Foster to sell him "Prince" so he could return to Africa. However, Foster would not budge, since Abdul-Rahman had made himself indispensable to the Foster farm. Dr. Cox continued, until his death in 1816, to seek Abdul-Rahman's freedom, to no avail. After Cox died, his son took up the cause.
In 1826, Abdul-Rahman wrote a letter to his relatives in Africa. A local newspaperman, Andrew Marschalk, who was originally from New York, sent a copy to Senator Thomas Reed in Washington, who forwarded it to the U.S. Consulate in Morocco. Since Abdul-Rahman wrote in Arabic, Marschalk and the U.S. government assumed that he was a Moor. After the Sultan of Morocco read the letter, he asked President Adams and Secretary of State Henry Clay to release Abrahim Abdul Rahman. In 1828, Thomas Foster agreed to the release of Abdul-Rahman, without payment, with the stipulation that Abdul-Rahman had to return to Africa and could not enjoy the rights of being a free man in America. Within two days, Abdul-Rahman raised $200 to buy his wife's freedom and assumed he could do the same for his children.
Before he returned home, he and his wife went to various states and Washington, D.C. He solicited donations, through the press, personal appearances, the American Colonization Society and politicians, to free his family back in Mississppi. Word got back to Foster, who considered this a breach of the agreement. Abdul-Rahman's actions and freedom were also used against President John Quincy Adams by future president Andrew Jackson during the presidential election.
After ten months, Abdul-Rahman and Isabella had only raised half the funds to free their children. They made arrangements to leave America. On March 18, 1829, Abdul-Rahman returned to Africa to die. He went to Monrovia, Liberia with his wife. Abdul-Rahman lived for four months before he contracted a fever and died at the age of 67. He never saw Futa Jallon or his children again.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Jesus Christ Djehuti. Bernal is NOT a classical scholar. He is an old Marxist political scientist. bernal does not count. He was peddling books to the afrocentric and radical market...
LMAO Incorrect. He is a Professor Emeritus of Ancient Eastern Mediterranean Studies, NOT political science! I don't know what his political views are since he never made them clear in any of his books which were about history, not politics. But no doubt your accusation is false as you tend to discredit any white scholar who agrees with non-Eurocentric premises as being "marxist"!
quote:The first guy, his name escapes me at the moment, that got Lefkowitz fired up was going around billing himself as an Egyptologist and he had no training in the field what so ever, a sociologist. This is all political crap.
Bad strawman. We are discussing real experts on the issue not some unnamed fake who can't remember. And of course there is nothing poltical about it! These are historical FACTS. What is truly political crap is the Eurocentric garbage you base your whole life on!
quote:Lefkowitz is going to be right 99% of the time but that is beside the point. Any classical scholar will do. You cannot have it both ways. You quote experts when they agree with you and ignore them when they do not.
But Lefkowitz especially in her rebuttal to Bernal obviously was not right not even close to 90% of the time in her book. Neither was Bernal in his book, but his main thesis is correct. As far as quoting experts, in scholarship it is simple-- agree with them when they are correct and disagree with them when they are not. Experts are not going to be correct 100% of the time and whenever they are not, thier mistakes should be pointed out. It is a matter of not only scholarly ethics but common sense!
quote:Bernal is not going to shape mainstream classical scholarship. What I want to hear is a SINGLE classical scholar who shares your position, or bernal's for that matter.
LOL Again what you fail to realize is that Bernal is NOT alone! There are others who share his postion based on historical and archaeological data. That you deny such evidence is not our concern. Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by Knowledgeiskey718: PRINCE AMONG SLAVES
Ab-dul Rahman Ibrahima Ibn Sori (a.k.a. Abdul-Rahman) was a prince from West Africa who was made a slave in the United States. In 1828, by the order of President John Quincy Adams and Secretary of State Henry Clay, he was freed after spending 40 years in slavery.
He was born in Timbo, West Africa, (in present day Guinea, Fouta Djallon). He was known as the "Prince of Slaves" or "Prince." He was a Fulbe or Fulani, (Fula) from the land of Futa Jallon. Abrahim left Futa in 1774 to study in Mali at Timbuktu. Abrahim was leader of one of his father's army divisions. After losing a battle to warring tribes he was captured and sold to slave traders in 1788 at the age of 26. He was bought by a Natchez, Mississippi cotton and tobacco farmer, where he eventually became the overseer of the plantation of Thomas Foster. In 1794 he married Isabella, another slave of Foster’s, and eventually fathered a large family -- 5 sons and 4 daughters.
By using his knowledge of growing cotton in Futa Jallon, Abdul-Rahman rose to a position of authority on the plantation and became the de facto foreman. This granted him the opportunity to grow his own vegetable garden and sell at the local market. During this time, he met an old acquaintance, Dr. John Cox. Dr. Cox was an Irish surgeon who served on an English ship. He was the first white man to reach Timbo after being stranded by his ship and falling ill. Cox stayed ashore for six months and was taken in by Abdul-Rahman's family. Cox appealed to Foster to sell him "Prince" so he could return to Africa. However, Foster would not budge, since Abdul-Rahman had made himself indispensable to the Foster farm. Dr. Cox continued, until his death in 1816, to seek Abdul-Rahman's freedom, to no avail. After Cox died, his son took up the cause.
In 1826, Abdul-Rahman wrote a letter to his relatives in Africa. A local newspaperman, Andrew Marschalk, who was originally from New York, sent a copy to Senator Thomas Reed in Washington, who forwarded it to the U.S. Consulate in Morocco. Since Abdul-Rahman wrote in Arabic, Marschalk and the U.S. government assumed that he was a Moor. After the Sultan of Morocco read the letter, he asked President Adams and Secretary of State Henry Clay to release Abrahim Abdul Rahman. In 1828, Thomas Foster agreed to the release of Abdul-Rahman, without payment, with the stipulation that Abdul-Rahman had to return to Africa and could not enjoy the rights of being a free man in America. Within two days, Abdul-Rahman raised $200 to buy his wife's freedom and assumed he could do the same for his children.
Before he returned home, he and his wife went to various states and Washington, D.C. He solicited donations, through the press, personal appearances, the American Colonization Society and politicians, to free his family back in Mississppi. Word got back to Foster, who considered this a breach of the agreement. Abdul-Rahman's actions and freedom were also used against President John Quincy Adams by future president Andrew Jackson during the presidential election.
After ten months, Abdul-Rahman and Isabella had only raised half the funds to free their children. They made arrangements to leave America. On March 18, 1829, Abdul-Rahman returned to Africa to die. He went to Monrovia, Liberia with his wife. Abdul-Rahman lived for four months before he contracted a fever and died at the age of 67. He never saw Futa Jallon or his children again.
^ LOL Good find, Knowledge!
So 'patriot' how do you explain this little historical tidbit??-- How is it that a black man who was enslaved by white Americans get mistaken for a Moor just for knowing Arabic?? They obviously did not think him to be Arab!!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Dujuti, Bernal has a degree in poly sci, not near eear eastern studies.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Dujuti, Bernal has a degree in poly sci, not near eear eastern studies.
So are you saying Greece is now in the "near East"?
I thought it was western Mr. Professor?
Why don't you make up your mind?
It sounds like you are contradicting yourself.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
Mary why are you arguing with Patriot over the purity of Greece? Why are you pretending to be anti-Eurocentric when your position is that the "stolen legacy" argument is "silly". You have yet to back this up though. LOL
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Martin Bernal Professor Emeritus Joint appointment, Department of Government Ancient Eastern Mediterranean history
Martin Bernal retired from the Department of Near Eastern Studies in 2001. He is the author of Black Athena: the Afroasiatic Roots of Classical Civilization (Rutgers University Press, 1987), which occasioned Black Athena: Ten Years After, ed. Wim M.J. van Binsbergen (Dutch Archaeological and Historical Society, 1997) and Black Athena Writes Back: Martin Bernal Responds to his Critics, ed. David Chioni Moore (Duke University Press, 2001).
You can contact the university department here if you want...
409 White Hall Ithaca, NY 14853-7901 Phone: (607) 255-6275 Fax: (607) 255-6450 Email: neareastern@cornell.edu
But I doubt you will! LOL Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ By the way, Bernal's mother Margaret Gardiner is the daughter of renowned Egyptologist Sir Alan Gardiner!-- one of the great authorities on ancient Egyptian history and culture who admits to their black African identity.
No doubt Bernal's mother played a significant role in his interest and studies in the 'Near East', and it obviously payed off. Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by akoben: ...when your position is that the "stolen legacy" argument is "silly". You have yet to back this up though. LOL
quote:Akoben really means: Hey! Just because I hate Jews, I try to discredit them anyway I can. So to discredit Lefkowitz I cite James' book 'Stolen Legacy' even though I never read it and say the Greeks stole their classical philosophy even though that obviously was not the case at all! My stupid self even forgot that Lefkowitz's work is a rebuttal to another Jewish scholar but I don't want to attack him because I know it will discredit myself! I merely harass Djehuti all day long because I lack intellectual ability and originality and I'm a spineless, nutless biggot who feels the need to project my feelings of biggotry on to him. (I chose Djehuti, cuz I really have a cursh on him and since he's Filipino, I thought he'd reciprocate my homosexual feelings, but like everything else I was wrong!! )
Please Djehuti! Screw my ass or kick it!!
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti:
quote:Originally posted by akoben: ...when your position is that the "stolen legacy" argument is "silly". You have yet to back this up though. LOL
quote:Akoben really means: Hey! Just because I hate Jews, I try to discredit them anyway I can. So to discredit Lefkowitz I cite James' book 'Stolen Legacy' even though I never read it and say the Greeks stole their classical philosophy even though that obviously was not the case at all! My stupid self even forgot that Lefkowitz's work is a rebuttal to another Jewish scholar but I don't want to attack him because I know it will discredit myself! I merely harass Djehuti all day long because I lack intellectual ability and originality and I'm a spineless, nutless biggot who feels the need to project my feelings of biggotry on to him. (I chose Djehuti, cuz I really have a cursh on him and since he's Filipino, I thought he'd reciprocate my homosexual feelings, but like everything else I was wrong!! )
Please Djehuti! Screw my ass or kick it!!
LOL...
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Djehuti, Comparative politics is a part of the political science discpline. You guys have an Afrocentric view of this area of history. Obviously you are welcomed to your point of view but you understand that the position is a minority point of view and not accepted by Classical scholars. The standard view of the development of Greece is that their civilization was "home grown." They also see Greece as the mother of wesrern civilization. The evidence supporting that view is overwhelming.
Posted by meninarmer (Member # 12654) on :
Get lost Hammer.
Ppppp-uuuuu...Ya stinkin up the joint. Americans Albino In A mask Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Djehuti, Comparative politics is a part of the political science discpline...
And as usual you miss the point that his book 'Black Athena' was NOT a political book written from his political degree but a historical one written from his degree in Near Eastern studies which you denied (lied) about him having!!
quote:You guys have an Afrocentric view of this area of history. Obviously you are welcomed to your point of view but you understand that the position is a minority point of view and not accepted by Classical scholars.
Again you miss the point this is not about 'Afrocentrism' but reality based on facts and evidence. If so, why do you think Bernal a white man has such an 'Afrocentric' view?? And please don't give that Marxist b.s. What does 'Marxism' have to do with his thesis??! Nothing! I too am a person who is NOT of African descent and definitely I am no Marxist so why are my views the same?? Again, because it's a matter of reality.
quote:The standard view of the development of Greece is that their civilization was "home grown." They also see Greece as the mother of wesrern civilization. The evidence supporting that view is overwhelming.
And again Classical civilization was created in Greece, but it was developed from older more ancient models that was result of Asian and African input!! This is what your brain fails to comprehend!
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You say it is about facts and evidence but that is not your decision to make. It is about an afrocentric view of history. That is the view that you have. To say otherwise borders on the absurd. Not everyone who takes an afrocentric view of history is black. When you take this minority view of history you lose credibility. You are going to be tagged with afrocentrism when you parrot thier positions. Classical scholars DO NOT believe greek civilization and culture was developed outside of greece, Afrocentreics do.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Nobody said Greek civilization developed outside of Greece, professor! We merely stated that its development was the result of cultural input from both Asians and Africans. Most if not all experts agree due to both archaeological and historical evidence.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Fine, and that is an afrocentric point of view. So you say it is not about afrocentrism and continue to support their position. Experts do not agree with you. I asked you to post a single classical scholar who supports that position.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Simple points which Mr American Patriot fails to understand:
NO SCHOLAR credits the Greeks with the ORIGIN of civilization. NOT ONE.
NO SCHOLAR can deny the fact that Greece was an EASTERN oriented civilization. NONE.
And NO SCHOLAR can claim that Greek civilization is OLDER THAN those of the EAST which it eventually conquered. NONE. That is historically FALSE. PERIOD.
So please stop making talking your nonsense.
Where did writing originate? Where did math originate? Where did laws originate? Where did the concept of kingship and the pomp and ceremony associated with it originate? NOT IN GREECE.
The ONLY one talking such NONSENSE is YOU stupid.
quote: Introduction: The Hellenistic Period in Modern Historiography
Acknowledgement
Map of the Hellenistic Kingdoms
The Hellenistic period is conventionally said to extend from the accession of Alexander the Great to the throne of Macedon in 336 B.C. to the death of Cleopatra VII of Egypt in 30 B.C. Its beginning is marked by Alexander's successful invasion of the Persian Empire and its end by the redivision of the Near and Middle East between Rome and the new Iranian-ruled kingdom of Parthia. For much of the intervening three hundred years the territory of the former Persian Empire was dominated by a series of Macedonian-ruled kingdoms in which Greeks and Greek culture enjoyed unprecedented preeminence. Art and literature flourished, the foundations of Western literary scholarship were laid, and Greek scientists formulated ideas of theories that would remain fundamental to work in a variety of fields until the Renaissance.
There was also a dark side to the Hellenistic period. It was the first great age of Western imperial expansion in Asia, ushering in the beginning of the end of the great civilizations of the ancient Near East that had dominated the Near and Middle East for almost three thousand years. These two aspects of the Hellenistic period, the emergence of Greek culture as a significant factor in the culture of the old world and the decline of Greece's Near Eastern rivals, were intertwined, since it was Macedonian imperial domination in the east that facilitated the cultural hegemony of Greece.
This view of the Hellenistic period as one of the major creative periods of Greek history and a fundamental turning point in the history of ancient Eurasia is, however, comparatively recent. Prior to the nineteenth century the Hellenistic period attracted little scholarly interest. To scholars who identified the concept of Hellenism with the Greek republican tradition of the polis , or city-state, and with the restraint and balance of fifth-and fourth-century art, the "baroque" art and "oriental" monarchies of the Hellenistic period seemed decadent. Three factors were responsible for a more positive reassessment of the importance of these three centuries.
The first was the publication between 1833 and 1843 of J. G. Droysen's great three-volume Geschichte des Hellenismus (History of Hellenism), with its revolutionary interpretation of the Hellenistic period as the time in which Greek and Near Eastern cultures mingled in the lands conquered by Alexander the Great to form the cultural matrix from which Christianity emerged.2 The second was the archaeological revolution. Excavation of Hellenistic period sites in Europe and Asia provided--and continues to provide--extensive information concerning the physical setting and material culture of the inhabitants of the new Macedonian kingdoms and their neighbors. Archaeology has also furnished scholars with a wealth of new written evidence in the form of inscriptions on stone and especially papyri, both literary and nonliterary,3 which has made the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries the most important period for the recovery of classical literature since the Renaissance. Equally important, the texts also provided scholars with a detailed view of the government and society of a major kingdom, Ptolemaic Egypt, through documentation unrivaled for its comprehensiveness before the late Middle Ages. The third factor that contributed to the reassessment of the Hellenistic period was the creation of new European empires during approximately the same period in the areas once dominated by the Hellenistic kingdoms. The opening of these regions to Western exploration encouraged scholars to see Alexander, his Macedonian successors, and their Greek collaborators as forerunners of their own people and imperial endeavors. The result was almost a century of creative scholarship in which three generations of the most talented European and American historians assimilated the new data and fleshed out Droysen's view of Hellenistic civilization as a mixed culture, Greek in its essential character but enriched by the admixture of elements derived from the ancient cultures of the Near East.
The "heroic age" of Hellenistic scholarship ended in the 1940s. Thereafter, for almost two decades the views of the founders of Hellenistic studies reigned almost unchallenged, becoming enshrined in textbooks and encyclopedias that are still in common use today. During the last three decades--but especially during the 1980s--a new generation of Hellenistic historians, building on the foundations laid by their predecessors but reflecting the changed perspectives of a different time, have re-examined the bases of the interpretation of Hellenistic history and civilization first proposed by Droysen over a century ago. The result has been disconcerting.
The disappearance of the nineteenth-century European empires has left late twentieth-century scholars skeptical of their predecessors' optimistic picture of Graeco-Macedonian invaders and their Near Eastern subjects harmoniously living together and cooperating in the creation of a brilliant new mixed civilization. Contemporary scholars have emphasized instead the colonial character of the Hellenistic kingdoms, the tendency of the Greeks and Macedonians to hold themselves aloof from their non-Greek neighbors, and the essentially Greek character of most manifestations of Hellenistic culture. Aided by the recent publication of new editions and translations of Hellenistic Egyptian and Babylonian literary and documentary texts, scholars have also begun to remedy the neglect of the cultures of the subject peoples of the Hellenistic kingdoms that characterized so much of nineteenth-and twentieth-century scholarship. A new and more complex Hellenistic history is beginning to emerge, one that recognizes both the achievements of Hellenistic civilization and the price paid for them.4 The purpose of this essay is to give a preliminary outline of this new history of the Hellenistic period.
The only reason the "West" identifies with the Hellenistic world is because it was a COLONIAL empire that FORCED itself onto OLDER CIVILIZATIONS. It wasn't the FIRST empire of the world and it wasn't the FIRST civilization. NO SCHOLAR can claim this. YOU need to read and stop living in a fantasy world.
When you provide a SCHOLAR who claims that GREECE is the origin of world civilization I will gladly provide scholars who contradict this. East Asian, Central Asian, Mesopotamian, African and American civilizations ALL predate Greece and there is NO scholar who can deny this or will say otherwise.
And while you are at it, show me a scholar who claims that GREEKS invented math, astronomy and architecture and INTRODUCED it to the Mesopotamians and Egyptians.
Just one.
When you do THAT, I will post QUITE A FEW that contradict that NONSENSE point of view.
Here is a hint:
Not only were the Greeks NOT the first civilization, they were NOT the first EMPIRE to span the three continents of Asia, Africa and Europe. The FIRST empire to do that was that of the PERSIANS under Darius. So again, your nonsense about focusing on the Greeks as some sort of FIRST to do everything is B.S.
Map of the Aechmanid empire. Looks familiar doesn't it:
And this is the area that eventually was conquered by Alexander. NO the Greeks were not the FIRST to have an empire and they DID NOT bring "civilization" to this region.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
And it was the Persian empire of Darius that originated democratic laws and forms of governance for the peoples who were part of his empire. This did NOT come from Greece. In fact, the Greeks were again the LAST of the ancient empires to span this region, as there had been empires spanning his region since LONG before the Greeks. So please stop kidding your self about "classical" scholars saying something different. The Islamic world spanned this SAME area and it is from this area that the roots of Islamic civilization originate and these roots PREDATE the Greeks, including Egyptian, Mesopotamian and Indian elements. And these ROOTS were also the basis of MUCH of Greek civilization, whether you want to acknowledge it or not.
Here is an example of the ROOTS of Greek art and other traditions (note the realistic curly beard and hair that were supposedly distinctly Greek traditions):
Sargon of Akkad 24th century b.c. Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
First of all Doug nobody ever said that Greece was the oldest civilization, where did you get that? What they say is that Greek civilization was "home grown" and that it developed inside the borders of Greece without substantial outside influence. Greece fought in the east but they were not eastern, they were greek. Their civilization is the mother of ours. Greek civilization put it's stamp on all of Europe and what you see in the west today is the evolutionary end of what they began.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Greek people were home grown but Greek civilization was not. Greek civilization had MANY elements that were came from the older civilizations of the EAST and Africa. NO SCHOLAR actually denies this. YOU are the one saying this. Which is makes no sense.
NO civilization is an isolated island to itself, including ancient Greece. All cultures and civilizations are "homegrown", meaning having their own unique identity, but they still have elements that are borrowed and adopted from ELSEWHERE, again Greece included.
The ancient Greeks were NOT the mothers of "Western" civilization because they NEVER OCCUPIED the WEST of Europe. The influenced the Romans who did occupy WESTERN Europe and was the DIRECT parent of so-called Western civilization. But that civilization was MOST PROFOUNDLY based on the teachings of the Muslims who brought the teachings of THE EAST, including those of the Greeks, into Europe. The WEST never had direct contact with the Greeks, while those cultures in the Muslim lands TO THE EAST, DID have direct contact with the Greeks, but they also had other cultural influences that PREDATE the Greeks. THAT is what was the basis of WESTERN civilization and it was EASTERN oriented.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You are off in never never land Doug and seriously mistaken. I asked you to find me a Classical scholar to support your view and what I get is more of this wild afrocentricism. I hope you were not raised in the west because if so, you missed the primary points offered in your western civ class.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
You haven't asked me jack. And I don't need to provide anything because those FACTS are beyond dispute.
What you need to understand is that the Greeks were not IN the WEST of Europe. Learn Geography. No matter how "homegrown" their culture was, it was NOT in Western Europe and NOT a product of "western" civilization. Greece was and has ALWAYS been part of the Eastern sphere, culturally and physically. YOU are the one who refuses to see the obvious. Greece was part of the EAST for MOST of its history. From the pinnacle of the Hellenistic empire of Alexander which covered Mesopotamia to India, it was eastern. After the fall of Rome it was part of the Byzantine Empire which was centered in Turkey and the EASTERN Mediterranean.
Then it became part of the OTTOMAN Empire for another 400 years right into the 19th century. All of these empires were within the same historical boundaries of the EASTERN empires of the Persians and Hellenes. NONE of these empires were in THE WEST of Europe. NONE of the ideas about civilization CAME from the WEST. Civilization DID NOT COME from the WEST. And GREECE was certainly NOT ORIENTED TO THE WEST OF EUROPE. Learn to read and understand geography. Greece is NOT A PRODUCT OF WESTERN EUROPE, has NO direct connection with WESTERN EUROPE and NEVER occupied WESTERN EUROPE. There IS NO DIRECT association between ancient Greece and WESTERN Europe. So ancient Greece was NOT WESTERN geographically OR CULTURALLY, it was EASTERN. NO scholar actually disputes this. ONLY YOU dispute it.
The Greeks were NOT the first to study nature. They were NOT the first to study the heavens. They were NOT the first to worship gods. They were NOT the first to develop mythology. They were NOT the first to write. They were NOT the first to practice warfare. They were NOT the first to practice sailing. They were NOT the first to discuss wisdom. ALL of these things that you claim to be "Western" are NOT western. They existed and were CREATED LONG BEFORE THE GREEKS. It is basically pure and simple NONSENSE to pretend that the Greeks were the FATHERS of all these things and that all these things are unique to "The West". That is BULLSH*T.
Bottom line, there is NOTHING unique or NEW about what the Greeks did that is UNIQUE to "the West" or that makes "the West" a cradle of ANYTHING. "The West" isn't a cradle of ANYTHING and it is only in the last few hundred years that "the west" actually came into existence as a geopolitical concept. It did NOT EXIST as a major force in human history or affairs for MOST of the last 5,000 years.
Those are facts and you can consult anyone you want on it.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, You are silly. You have bought so deeply into this afrocentric view of the world you have accepted nonsence for history. If you are not careful it will, in the end, make you almost uneducatable. I have in front of me, I am looking at it as I write a copy of Glencoe's world history text. The single most popular text used by American secondary schools. None of the things you are promoting are in there. There is nothing , zippo, about Persians starting democracy. In Section 4 on page 121 the text spends time explaining to our young students why Greek civilization is the foundation of western civilization. There is not a single mention of persia, none of Egypt etc etc. This is 10th grade history Doug. By accepting this Afrocentric nonsense you have just decided to live your life in a fairytale land. You are way too smart and write too well to condem yourself to that fate.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Mr Patriot, you are the one presenting silliness. The Greeks did not invent "civilization" as a separate and distinct activity SEPARATE from all the other civilizations of the ancient world. Their civilization was "homegrown" but with DIRECT influence from the older civilizations of the East as well as Africa.
You have yet to address HOW ancient Greece is "WESTERN" when NONE of Greece is in Western Europe and the culture and identity of ancient Greece had NOTHING in common with the Western parts of Europe at the time. The culture and civilization of ancient Greece had CLOSE similarities with the EAST as it is the EAST and Africa where civilization originated.
No matter how you slice it or how you try and claim it as being otherwise, Greece is NOT the birthplace of civilization. It is ONE civilization of MANY that have come along and ALL of them have DEEPLY influenced Western thought and culture.
All this nonsense about Afrocentric this and that has NOTHING to do with this point.
Show me how Greek culture is WESTERN when NONE of it originates IN THE WEST. NONE of it. When YOU can show me this, then I will listen to you, because you haven't got a CLUE what you are talking about.
"Western" civilization is a MODERN geopolitical term referring to the MODERN cultures of Western Europe and the colonies they created. NONE of these cultures had ANY DIRECT connection to ancient Greece. NONE of them. Not Britain, Not Germany, Not France and Not the Americas. The only ones that had any contact with ancient Greece was parts of Italy and Spain. MOST of the "Greek world" was in the EAST and it is in the EAST that Greek culture had the BIGGEST impact. But this was a CONTINUATION of the activities of VARIOUS civilizations that had ALREADY been active in these regions for 3000 years. NOBODY disputes this, except you.
So why don't YOU can show how the WESTERN world had DIRECT contact with ancient Greece and SIMILAR patterns of culture and thought as the Greeks? YOU CANT. There was no ancient Greece when the term "Western" civilization was created and the cultures that created it had NO contact with ancient Greece.
No scholar disputes this except YOU.
Influence is not direct contact. The WRITINGS of the ancient Greeks had INFLUENCE over the development of the "Western" world, but so did Egypt, China, Mesopotamia, Babylon, the Americas and many other cultures, because "Western" culture as it expanded INTERACTED with and ABSORBED many of the traditions of ALL these ANCIENT civilizations and added them to its own "cultural" framework.
You need to stop spouting propaganda and start making sense.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
And bottom line, western Europe and "western" civilization is NOT GREECE. The only people that have DIRECT connections to ancient Greeks are the Greeks themselves, Turkey and parts of central Asia and India in the East. NONE of WESTERN Europe has ANY direct claim to or inheritance from GREECE. You need to claim the ACTUAL history and cultures of WESTERN Europe going back 5,000 years and stop CLINGING to something that WESTERN Europe had NOTHING to do with.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Possibly you should tell our thousands of public school teachers that they are all incorrect and are misleading our kids. You might also inform classical scholars that they are simply all wrong. That their years of deep and intensive study was incorrect. Why do you insist on isolating western europe. Greek culture spread through Rome to all of Europe and indeed to the united States as well. Ever look at the architecture in Wasshington DC Doug? You are hopelessly uneducated. If you cannot understand what we all consider the basics how can you get anything else right. We teach this stuff to our high school sophomores because they must have a strong foundation before they can learn anything else.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, Greco-Roman civilization spread through Rome to Western Europe. You are forgetting that Gaul, Spain and Britian were Roman provinces for centuries. After the fall of the empire the catholic church in Rome stepped in to fill the void and spread Greco-Roman culture throughout Europe in what we call the 'Barbarian Conversion.' What developed was a fairly unified European culture based on Greco-Roman principles. None of this involved Egypt. No two cultures could be more different than the Egyptians and the Greeks.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
SO? How does this make Greco-Roman civilization WESTERN? Greece and Rome were in the SOUTH EAST of Europe not the West. The civilization and culture they had was the result of far OLDER influences from THE SOUTH EAST. WESTERN EUROPE did not have ANY similarity to the culture and civilization that was INTRODUCED by the Romans. Therefore, it is FALSE that civilization arose in the WEST and therefore can be called WESTERN. Civilization arose IN THE EAST and migrated WEST through Greece and Rome and was FURTHER influenced by advanced cultures and civilizations of the East by the Muslims.
No matter how you slice it, "Western" civilization is not a realistic description of the ROOTS of civilization. The ROOTS of civilization are in the South and the East of Europe not WESTERN EUROPE.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, the term western does not distinguish one part of Europe from the other, it distinguishes the west (Euro-America) from the east. Wester Europe has nothing to do with it, they recieved Greek civilization, they did not create it. The term 'Western Civilization' distinguishes our civilization from the ones you mentioned.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Fine, and that is an afrocentric point of view. So you say it is not about afrocentrism and continue to support their position. Experts do not agree with you. I asked you to post a single classical scholar who supports that position.
Professor, all classical scholars agree that Greek civilization developed during the archaic periods of the Bronze Age and before then during the Neolithic! Neolithic culture was introduced to Greece and the rest of Europe by Asians and Africans.
quote:First of all Doug nobody ever said that Greece was the oldest civilization, where did you get that? What they say is that Greek civilization was "home grown" and that it developed inside the borders of Greece without substantial outside influence. Greece fought in the east but they were not eastern, they were greek. Their civilization is the mother of ours. Greek civilization put it's stamp on all of Europe and what you see in the west today is the evolutionary end of what they began.
Irrelevant to the issue that civilization in Greece was the result of Neolithic immigrants from Asia Minor and Africa.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Find me a classical scholar who will outline this so called influence you speak of and I will agree. You and I both know you cannot. This is all nonsense. You are creating a complete historical construct based on a theory you cannot substantiate. Quote these classical scholars you speak of.
Neolithic cultures had nothing to do with classical Greece. Nobody believes that. The Indo Europeans did not even arrive in Greece until 2000 BC and the people they encountered were not from Asia or Africa.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Find me a classical scholar who will outline this so called influence you speak of and I will agree. You and I both know you cannot.
All scholars know Classical Greece was built upon Archaic Greece.
quote:This is all nonsense. You are creating a complete historical construct based on a theory you cannot substantiate. Quote these classical scholars you speak of.
Eva C Keuls, Oscar Broneer, and George Mylonas to name just a few.
quote:Neolithic cultures had nothing to do with classical Greece. Nobody believes that. The Indo Europeans did not even arrive in Greece until 2000 BC and the people they encountered were not from Asia or Africa.
Are you saying the urbanized farming cultures that lay the foundation for civilization had nothing to do with later Classical civilization?? Also, we have archaeological evidence that these peoples are of Asian and African descent which is further verified by genetic evidence. You also obviously do not know that all of this verifies the Greeks own legends.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Yes, The neolithic cultures had zero to do with Classical greece. You cannot tie one, not a single classical greek acomplishment to the people you speak of. You do not even know anything about the gene you try to promote. This is all ignorant afrocentric nonsense. Further, you will find no classical schholar that will make the connection you are trying to make.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug, the term western does not distinguish one part of Europe from the other, it distinguishes the west (Euro-America) from the east. Wester Europe has nothing to do with it, they recieved Greek civilization, they did not create it. The term 'Western Civilization' distinguishes our civilization from the ones you mentioned.
WESTERN is a geographical term. It distinguishes Europe from the East and is centered around WESTERN Europe as a distinct geopolitical construct. The point I made which YOU AGREE WITH is that in reality NOTHING about ancient Greece was WESTERN. It was NOT oriented to the West and therefore was not WESTERN in ANY sense of the word.
The civilization of the "West" is based on a pattern of development that arose in Greece but that pattern was oriented TO THE EAST and WAS NOT WESTERN. Greek civilization and culture was a PRODUCT OF THE EAST, as in South Eastern EUROPE and other cultures TO THE EAST. There was NO similarity between GREEK culture in 500 B.C. and ANY OTHER PART of Northern or Western Europe and CERTAINLY had nothing to do with the Americas. "Western civilization" is a RECENT term and a RECENT geopolitical construct that has NOTHING to do with ANCIENT GREECE because it does NOT represent the GEOPOLITICAL context of the HELLENISTIC Empire.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, This is a really stupid conversation. Your position is not much more bizarre that those in the flat earth society. Where in the world did you come up with this idea of western Europe? All of Europe is a part of western civilization, not just the western part. Naturally there was a difference between greece in 500 BC and northern Europe. Greek civilization SPREAD to those areas. This is not rocket science Doug....you can get this. Greco Roman civilization spread over Europe. It does matter that it wasn't there in the beginning.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug, This is a really stupid conversation. Your position is not much more bizarre that those in the flat earth society. Where in the world did you come up with this idea of western Europe? All of Europe is a part of western civilization, not just the western part. Naturally there was a difference between greece in 500 BC and northern Europe. Greek civilization SPREAD to those areas. This is not rocket science Doug....you can get this. Greco Roman civilization spread over Europe. It does matter that it wasn't there in the beginning.
You can't read. What I said was that Greece in 500 BC had NO similarity in culture or civilization to the cultures to the WEST of Europe. It had a greater similarity to the cultures of the South and the East and was ORIENTED to the East. NONE of that has ANYTHING to do with people who did not begin to become civilized until over 1000 years later in WESTERN Europe. MODERN Western Europe is based on the culture of ancient Greece, but that culture of Greece was DERIVED FROM THE EAST, not the WEST, as in WESTERN Europe. Greece NEVER occupied Western Europe, NEVER built cities there and never created colonies there.
You keep getting it backwards as usual.
The point is that the term Western civilization is an attempt to LINK the people descended from those cultures considered as BARBARIANS by BOTH the Greeks AND the Romans to ancient cultures they HAD NOTHING to do with at the time those ancient cultures existed.
Western civilization, is a MODERN geopolitical construct that has NOTHING to do with the GEOPOLITICAL world of the ancient Greeks.
Modern western civilization is a product of the activities of the people in the WEST of Europe, including colonizing the Americas and creating nations there. This was not based around the activities of the Greeks or even the Italians. It was based around the activities of the British, Spanish, French and Portuguese, more than anyone else. And it is the people of these countries that had LITTLE to do with the culture of ancient Greece, even though they claim to be direct heirs.
Greece has historically been part of the EAST, whether the EASTERN Roman empire, the Hellenistic empire OF THE EAST, the OTTOMAN Empire. It has been under an Eastern geopolitical construct FOR MOST of its history. YOU have NO concept of history and Greece.
Geopolitical context of the ancient Greeks: Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Yes, The neolithic cultures had zero to do with Classical greece. You cannot tie one, not a single classical greek acomplishment to the people you speak of. You do not even know anything about the gene you try to promote. This is all ignorant afrocentric nonsense. Further, you will find no classical schholar that will make the connection you are trying to make.
So you're saying the urbanization, writing, and science of their neolithic predecessors had nothing to do with Classical civilization?? Are you saying the Classical Greeks developed urbanization, writing, and science all of sudden in a matter of a few centuries despite the existence of all these from millennia earlier??? Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I can read Doug...IT DOES NOT MATTER THAT THEY HAD NO CULTURAL CONNECTION TO NORTHERN EUROPE IN 500BC. It MATTERS that their civilization spread to those areas. Doug, I know you know more than all of our classical Greek scholars because they do not believe classical greece came from the east. Classical greece has nothing in common with the east. "home Grown: means their civilization developed "Inside Greece" not from somewhere else. What in the hell does the conquest of alexander have to do with anything. Classic Greece was developed fully LONG before that. I have asked you to find a single classical scholar who agrees with you and you cannot do it. You cannot do it because there is not one. Northern and western Europe adopted Greco Roman cluture that was developed fully withing greece and rome in antiquity.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
urbanization, writing and science are common to all post neolithic cultures. I am saying , as do all greek scholars that western civilization grew up in Greece "home grown" free of those in the east. The Greeks developed "western" civilization. They did not develop chinese civilization or Egyptian civilization or any other civilization. You can roll your eyes Djehuti but you know better. This is why afrocentric philosophy is such a joke. Nobody takes you guys seriously when you come up with these goofey, half thought out ideas.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: urbanization, writing and science are common to all post neolithic cultures...
Wrong! All those things grew out of neolithic cultures. Plant domestication or agriculture led to settled communities and mass food production which led to everything else you call 'civilization'.
quote:...I am saying , as do all greek scholars that western civilization grew up in Greece "home grown" free of those in the east. The Greeks developed "western" civilization. They did not develop chinese civilization or Egyptian civilization or any other civilization.
You are partially correct. Of course Greek civilization grew in Greece but it was not as you say "free" from other cultures who influenced it.
quote:You can roll your eyes Djehuti but you know better. This is why afrocentric philosophy is such a joke. Nobody takes you guys seriously when you come up with these goofey, half thought out ideas.
Really then why does this mainstream source seem to support 'afrocentric' theme.
...What we generally call "Greek philosophy" was almost certainly derived by the Greeks from Egyptian culture, particularly natural science (physics and math) which preoccupied Greek thought up to the time of Plato. The Greeks seem also to have derived much of their philosophical theology from the Egyptians as well.
Instead of rolling my eyes, I might as well just *yawn* at your usual drivel. Posted by meninarmer (Member # 12654) on :
quote:Originally posted by Mystery Solver: Southern Europeans are on average darker than their northern European counterparts. This is reality that finds expression in skin tone maps and hair color maps.
And also, noting the UV radiation differentiation as one goes from southern Europe to the northern regions therein...
...every group on the same geographical latitudes as Europe appear to have the beige-like shade, save for that northwestern corner of Europe.
Where is the source of these Skin Tone and UV exposure maps? The map of the US does not reflect the black population of the eastern coast which is 40-50% black. I mean dark black. South America seems to be incomplete also.
I'd appreciate a link to the source. Thanks in advance
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Yep. Total nonsense. He keeps saying "home grown" as if the Greeks invented math, science, art, agriculture, architecture, theology, thinking, writing, language and everything else ALL BY THEMSELVES and it just HAPPENED to have similarities to other cultures around it that pre dated it. And this was all by coincidence...... Please. ALL ancient cultures and civilizations were "home grown", but they all had influences from one another. ESPECIALLY those from around the Mediterranean. Greece did not just POP UP out of nowhere surrounded by ancient cultures and civilizations ALL ON ITS OWN.
And NONE of this "home grown" nonsense has ANYTHING to do with WESTERN Europe or THE WEST in any sense. Greece is in South EAST Europe so however "home grown" it was, it was home grown in SOUTH EAST Europe.
And Mr Patriot, if "The West" is primarily geopolitically oriented to the colonies of THE WEST by Europeans, then ancient Greece was in THE EAST because its main expansion and colonies were TO THE EAST.
Again look and tell me which part of the map is IN THE WEST in ANY sense of the word:
How about NONE of it. It is just THE OPPOSITE of the West as a geopolitical construct and this area IS called THE EAST on the modern geopolitical map.
Holla back when you get some sense and learn how to read a map.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Doug, could you please cut the picture size down??
By the way, Alexander's empire has little to do with the fact that Greek civilization developed due to Neolithic migrations from Asia and Africa as well as later influence from these regions during the Bronze Age!
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by meninarmer:
quote:Originally posted by Mystery Solver: Southern Europeans are on average darker than their northern European counterparts. This is reality that finds expression in skin tone maps and hair color maps.
And also, noting the UV radiation differentiation as one goes from southern Europe to the northern regions therein...
...every group on the same geographical latitudes as Europe appear to have the beige-like shade, save for that northwestern corner of Europe.
Where is the source of these Skin Tone and UV exposure maps? The map of the US does not reflect the black population of the eastern coast which is 40-50% black. I mean dark black. South America seems to be incomplete also.
I'd appreciate a link to the source. Thanks in advance
MysterySolver, nor those maps can help you win your stupid and erroneous argument.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You are putting forth a neoithic culture you cannot even name. Show me how this mysterous neolithic culture led to Greek democracy. Sophocles? Aristotle? Connect these neolithic people tp Plato?
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: ^ Doug, could you please cut the picture size down??
By the way, Alexander's empire has little to do with the fact that Greek civilization developed due to Neolithic migrations from Asia and Africa as well as later influence from these regions during the Bronze Age!
Huh? Alexanders empire is the DIRECT result of competition between Greece and the Persian Empire, which is one of the reasons for the expansion of Hellenistic Greece.
Alexander is the lynch pin of what makes the Greeks GREAT in the minds of the West. Without Alexander there is no Greek empire, there is no Alexandria and there is no passing down of the works of the Greeks written there and elsewhere that were supposedly so formative of "western" thought.
Neolithic cultures absolutely laid the foundation of Greece, but the classical world of Greece in the minds of the West is based around Alexander and his generals and the writings and scholarship they encouraged.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Greek thought that created western civ had been around for 250 years before Alexander. Aristotle was Alexander's teacher....you are reaching Doug. Where is the Persian or Egyptian Sophocles, I'll tell you where....it did not exist.
Prove the neolithic culture that you know nothing about was the foundation, give me specific examples.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Patriot is correct on that part alone! The Classical period was before Alexander. It was Alexander that ushered in the Hellenistic period right after. But it was during the Hellenistic period that Greece absorbed even more influence from the East such as advanced mechanics and machinery. So Hore is still wrong.
Doug, could you not use the smaller map of the Hellenistic empire from earlier?? Seriously, I don't see what difference it would make using a larger one except it causes unnecessary scrolling.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:and say the Greeks stole their classical philosophy even though that obviously was not the case at all!
Oh really? Well Mary if you actually went on the link you keep running from you would have realized that wasnt the case at all.
But I suspect you already know this, which is why you refuse to go back there! LOLOL
Is it clear yet that there is a STOLEN LEGACY and it is perfectly valid, legal, moral and dutiful to declare, "**** stinks."...I doubt you've studied James. Until you start citing him in your refutations I'm not bothering to respond after this post.The link
quote:...What we generally call "Greek philosophy" was almost certainly derived by the Greeks from Egyptian culture, particularly natural science (physics and math) which preoccupied Greek thought up to the time of Plato. The Greeks seem also to have derived much of their philosophical theology from the Egyptians as well.
Oh my! What do we have here?! An indirect concession on Mary's part! LOLOLOL
Mary finally admits that her position on Greek philosophy being "home grown" was total BS by pretending to hold the above quoted position! LOLOLOL
Posted by meninarmer (Member # 12654) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti:
quote:Originally posted by meninarmer:
quote:Originally posted by Mystery Solver: Southern Europeans are on average darker than their northern European counterparts. This is reality that finds expression in skin tone maps and hair color maps.
And also, noting the UV radiation differentiation as one goes from southern Europe to the northern regions therein...
...every group on the same geographical latitudes as Europe appear to have the beige-like shade, save for that northwestern corner of Europe.
Where is the source of these Skin Tone and UV exposure maps? The map of the US does not reflect the black population of the eastern coast which is 40-50% black. I mean dark black. South America seems to be incomplete also.
I'd appreciate a link to the source. Thanks in advance
LOL, I'm not attempting to "win" anything. What's the prize? Just attempting to compile additional facts. Why you engaging with American Hammer. Don't you realize you'll chase your tail in an infinite loop? LOL, 12 pages and Hammer hasn't provided one link or source yet, and I seriously doubt he ever will.
Some day you'll have to actually dispute the FACTS, while leaving your emotions aside...4 eyes
Who posted an over sized image and skewed the page like this?
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
^ Mary "engages" the Hammer because he needs someone who is MORE Eurocentric than he to make him look good.
The truth is Mary is just as bigoted as Hammer. Thinks George GM James book is a "silly" and "Afrocentric" (though he never read it) and maintains Greek "classical" philosophy was "home grown", without any proof and refuses to give any. Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
quote:Originally posted by meninarmer:
quote:Originally posted by Mystery Solver:
Southern Europeans are on average darker than their northern European counterparts. This is reality that finds expression in skin tone maps and hair color maps.
And also, noting the UV radiation differentiation as one goes from southern Europe to the northern regions therein...
...every group on the same geographical latitudes as Europe appear to have the beige-like shade, save for that northwestern corner of Europe.
Where is the source of these Skin Tone and UV exposure maps? The map of the US does not reflect the black population of the eastern coast which is 40-50% black. I mean dark black. South America seems to be incomplete also.
I'd appreciate a link to the source. Thanks in advance
This map is based on Biasutti's research. Since then, other researchers like Brace, Montagu, Jablonski, Chaplin et al. had undertaken their own examples of research to this end, and for the most part, they converge on the results. North America doesn't show dark skin ranges that would represent Black populations of the Americas; rather, it is just taking into account that of the groups deemed to be the "aboriginal" American populations, or should I say, groups that lived in the region since the EpiPaleolithic and/or early Holocene era, as opposed to very recent migrants from Europe, Africa and elsewhere. Notice that the same approach is taken in Africa, in places like South Africa, where minority White populations reside, but have not been taken into account. The map of course, makes extrapolations in some untested areas where necessary, based on probability statistics, from the results of sections of those geographically proximate *aboriginal* populations which have actually been tested; this is why Jablonski's and Chaplin's map -- unlike Biasutti's and Brace et al.'s -- shows unconnected graded-patches of only those regions that had actually been tested across continents. Therefore, it would be a stretch to assume that the map is a 100% reflection of worldwide populations; rather, it does give a pretty damn good indication of shifts and trends in epidermal melanin content with shifts in geography and latitude.
Maps that simulate geographical skin tone distributions *solely* based on UV radiation intensity had also been prepared, particularly by Jablonski and Chaplin, and then correlated with that of tested geographical regions, to examine the linkage. By and large, the correlations *confirm* the linkage between UV radiation intensity per latitude and epidermal melanin content.
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
I'm guessing that the moniker you're addressing here is but a typo; otherwise, please *specify* the argument in question.
Posted by Knowledgeiskey718 (Member # 15400) on :
^^^^^^^^I believe Dj is referring towards meninarmer's erroneous theory of Europeans being albinos, in the thread he(Dj) linked
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
^That's what I suspected too.
In the meantime, something pertinent to the Ancient Greek issue...
"This was acknowledged by Homer in the Odyssey:
“In Egypt, the men are more skilled in Medicine than any of human kind”.
...The Ebers Papyrus describes the position of the heart precisely, and illustrates some of its disorders, as dropped beats. Egyptian physicians recognized the heart as the source of blood vessels. They were aware that the blood vessels were hollow, having a mouth which opens to absorb medications, eliminate waste elements, distribute air and body secretions and excretions, in a confusion between blood vessels and other passages, as ureters.
The physiology of blood circulation was demonstrated in the Edwin Smith Papyrus, together with the its relation to the heart, as well as awareness of the importance of the pulse.
“It is there that the heart speaks”, and “It is there that every physician and every priest of Sekhmet places his fingers …….… he feels something from the heart”.
They also knew that blood supply runs from the heart to all organs of the body.
“There are vessels in him for every part of the body”.
“It speaks forth in the vessels of every body part”.
However, their inability to distinguish between blood vessels, nerves, tendons and channels has limited their full understanding of the physiology of circulation.
CLINICAL EXAMINATION:
The first treatise in the book of the heart at the Ebers papyrus is entitled “Beginning of the secret of the physician”. Probably the examination of the pulse was one of the secret teachings they **refrained from passing to Greek visitors later**, and **hence has not developed in our modern medicine**.
The process of examination follows in the same steps we follow in our modern medical practice... - Courtesy Dr. Sameh, Associate Professor of Cardiology - Alexandria University.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
For the Life of me, I cannot understand why seemingly sane people would continue having discussions with this Djehuti con artist. I have busted my ass showing you all, that he is using at least seven nicks, but probably a great deal more, to win arguments by deceit, insults and browbeating. He is not an American, but a Surinam living in Amsterdam, where he is known as a plagiarist. The type of language mistakes he makes, show me as a fellow Dutch speaker, that his main language is Dutch not English. As he seems not to be able to juggle more then one abstraction at the time, he cannot synthesise complicated information and ideas. He does not know how this works and as a child he assumes that milk comes from a bottle, not a cow. Djehuti only paraphrases what he steals from others. Further more complicated with the fact that he believes his mutant brain is superior then a normal brain. The cold hatred which one perceives in his posting indicates that he might have been abandoned as a child, suffered ridicule because of his handicap, and he might have been sexually molested as a child, as well. I have noticed a certain degree of childishness in his ways of explaining things as if he is still carrying on in a nursery. This whole psychological decomposition might have started with people not responding to his threats. So he started responding by himself, using different nicks, making himself online compliments and giving himself the highest ratings. We have to assume that as a deaf-mute the internet is the best way for him to communicate with normal people. But as a true con-artist his loathing of normal people speaks from all his postings, while he preys on the good will of us all. He might be bashing you on one forum, while propagating his own concoction based on what he stole from you on another forum. The great irony is that among all you molecular biologist none of you could spot this evil mutant raising hell on this forum.
Civilization is a never-ending book. Some creative person begins writing the prologue and first chapters. In the course of time, the writer passes away or loses the book. Another person picks it up, and reading through the initial chapters, finds the foundation story, enlightening or inspiring.
It sparks ideas. They continue to add chapters, given their talents, or merely sentences.
This is Civilization. It is a process. Each dominant group adds a chapter or addendum to the book.
It is collaboration.
If you are a proud member of Western Civilization, imagine that another civilization arises, and its citizens adopt the arrogant position that they owe zero debt to the dominant civilization of the recent past.
For a person from the fallen civilization it would appear as a strange position for any group of rational people to accept.
Explorateur's above post seems to indicate that the Ancient Greeks were rational people.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Greek thought that created western civ had been around for 250 years before Alexander. Aristotle was Alexander's teacher....you are reaching Doug. Where is the Persian or Egyptian Sophocles, I'll tell you where....it did not exist.
Prove the neolithic culture that you know nothing about was the foundation, give me specific examples.
The only one reaching is you. You aren't even responding to what I said.
1) The expansion of Alexander's Empire was the result of military competition between the Greeks and Persians. Persia had conquered parts of Greece and had an empire stretching to India in 500 B.C. This is where Alexander set his sights.
2) It doesn't matter what THOUGHTS the Greeks had, if Alexander HAD NOT conquered the Persians and created the Hellenistic Empire, their THOUGHTS would not have been passed DOWN to us today as MOST of those thoughts are based on works that survived OUTSIDE Greece in places like Alexandria, which would NOT have existed as Egypt was a province of Persia at the time.
And NONE of the THOUGHTS of the Greeks were DIRECTLY passed down to ANY WESTERN EUROPEAN population, except the Romans. The places were Greek thought was DIRECTLY transmitted and written down was IN THE EAST. NOBODY in Western Europe, Britain, Germany, France or Portugal was THINKING LIKE the Greeks 2000 years ago. It was only AFTER people FROM THE EAST brought Greek knowledge that had been passed down to them to THE WEST that these places became aware of it. And this was 700 years after the fact.
The only places were gr
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
You have been found out, exposed, de-masked, psycho-analysed, spat out! So give it up, you damn con-artist. Nobody believes you, nobody cares to hear your ****.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Greek thought that created western civ had been around for 250 years before Alexander. Aristotle was Alexander's teacher....you are reaching Doug. Where is the Persian or Egyptian Sophocles, I'll tell you where....it did not exist.
Prove the neolithic culture that you know nothing about was the foundation, give me specific examples.
So you are saying that all the stuff that followed and was passed down by the scholars who existed in Alexandria and elsewhere don't count? That is nonsense.
As for the idea that the Greeks invented thinking or wise speech or wisdom or politics. That is bullsh*t. They did write very deep treatises and develop ideas but they did not INVENT these concepts.
As such the The Wistom of Ptahotep (focused around the neter for thinking speech, divine and human law Ptah) is older than any Greek "philosophy".
And this is but a small sample of the actual texts on politics, philosophy, argument and speech that was created in ancient Egypt.
Not only that, but all the ancient cultures of the East had politics and some form of logic and wisdom that they practiced. Thinking rationally is a function of the human brain. It wasn't as if the Greeks invented thinking. The philosophy of the Greeks wasn't even purely rational. There was as much metaphysical discourse in ancient Greek work as any other culture. But it is true that the style of Greek discourse on some of these subjects is quite different than many others that came before. But that does NOT mean that these other ancient cultures were IRRATIONAL, had NO understanding of logic or wisdom and did not have a tradition of passing down such wisdom or wise sayings from one generation to the next. And still, the teachings of Aristotle were NOT directly transmitted to the WEST by the Greeks OR the Romans. It was actually the philosophers OF THE EAST who introduced Aristotelean logic to the West. But the Muslims had greatly added to these works through THEIR OWN scholars and it is these scholars and thinkers who influenced the Europeans as much as Aristotle's work.
Sophocles was a playwright. Plays and drama are NOT NEW at all. He didn't invent DRAMA as an allegory for human life. MANY other cultures had dramas, plays, stories and poetry about the deeds of dead kings and the intervention of the gods in the forms of plays or stories. The Tale of Sinhue is one example from Egypt. The Babylonian flood stories are another. The Greek style was very influential on the Romans but that does not make it NEW or that they INVENTED.
The persians had Mithra(Mitra) which was a IndoIranian deity. The Egyptians had Horus, Set and Osiris. All of these represented the drama of life (and death). The Greeks had the rites of Dionysus.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
And for those who wan't to hear Bernal talk about the Greeks and their debt to the East. Listen to this:
Why not go and see a shrink? Your condition might be still treatable. Now you are just pitiful, keeping up this sad charade. We know you are a con-man as all of us have suffered your cold hearted hatred. Every sincere person on this forum was insulted by a Djehuti, or a JMT or a Doug M: all of them showing the same hatefull Modus Operandi. So we all know you are a very sick boy, and giving us a daily scary expose of what horrific turmoil there is inside of you. And we hate this sickness. We just want you to get well again. If I do not see any improvement I will call the LAW on you, dear.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
And again, Greek thought, especially that of the Greeks was introduced to the WEST by the Muslims. Who greatly expanded and enhanced his original work. It is from this period that modern logic began and developed in The East and made its way into "The West".
quote: Aristotelian logic
Most early Muslim logicians during the 8th and 9th centuries produced commentaries on Aristotelian logic. The first original Arabic writings on logic were produced by al-Kindi (Alkindus) (805–873), who produced a summary on earlier logic up to his time.[5]
Ibn Rushd (Averroes) (1126–1198) was the last major logician from al-Andalus, who wrote the most elaborate commentaries on Aristotelian logic. He was also the last major Aristotelian logician from the Islamic world.[5] Though his commentaries on Aristotelian logic and metaphysics had little influence in the Islamic world, his commentaries had a strong influence on medieval Europe after the Latin translations of the 12th century.
The last major logician to write a commentary on Aristotelian logic was Ibn al-Nafis (1213-1288), though he himself was not an Aristotelian logician. He wrote the Al-Wurayqat (The Little Papers), a commentary on Aristotle's Organon and Rhetoric.
Alfarabian logic
Though al-Farabi (Alfarabi) (873–950) was mainly an Aristotelian logician, he introduced a number of non-Aristotelian elements of logic. He discussed the topics of future contingents, the number and relation of the categories, the relation between logic and grammar, and non-Aristotelian forms of inference. He is credited for categorizing logic into two separate groups, the first being "idea" and the second being "proof".[5]
Al-Farabi also introduced the theories of conditional syllogism and analogical inference, which were not part of the Aristotelian tradition.[8] Another addition al-Farabi made to the Aristotelian tradition was his introduction of the concept of poetic syllogism in a commentary on Aristotle's Poetics.[9]
An example of such influence is called the period of latin translations from the 12th century. This puts into clear context the fact that only "the West" was in the dark ages and that many other cultures were moving ahead in all fields of human endeavor PRIOR to "the West" coming out of the dark ages. And it also makes it clear that "the West" never really had anything to do with the creation of the culture and civilization of Greece or even Rome and that the direct linkage of these to later cultures and civilizations in Western Europe and the Western Hemisphere is blatant NONSENSE. There was no direct connection. The dark ages of Western Europe were so because Western Europe NEVER HAD an ancient culture of civilization, democracy, math and science. And the EASTERN half of the Roman Empire was anything BUT in a dark ages, again showing that THE EAST is where the ancient civilizing forces arose that eventually led to civilization in the WEST.
Again, this shows the flow of culture and civilization went FROM the East and TO the West, not the other way around.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, There are two excellent books out there that will go a long way toward answering your questions.
1. Aristotle's Children by Richard Rubenstein
2. Sailing the Wine Dark Sea- Thomas Cahill
The cahill book deals with how the Greeks developed their civilization and how it became western civilization
The Rubenstein books deals with the transfer of Greek knowledge throughout Europe during the middle ages.
Both are excellent reads and are good places to start for anyone interested in the topic. You can pick them up on Amazon for a small amount of money.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
So go read them then. I never asked any questions so why should I? Those books REINFORCE what I have been saying. Or do you not have any comprehension of how "Western" civilization actually comes from THE EAST.
Democracy was NEVER a major form of political organization and when it was promoted it was only practiced IN NAME ONLY, as MANY PEOPLES were NOT included in practice. In fact this is the same criticism that was made DURING THE TIMES OF THE GREEKS. The most glaring criticism was that it was "mob rule" of an elite group over the masses. For most of Greece's history it was NOT democratic as seen in the Hellenistic period which followed. Likewise, for MOST of Europe's history MONARCHIES ruled the continent, led by divine "god kings", more generally following the ways of The East than any sort of democratic ideals. Again, this nonsense about democracy being some hallmark of the West is BOGUS, because it is only RECENTLY that many Western countries have become TRULY democratic as opposed to the tyrannical dictatorships, oligarchies and monarchies that existed.
And the key point is the following
quote: The cahill book deals with how the Greeks developed their civilization and how it became western civilization
BECAME Western. Understand what this means. Greeks were not WESTERN at any time in their history. They were West of Persia but they were NOT Western Europe. Their pattern of civilization and culture DID NOT reach Western Europe until 1000 years after they were gone and only in a superficial theoretical sense. Even the Muslims were not democratic, even as they studied Aristotle. I don't know how you cannot understand this. There was no DIRECT connection between ancient Greece and what we now call modern "Western" civilization.
Key point: who invented writing, paper and the printing press? NONE of that came from THE WEST and yet all three of those things are KEY elements of civilization, including "Western" civilization and THEY ALL originate in the South and East of Europe.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You are a terribly uneducated person. Some people simply cannot be helped.
Posted by Knowledgeiskey718 (Member # 15400) on :
quote:You are a terribly uneducated person. Some people simply cannot be helped.
So why don't you post information of which would make a correction, why do you just rely on your disagreement as a source of truth? Why even bother coming on a board to act like you want to debate, but in actuality all you want to do is disrupt and cast doubt without any validity for your claims?
Please provide credible sourced information for anything you have a problem with. Thanks
Or perhaps you're one of those who can't learn? Perhaps just don't want to learn? Yea I think it's the latter.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Mr Patriot only has pride and ego and no facts. The books he posted are basically a reference to the beginning of translations into Latin of Arabic works as a result of the Christian conquest of Toledo, the center of Islamic culture and learning in Spain in the north.
Only a person concerned with FAKE pride and ego would sit there and ignore the fact that MOST of Europe was dominated by monarchies, tyrants, dictators and racists for MOST of its history. All this talk about democracy is bull crap. The American democracy, even though it wasn't a TRUE democracy, was UNLIKE anything that existed in Europe. On top of that, it had NO PHYSICAL connection or relationship to the Greeks. The "founding fathers" had NO direct relationship to or with the ancient Greeks. And like I said, American style democracy was UNLIKE any existing government that existed in Europe at the time..... Which means that DEMOCRACY is a relatively NEW concept in "Western" European politics.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Egmond Codfried:
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: And for those who wan't to hear Bernal talk about the Greeks and their debt to the East. Listen to this:
Why not go and see a shrink? Your condition might be still treatable. Now you are just pitiful, keeping up this sad charade. We know you are a con-man as all of us have suffered your cold hearted hatred. Every sincere person on this forum was insulted by a Djehuti, or a JMT or a Doug M: all of them showing the same hatefull Modus Operandi. So we all know you are a very sick boy, and giving us a daily scary expose of what horrific turmoil there is inside of you. And we hate this sickness. We just want you to get well again. If I do not see any improvement I will call the LAW on you, dear.
Yes, Ive seen "Doug M" on other forums, namely sports forums...aint that right "Doug M"? LOL
I noticed too in one of his posts he seems to agree with the basic premise of Mary and Patriot on "the transfer of Greek knowledge throughout Europe during the middle ages." and the whole notion of Greek philosophy being "home grown".
"Doug M" claims that "Greek thought, especially that of the Greeks was introduced to the WEST by the Muslims."
This is not true:
So-called "Greek thought", like Aristotle etc, is actually Egyptian. Noticed he uses Bernal as a source on the origins of Greek thought and not George GM James. The significance of this is that Bernal is a white Jew who does not see Egyptians as "black", belittles the book Stolen Legacy and hides the specific Egyptian influences on "Greek thought" under the cover of broader "eastern influences". See this book.
notice too JMT has a habit of denying African influences on Greco-Roman civilisation.....maybe your on to something Egmond.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
And back to the original topic. Yes the Moors was a reference to the blackness of many of the invaders from Africa. And across the Islamic world, there were many black populations and still are.
And it was the Islamic world that built on the traditions of Aristotle after the fall of Greece and Rome.
Why not go and see a shrink? Your condition might be still treatable. Now you are just pitiful, keeping up this sad charade. We know you are a con-man as all of us have suffered your cold hearted hatred. Every sincere person on this forum was insulted by a Djehuti, or a JMT or a Doug M: all of them showing the same hatefull Modus Operandi. So we all know you are a very sick boy, and giving us a daily scary expose of what horrific turmoil there is inside of you. And we hate this sickness. We just want you to get well again. If I do not see any improvement I will call the LAW on you, dear.
Yes, Ive seen "Doug M" on other forums, namely sports forums...aint that right "Doug M"? LOL
I noticed too in one of his posts he seems to agree with the basic premise of Mary and Patriot on "the transfer of Greek knowledge throughout Europe during the middle ages." and the whole notion of Greek philosophy being "home grown".
"Doug M" claims that "Greek thought, especially that of the Greeks was introduced to the WEST by the Muslims."
This is not true:
So-called "Greek thought", like Aristotle etc, is actually Egyptian. Noticed he uses Bernal as a source on the origins of Greek thought and not George GM James. The significance of this is that Bernal is a white Jew who does not see Egyptians as "black", belittles the book Stolen Legacy and hides the specific Egyptian influences on "Greek thought" under the cover of broader "eastern influences". See this book.
notice too JMT has a habit of denying African influences on Greco-Roman civilisation.....maybe your on to something Egmond.
Do you two clowns enjoy invoking my name in every other thread? You don't have a clue what the hell you're talking about. If you two ever want to do something worthwhile in the field of historical research, you better learn how to conduct basic investigations. Lousy researchers you are. You two get an "F" for failure to properly review and plain stupidity. If you bothered to read any of my 72 post, you would have learned what I stated in my post contradicts Djhutie's theories - the person you two jackazzez believe I'am. I believe blacks are indigenous to various parts of the world, not continental Africa only. Dj does not. I've stated much of the facial destruction to AE antiquities is man made. Others around here dismiss the obvious destruction of the nose and lips as "erosion" or mere coincidence.
You are right about one thing akoben, this edmond character is "ON" something...CRACK!
BTW, when did I ever deny "African influences on Greco-Roman civilization"? I eagerly await to see this propagated lie of yours. And please don't punk out. Silly beeyotches like you crack me up. You are incapable of adding one significant thing to the actual discussion on any subject because your epileptic electric-storm-brained azz got some kind of "cyber beef" issues with me. You can't help it though. Obviously you've been punked one two many times during your childhood and now you're taking out your frustrations in cyber space like most cowardly little punks do.
Please go take your zoloft, trazedone, lithium, and seroquel so people who truly want to learn something around here wont stalked by paranoid schizos like you and edmond.
Posted by JMT (Member # 12050) on :
quote:Originally posted by akoben:
quote:Originally posted by Egmond Codfried:
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: [qb] And for those who wan't to hear Bernal talk about the Greeks and their debt to the East. Listen to this:
Why not go and see a shrink? Your condition might be still treatable. Now you are just pitiful, keeping up this sad charade. We know you are a con-man as all of us have suffered your cold hearted hatred. Every sincere person on this forum was insulted by a Djehuti, or a JMT or a Doug M: all of them showing the same hatefull Modus Operandi. So we all know you are a very sick boy, and giving us a daily scary expose of what horrific turmoil there is inside of you. And we hate this sickness. We just want you to get well again. If I do not see any improvement I will call the LAW on you, dear.
Yes, Ive seen "Doug M" on other forums, namely sports forums...aint that right "Doug M"? LOL
I noticed too in one of his posts he seems to agree with the basic premise of Mary and Patriot on "the transfer of Greek knowledge throughout Europe during the middle ages." and the whole notion of Greek philosophy being "home grown".
"Doug M" claims that "Greek thought, especially that of the Greeks was introduced to the WEST by the Muslims."
This is not true:
So-called "Greek thought", like Aristotle etc, is actually Egyptian. Noticed he uses Bernal as a source on the origins of Greek thought and not George GM James. The significance of this is that Bernal is a white Jew who does not see Egyptians as "black", belittles the book Stolen Legacy and hides the specific Egyptian influences on "Greek thought" under the cover of broader "eastern influences". See this book.
notice too JMT has a habit of denying African influences on Greco-Roman civilisation.....maybe your on to something Egmond.
Do you two clowns enjoy invoking my name in every other thread? You don't have a clue what the hell you're talking about. If you two ever want to do something worthwhile in the field of historical research, you better learn how to conduct basic investigations. Lousy researchers you are. You two get an "F" for failure to properly review and plain stupidity. If you bothered to read any of my 72 post, you would have learned what I stated in my post contradicts Djhutie's theories - the person you two jackazzez believe I am. I believe blacks are indigenous to various parts of the world, not continental Africa only. Dj does not. I've stated much of the facial destruction to AE antiquities is man made. Others around here dismiss the obvious destruction of the nose and lips as "erosion" or mere coincidence.
You are right about one thing akoben, this edmond character is "ON" something...CRACK!
BTW, when did I ever deny "African influences on Greco-Roman civilization"? I eagerly await to see this propagated lie of yours. And please don't punk out. Silly beeyotches like you crack me up. You are incapable of adding one significant thing to the actual discussion on any subject because your epileptic electric-storm-brained azz got some kind of "cyber beef" issues with me. You can't help it though. Obviously you've been punked one two many times during your childhood and now you're taking out your frustrations in cyber space like most cowardly little punks do.
Please go take your zoloft, trazedone, lithium, and seroquel so people who truly want to learn something around here wont be stalked by paranoid schizos like you and edmond.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
^ seems you are the one on the crack as you posted the same BS twice. No need to, junior, I already showed where you cleverly tried to by pass Egyptian influence on Greco-Roman architecture in the other Moorish architecture thread.
Follow the posts, dufus.
Even when I pointed out your slight of hand you STILL tried to make distinctions between the two architectures in order to make your Eurocentric point valid: that Moorish architecture (like the dome) was "Greco- Roman" influenced.
Posted by JMT (Member # 12050) on :
quote:Originally posted by akoben: ^ seems you are the one on the crack as you posted the same BS twice. No need to, junior, I already showed where you cleverly tried to by pass Egyptian influence on Greco-Roman architecture in the other Moorish architecture thread.
Follow the posts, dufus.
Even when I pointed out your slight of hand you STILL tried to make distinctions between the two architectures in order to make your Eurocentric point valid: that Moorish architecture (like the dome) was "Greco- Roman" influenced.
I see you're one of many pathological liars on this raggedy forum.
Get a grip on yourself you psychotic fool. You haven't "showed" or demonstrated a damn thing in my quotes because I never made such statements.
I don't need to follow anything when all you need to do is provide the link which claims I said whatever the hell you're babbling about. You haven't provided the link and wont provide any link because there is no link with my quote.
Like I said, silly bitches like you and edmond make false accusations without any evidence and talk much crap about nothing. You're behind the curve and simply don't have the balls nor the brain cells to espouse anything of relevance.
I don't even know why I'm wasting my time going back and forth with a couple of anonymous azzholes in cyberspace. You totally f'd up an informative thread because of your paranoia and stupidity.
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug, There are two excellent books out there that will go a long way toward answering your questions.
1. Aristotle's Children by Richard Rubenstein
2. Sailing the Wine Dark Sea- Thomas Cahill
The cahill book deals with how the Greeks developed their civilization and how it became western civilization
The Rubenstein books deals with the transfer of Greek knowledge throughout Europe during the middle ages.
Both are excellent reads and are good places to start for anyone interested in the topic. You can pick them up on Amazon for a small amount of money.
You stupid fool, The Greeks were not the foundation of the West...ROME WAS you stupid arse. The West did not consider the Greeks important until the Muslim Jews wrote Arabic scripts of Greek works into Latin. The Greeks were an Eastern oriented society..other than a few colonies to control trade...the Greeks had little concern of the West. Rome is the foundation of the West. If you study Greek culture and Roman culture and compare it to the West you would find that it is more inline with Roman values and customs most of which the Greeks considered barbaric and the Greeks considered the Romans as Barbaric and tried to keep Greek culture seperate from Western or Roman culture.
You people are NOT Aristotle's children.... You are Ceasars children. It was the West that SHUT DOWN the Greek Schools pf philosophy and banned Greek teaching....IT WAS THE MUSLIM SCHOLARS that preserved Greek Philosophy!!!
You are a Fool!!!
Posted by Jari-Ankhamun (Member # 14451) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Mr Patriot only has pride and ego and no facts. The books he posted are basically a reference to the beginning of translations into Latin of Arabic works as a result of the Christian conquest of Toledo, the center of Islamic culture and learning in Spain in the north.
Only a person concerned with FAKE pride and ego would sit there and ignore the fact that MOST of Europe was dominated by monarchies, tyrants, dictators and racists for MOST of its history. All this talk about democracy is bull crap. The American democracy, even though it wasn't a TRUE democracy, was UNLIKE anything that existed in Europe. On top of that, it had NO PHYSICAL connection or relationship to the Greeks. The "founding fathers" had NO direct relationship to or with the ancient Greeks. And like I said, American style democracy was UNLIKE any existing government that existed in Europe at the time..... Which means that DEMOCRACY is a relatively NEW concept in "Western" European politics.
Exactly, The founding fathers DID NOT wan't to make America a new Greece....they wanted it like all European Nations after the reinassiance, to be like Rome. The only reason the choose a democracy was they were simply tired of Monarchy not becuase they admired the Greeks. As a matter of fact many people in early America did'nt want a Democracy.
The Professor need to read the Oxford Greek History book that deals with this very topic. Even in that book it is made clear that Rome was preceieved as the the foundation to which the West was to be modeled after and Greece had little respect amoung Europeans at that time.
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by JMT:
quote:Originally posted by akoben: ^ seems you are the one on the crack as you posted the same BS twice. No need to, junior, I already showed where you cleverly tried to by pass Egyptian influence on Greco-Roman architecture in the other Moorish architecture thread.
Follow the posts, dufus.
Even when I pointed out your slight of hand you STILL tried to make distinctions between the two architectures in order to make your Eurocentric point valid: that Moorish architecture (like the dome) was "Greco- Roman" influenced.
I see you're one of many pathological liars on this raggedy forum.
Get a grip on yourself you psychotic fool. You haven't "showed" or demonstrated a damn thing in my quotes because I never made such statements.
I don't need to follow anything when all you need to do is provide the link which claims I said whatever the hell you're babbling about. You haven't provided the link and wont provide any link because there is no link with my quote.
Like I said, silly bitches like you and edmond make false accusations without any evidence and talk much crap about nothing. You're behind the curve and simply don't have the balls nor the brain cells to espouse anything of relevance.
I don't even know why I'm wasting my time going back and forth with a couple of anonymous azzholes in cyberspace. You totally f'd up an informative thread because of your paranoia and stupidity.
Follow the posts in this thread then shut the f**k up.
Posted by JMT (Member # 12050) on :
quote:Originally posted by akoben:
quote:Originally posted by JMT:
quote:Originally posted by akoben: ^ seems you are the one on the crack as you posted the same BS twice. No need to, junior, I already showed where you cleverly tried to by pass Egyptian influence on Greco-Roman architecture in the other Moorish architecture thread.
Follow the posts, dufus.
Even when I pointed out your slight of hand you STILL tried to make distinctions between the two architectures in order to make your Eurocentric point valid: that Moorish architecture (like the dome) was "Greco- Roman" influenced.
I see you're one of many pathological liars on this raggedy forum.
Get a grip on yourself you psychotic fool. You haven't "showed" or demonstrated a damn thing in my quotes because I never made such statements.
I don't need to follow anything when all you need to do is provide the link which claims I said whatever the hell you're babbling about. You haven't provided the link and wont provide any link because there is no link with my quote.
Like I said, silly bitches like you and edmond make false accusations without any evidence and talk much crap about nothing. You're behind the curve and simply don't have the balls nor the brain cells to espouse anything of relevance.
I don't even know why I'm wasting my time going back and forth with a couple of anonymous azzholes in cyberspace. You totally f'd up an informative thread because of your paranoia and stupidity.
Follow the posts in this thread then shut the f**k up.
Obviously your CAN'T produce ANYTHING that was never said otherwise you would have provided SOMETHING for everyone to review.
You pathetic, lying little simpleton. You have absolutely ZERO credibility.
BTW, how are you going to make me shut up?
Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: it was the Islamic world that built on the traditions of Aristotle after the fall of Greece and Rome.
The so-called "traditions of Aristotle" was in fact plagiarized Egyptian traditions you fake. Where did you get this piece of disguised Eurocentric misinformation from, your Marxist Jew comrade Bernal? LOL
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Dude. You need to get off the crack. Your nonsense isn't something worth reading....
But for laughs, why do you think I posted the link to Bernal's own interview?? Duh.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
By the power of the almighty, how does one work on such a maniac? How does one make him see reason? Now he is fashioning some INSANE defence by attacking himself and using the same traits we have observed in him from the start. It's like one of his multiple personalities informing on the other one. Somebody should call the Guinness Book of Records. We hereby witness the highest numbers of personalities in one disturbed person: around twenty by now, and growing! There was this movie ‘The Three Faces of Eve.’ This is now eclipsed by ‘The Twenty Nicks of Djehuti.’ How would this maniac respond to me calling the LAW on him, and informing the Amsterdam GESTAPO…excuse me,… the Amsterdam Police or the Amsterdam SS…oops, Social Services; that Djehuti is a goddamn con-man. If he is so dedicated to lying about these matters, what else might he be lying about? Should the Amsterdam Tax-Office be warned about you Djehuti? Do you really want to have these bureaus’s starting some file titled 'Djehuti'? We have your number, Baby: Amsterdam 1033.
THIS HAS GOT TO STOP!
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
A bit off-topic, but from the five famous philosophers from the Enlightenment: Rousseau, Voltaire, Kant, Hume and D'Alembert, I find black/dark skinned prints. This let me to understand that the whole elite was of colour. Just as today the leading philosophers will be White men, as this group now has the power.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Like I said, get off the crack. Edmond the CockFreak comes here and dilutes the board with a bunch of nonsense about black whites, gay blacks and assorted stupidity and he thinks he is an African scholar. Please stop wasting my time with your tabloid nonsense. It isn't serious African scholarship and I am not really interested in your foolishness.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
I knew that GESTAPO would get his attention! Posted by akoben (Member # 15244) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Like I said, get off the crack. Edmond the CockFreak comes here and dilutes the board with a bunch of nonsense about black whites, gay blacks and assorted stupidity and he thinks he is an African scholar. Please stop wasting my time with your tabloid nonsense. It isn't serious African scholarship and I am not really interested in your foolishness.
Serious African scholarship doesn't talk about "the traditions of Aristotle". They know that there is no such thing.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
The Greeks loved their young, hairless, effete youths. I suggest future discussions about the Greeks should be done in Latin, as not to corrupt the innocent ones on this forum.
Posted by Egmond Codfried (Member # 15683) on :
TO: Djehuti Doug M JMT Euroskeptic Ta Setis revenge Argyll104 The Clown Crowd Etc.(about 20 entities)
As I see it you all had a few years ago agreed not to approach troublesome Egmond Codfried anymore. But Doug M is fighting for control and does not accept Djehuti as the leader. He went and tested Codfried. First he sent in the Clown Crowd. But Egmond did notice that the Clown Crowd only polluted his threads and not those where Djehuti and Doug M were busy.
Doug M was created while Djehuti was ridiculing Egmond Codfried about his research after the Black European Kings on another forum. Doug M suddenly started to talk about Renaissance on this Egyptsearch forum, in his own limited way of understanding the world.
So next, when Codfried entered this site, Dough M created the Euroskeptic entity, which showed smatterings of European and Surinamistiek knowledge, mostly picked up from Codfried, on a Surinam site. Holland born and educated Djehuti does not know Surinam history. But somehow this was not enough, so Doug M himself came and attacked Codfried. This is how Codfried immediately recognised that Doug M is another of Djehuti’s split personalities. He already had his doubts about Euroskeptic.
So it was Doug M who gave the game away and brought on all this turmoil, which we now witness, in the 20 entities on egyptsearch.com. Now you might all end up in the slammer, giving (oral) favors to twenty Turks, Moroccans and White's every night!
So my advice to you guys is to report Doug M to the Amsterdam Authorities and have him committed in one of the Psychiatric Wards which are not closed due to unlawful deaths in isolation cells. He will otherwise be the downfall of all of you. Just put some jogging pants and shorts in a plastic bag and drag his ass to a clinic. Yall have medical insurance, as all Dutch citizens do.
When you bring Doug M in, please tell the doctors about the extensive scar tissue he has around his…well, you know where these bad, bad man at the nazi run institute of the deaf put their big d…. I do not have to spell it out! He might get some corrective surgery, while they stop the short circuit in his mind.
There are reports of howling sounds coming out of your house. So be quick, set your house in order, report Doug M today, before the GESTAPO comes.
Egmond Codfried
quote:Egmond Codfried: Why not go and see a shrink? Your condition might be still treatable. Now you are just pitiful, keeping up this sad charade. We know you are a con-man as all of us have suffered your cold hearted hatred. Every sincere person on this forum was insulted by a Djehuti, or a JMT or a Doug M: all of them showing the same hatefull Modus Operandi. So we all know you are a very sick boy, and giving us a daily scary expose of what horrific turmoil there is inside of you. And we hate this sickness. We just want you to get well again. If I do not see any improvement I will call the LAW on you, dear.[QUOTE]
[QUOTE] AKOBEN: Yes, Ive seen "Doug M" on other forums, namely sports forums...aint that right "Doug M"? LOL. Notice too JMT has a habit of denying African influences on Greco-Roman civilisation.....maybe your on to something Egmond.
You sit here and post some garbage from race loon sites, then wonder why everyone questions your sanity.
-- An Eritrean says that an AA looks like his brother and its because Eritreans are mixed with Arabs.
An "observer" says that an AA looks like and "Arab", so it is because the AA person is mixed with Europeans. --
Of course it has the formulaic talking point that Africans are slaves. It even goes so far as to declare everyone else (non-Africans) as "laborers".
Jari-Ankhamun, you need to grow a brain and stop spending all your time at race loon and admixture sites. Maybe then you would learn to have some self-respect and self-esteem. Then you wouldn't be whining and moaning like a victim crying "they said this......and this......and this about us"
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^^Aaah STFU with your lies and false accusations already!!
quote:Eva wrote: Oh really? Well Mary if you actually went on the link you keep running from you would have realized that wasnt the case at all.
And what link is that?? I never run away from anything let alone information an idiot like you puts up.
quote:But I suspect you already know this, which is why you refuse to go back there! LOLOL
I know enough to know that all you do is spew B.S.
quote:Is it clear yet that there is a STOLEN LEGACY and it is perfectly valid, legal, moral and dutiful to declare, "**** stinks."...I doubt you've studied James. Until you start citing him in your refutations I'm not bothering to respond after this post.The link
LMAO Of course there is no "stolen" legacy. And no I didn't "study" James why should I?! I merely read his book unlike YOU! Some things I agreed with others I did not such as his premise that Greeks "stole" philosophy from Egypt! As for the link you speak of I was the one who posted the link to YOU, you braindead nitwit! Why? Because it proved my point!
quote:...What we generally call "Greek philosophy" was almost certainly derived by the Greeks from Egyptian culture, particularly natural science (physics and math) which preoccupied Greek thought up to the time of Plato. The Greeks seem also to have derived much of their philosophical theology from the Egyptians as well.
Oh my! What do we have here?! An indirect concession on Mary's part! LOLOLOL
LMAO Hardly! Where in the quote you highlighted did it say Greeks stole their philosophy period?!! It merely said they derived much of thier philsophical theology. And since you're an ignoramoose like all nazi b*tches, you obviously didn't know that Greek theology dates back to the archaic times NOT Classical times, you imbecile! LOL There you go spinning and distorting sources to your demented liking!
quote:Mary finally admits that her position on Greek philosophy being "home grown" was total BS by pretending to hold the above quoted position! LOLOLOL
I'm not Mary Lefkowitz, nor have I ever cited her or defended her. And my position was that Greek Classical philosophy was homegrown, which is true! But I never deinied there was any foreign influence from earlier times, you nitwit!
And as your own citation shows I'M RIGHT! Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
I forgot to answer this part
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: ..You do not even know anything about the gene you try to promote.
You mean E3b as well as Benin HBS. First of all E3b is not a gene but a haplogroup, and Benin HBS is a gene that causes sickle cell. Of course we know about these genetic factors to know that they originated in Africa! So please stop with the false accusations about what we know or don't know.
quote:This is all ignorant afrocentric nonsense. Further, you will find no classical schholar that will make the connection you are trying to make.
If this is all "afrocentric nonsense" as you say then why are so many white European scientists and academians supporting our claims?? Also, are you saying no classical scholar makes no connection between Archaic Greece and Classical Greece??! LOL Now that is what I call nonsense!
Enough of this talk about Classical Greece! If you want to discuss that topic you can go HERE
This thread is about the African identity of the Moores!!
quote:Originally posted by Ausar in another thread: The problem is the study neglects the other historic slave trade that occured in Northwest Africa . The fact that it was not untill the early 1900's that slavery millions of white Christians was stopped by authorities.Tunisa,Algeria,Morocco and etc. Of course Greco-Roman writers describe dark skinned populations that lived well above the Sahara around the Oasis that survive today as the Haratin in Southern Morocco. Other populations in Fezzan and Siwa that are ''black'' and African in apperance are largely ignored by researchers. Not to mention that sub-saharan type populations lived in the Sahara desert well before desertifcation.
To ascribe all so-called L3a admixture is a product of slavery is a product of the ''Hamitic Hypothesis'' that still plagues many genetic and anthropological text.
Another problem is the assumption that modern Arabic speaking populations are non-Berber in origin. Simply not true because there was not very large amounts of migration from the Arabian peninsula. Many of the Arabic speaking populations in Morocco,Algeria are just as Berber as the Berber speaking populations. This is not to say there was no migration of Arab bedouin tribes but it was minimal compared to earlier migrants that might have came from the Northern Mediterranean. The only exception I know of almost entirely Arabic ethnic countries in Magreb is Libya and Tunisa.
Any answers professor?? Posted by Alive-(What Box) (Member # 10819) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti: I forgot to answer this part
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: ..You do not even know anything about the gene you try to promote.
You mean E3b as well as Benin HBS.
E3a as well as the rare A (noteble frequencies in the Tuareg) are also to be found in the Iberian peninsula... maybe it came from Ghengis The Khan Khan, who had many children.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
You cannot use this kind of information to draw conclusions usless you have supporting data of another kind. In other words you cannot take a genetic marker and draw an entire history from it. On the other hand if you do have some supporting data then the genetic marker might mean more.
Posted by osirion (Member # 7644) on :
Who was the main leaders of the Moorish people and how did they depict themselves in their own art? What kind of government did they have?
Also, weren't their alot of European slave warriors that were part of the Moor armies? As for the Trans-Saharan slave trade, wouldn't some of the soldiers from various non-Islamic tribes of Ghana, Senegal and Mali have been forced into the armies of the Moors? Are the Tauregs somehow related to the Moors?
Posted by osirion (Member # 7644) on :
By the way, what does the Moors being Black mean? Obviously they weren't all Black. They were Berbers so we are talking about a diverse group of people. Isn't there mountainous regions of North Africa that would result in a Caucasian like adaptation? At least I thought the features that are Caucasian was due to adaptation to high altitudes - basically Albinism selection pressure. Could that happen some places in North Africa?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Moors were not black. The invasion of Spain was part of the Islamic conquestst. Actually by the 11th century muslims in Spain had lost much of their original ngains and were in a slow, steady retreat. By the 1400's it was obvious that the Spainsh had the upper hand.
Posted by osirion (Member # 7644) on :
Obviously there were Moors that were Black in every way that we think of Black. Then there was a fair number of them that were Athiopid which is a controversial type Black.
The question is not if there were any Black Moors (you have to be an idiot not know that there were) but the question is what does it mean to say that the Moors were Black since we know that most of them aren't what we normally think of as Black.
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
It's entertaining to see two kemophobes at it with each other, but watch: Osirion, can you produce the etymology for "Moors", and what you understand from it.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by Alive-(What Box): E3a as well as the rare A (noteble frequencies in the Tuareg) are also to be found in the Iberian peninsula... maybe it came from Ghengis The Khan Khan, who had many children.
Actually, my reference to E3b and Benin HBS was in regards to the Aegean and Greece, but you are correct about Iberia as well. In fact, the presence of not only A but E1 lineages in Iberia indicate a much earlier African incursion into Iberia long before the Islamic Moorish invasions.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
The genetic markers by themselves mean nothing.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: You cannot use this kind of information to draw conclusions usless you have supporting data of another kind. In other words you cannot take a genetic marker and draw an entire history from it. On the other hand if you do have some supporting data then the genetic marker might mean more.
LMAO On the contrary professor! Obviously all of our past discussions on genetics have gone over your head, since you still don't realize that those very genetic markers themselves indicate actual genetic lineages!! Hence, they are used to draw an entire history of populations! Of course genetics is not the only data we have, for we made it clear to you countless times that even before such genetic data became available, decades earlier anthroplogists have provided data in the form of skeletal remains in southern Europe bearing African affinities.
So what is your lame excuse now?
quote: Moors were not black. The invasion of Spain was part of the Islamic conquest. Actually by the 11th century muslims in Spain had lost much of their original ngains and were in a slow, steady retreat. By the 1400's it was obvious that the Spainsh had the upper hand.
Again you continue your fraudulent claims without any support and despite the points I gave in my previous post. 'Moor' means black, and the Islamic conquest of Spain was done by Muslim natives of North Africa who were black!
Refute the info below professor or stand corrected.
quote:Originally posted by Ausar: The problem is the study neglects the other historic slave trade that occured in Northwest Africa . The fact that it was not untill the early 1900's that slavery millions of white Christians was stopped by authorities.Tunisa,Algeria,Morocco and etc. Of course Greco-Roman writers describe dark skinned populations that lived well above the Sahara around the Oasis that survive today as the Haratin in Southern Morocco. Other populations in Fezzan and Siwa that are ''black'' and African in apperance are largely ignored by researchers. Not to mention that sub-saharan type populations lived in the Sahara desert well before desertifcation.
To ascribe all so-called L3a admixture is a product of slavery is a product of the ''Hamitic Hypothesis'' that still plagues many genetic and anthropological text.
Another problem is the assumption that modern Arabic speaking populations are non-Berber in origin. Simply not true because there was not very large amounts of migration from the Arabian peninsula. Many of the Arabic speaking populations in Morocco,Algeria are just as Berber as the Berber speaking populations. This is not to say there was no migration of Arab bedouin tribes but it was minimal compared to earlier migrants that might have came from the Northern Mediterranean. The only exception I know of almost entirely Arabic ethnic countries in Magreb is Libya and Tunisa.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: The genetic markers by themselves mean nothing.
ROTFLMAO
If that's so, then why do scientists even bother identifying and studying them at all??!!
I suggest you read about genetic haplogroups!
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
quote:The genetic markers by themselves mean nothing.
...just like Mr. Patriot's very existence in this thread, or elsewhere for that matter, is meaningless.
Posted by osirion (Member # 7644) on :
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur: It's entertaining to see two kemophobes at it with each other, but watch: Osirion, can you produce the etymology for "Moors", and what you understand from it.
Moor means Negro. To the Europeans, they were considered part of the Black race of people. There is no other way to explain the depiction of them in art. Of course you have to consider that the artist wanted to depict the most different of the Moors. It was almost like reporters in our news - shock effect.
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
It's entertaining to see two kemophobes at it with each other, but watch: Osirion, can you produce the etymology for "Moors", and what you understand from it.
Moor means Negro. To the Europeans, they were considered part of the Black race of people.
Ah, and yet, it was none other than you who wrote this:
By the way, what does the Moors being Black mean? - osirion.
In light of this, Osirion, what is one to make of your state of mind?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Exploraretu, OK genius, you tell me how you can construct a history with only a genetic marker to go by?
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by osirion: By the way, what does the Moors being Black mean? Obviously they weren't all Black. They were Berbers so we are talking about a diverse group of people. Isn't there mountainous regions of North Africa that would result in a Caucasian like adaptation? At least I thought the features that are Caucasian was due to adaptation to high altitudes - basically Albinism selection pressure. Could that happen some places in North Africa?
Your questions on the theory of indigenous whites of North Africa was answered numerous times before-- the answer is NO. There are white Berbers of North Africa but their white appearance is due to European ancestry! But Moor does NOT mean 'Berber', it means BLACK and it is derived from the Greek word Maure which means the same thing-- black.
The actual Berber groups that were involved in the Islamic invasion of Iberia were Sanhaja peoples of the Sahara. The Sanhaja was a tribe that is part of the people we know today as 'Tuaregs'! So, of course these were black people and not the white Berber groups like Kabyle or Rif!!
quote: Obviously there were Moors that were Black in every way that we think of Black. Then there was a fair number of them that were Athiopid which is a controversial type Black.
What the hell is an 'Athiopid'? Sounds like you are buying into the old racial classifications of debunked anthropology!
quote:The question is not if there were any Black Moors (you have to be an idiot not know that there were) but the question is what does it mean to say that the Moors were Black since we know that most of them aren't what we normally think of as Black.
Again, the Moors were black! And not 'most' but *ALL* of them! As the very word 'Moor' means black! Non-black Muslims were called Saracen by Europeans!
Ok then, Mr. Patriot; let's start with constructing your history: Do you have parents?
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ LOL Why bother to waste your time, Explora? I already provided 'patriot' a link to information on genetic markers. It is ultimately his choice to educate himself on the matter. We've discussed genetics with the professor for how many years and he still does not get it!!
In the meantime here is some artwork from Medieval Europe for them to ponder over:
The painting above is from Spain and guess who those black persons are.
The image above is the crest of the flag of Corsica known as the "Moore's Head". I wonder why...
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
quote:Originally posted by Djehuti:
^ LOL Why bother to waste your time, Explora? I already provided 'patriot' a link to information on genetic markers.
Well hey, Mr. Patriot wants to know how I could possibly construct history with a mere genetic marker; the least one can do, is to use an example that he himself can immediately relate to, no?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I can already see that you are going to dodge the question. The idea that you can construct a history from a genetic marker is as dopey as it gets. What Djehuti does with genetic markers is just make things up to fit his argument. You guys do not have a shred of historical evidence to back up your points.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur: Well hey, Mr. Patriot wants to know how I could possibly construct history with a mere genetic marker; the least one can do, is to use an example that he himself can immediately relate to, no?
You are probably right. Perhaps even wiki might prove to be a little too much for the poor professor's mind to comprehend. Go ahead, let's see how simple you can break things down for him.
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
Look at this; AmericanPatriot asks me how I can construct history with a genetic marker, and I instantly proposed a solution, by starting with his own history, yet when asked to provide an elementary info to get started, he cops out with saying that it is others who are dodging questions. Quite a funny man, AmericanPatriot is.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I'm all ears. Let us hear this history you scholars can construct with only a genertic marker to work with.
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
Well, where's that info then? One can only wait so long in such a brief lifespan that we have on this planet.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I am waiting on you scholar
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
^This is a pristine example of the dodging you were talking about earlier, no?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Djehuti, The genetic markers and the work of anthropologists on human remains does not establish a history. It is a piece of information tjhat has to be supported by extensive historical data. For example, who introduced the marker, how many, Historians want to look at change and continuity...what changes as the result of a historical event and what remains the same. The absurdity of your greece argument is that you cannot connect any of it to Homer, none of it to aristotle etc etc. You cannot even give these people a name or prove what happened to them or even from whom they got the marker. It is afrocentric silliness at it's greatest.
You try to use these markers to connect Greece to Egypt and yet they predate even historical Egypt by centuries and more. I have heard some incoherent arguments in my time but even a typical untrained college freshman usually does better than this. It is what happens when people inject political ideology into academics.
Posted by osirion (Member # 7644) on :
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
It's entertaining to see two kemophobes at it with each other, but watch: Osirion, can you produce the etymology for "Moors", and what you understand from it.
Moor means Negro. To the Europeans, they were considered part of the Black race of people.
Ah, and yet, it was none other than you who wrote this:
By the way, what does the Moors being Black mean? - osirion.
In light of this, Osirion, what is one to make of your state of mind?
]
But Black is a relative description and you know thats where I am going with this. They may have called them Black but they may have been over exaggerating considering the numerous Arabs that help maintain cohesion. A lot of people back then were called Black that we wouldn't consider to be Black today.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Naturally you are correct, it is a relative term in a region where dark complected people were rare. The problem is that to SAY they were black fits the political argument these folks want to make. None of them are trained in history. No historian would approach a historical problem that carelessly. It has never been about history on this board, we all know that.
Posted by Hibbah (Member # 12156) on :
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
It's entertaining to see two kemophobes at it with each other, but watch: Osirion, can you produce the etymology for "Moors", and what you understand from it.
Moor means Negro. To the Europeans, they were considered part of the Black race of people.
Ah, and yet, it was none other than you who wrote this:
By the way, what does the Moors being Black mean? - osirion.
In light of this, Osirion, what is one to make of your state of mind?
]
But Black is a relative description and you know thats where I am going with this. They may have called them Black but they may have been over exaggerating considering the numerous Arabs that help maintain cohesion. A lot of people back then were called Black that we wouldn't consider to be Black today.
Sorry to pop in, but from whats been said in this thread, I agree with this statement.
What were the European's standards for being "black"? I mean, to my knowledge, the "Moors" included Arabs and Berbers- some are "black" and some aren't. I'm sure their definition of "black" was different from our own.
While I realize theres been more outside influence since then, couldn't one assume that the make up of North Africans from that period was close to its Make up today?
And I recall learning that Andalusia was started by a member of the Ummayads- who were Arabs. (Again, to my knowledge, Arabs can be "white", "black" "olive toned" etc).
Once Andalusia began to weaken, other groups of Muslims came from North Africa and created their own dynasties. Maybe they were darker? Maybe not?
Just trying to understand your conversation. Not sure why the label is needed.
Whats the definition of "black"?
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
It's entertaining to see two kemophobes at it with each other, but watch: Osirion, can you produce the etymology for "Moors", and what you understand from it.
Moor means Negro. To the Europeans, they were considered part of the Black race of people.
Ah, and yet, it was none other than you who wrote this:
By the way, what does the Moors being Black mean? - osirion.
In light of this, Osirion, what is one to make of your state of mind?
But Black is a relative description and you know thats where I am going with this. They may have called them Black but they may have been over exaggerating considering the numerous Arabs that help maintain cohesion. A lot of people back then were called Black that we wouldn't consider to be Black today.
This gets interesting. Notice that Osirion was made to tell us what Moors actually means, and then after a hiatus, comes back to give us his speculations on what it means. So, it is your understanding that presumably "non-blacks" were considered "Negroes" back in the day, but "today", they are not; why is that?
And oh, you guys may also now go back to arguing about what "Black" means. Posted by Knowledgeiskey718 (Member # 15400) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Djehuti, The genetic markers and the work of anthropologists on human remains does not establish a history. It is a piece of information tjhat has to be supported by extensive historical data. For example, who introduced the marker, how many, Historians want to look at change and continuity...what changes as the result of a historical event and what remains the same. The absurdity of your greece argument is that you cannot connect any of it to Homer, none of it to aristotle etc etc. You cannot even give these people a name or prove what happened to them or even from whom they got the marker. It is afrocentric silliness at it's greatest.
You try to use these markers to connect Greece to Egypt and yet they predate even historical Egypt by centuries and more. I have heard some incoherent arguments in my time but even a typical untrained college freshman usually does better than this. It is what happens when people inject political ideology into academics.
Population genetic relationships between Mediterranean populations determined by HLA allele distribution and a historic perspective.
Arnaiz-Villena A, Gomez-Casado E, Martinez-Laso J.
1) Greeks share an important part of their genetic pool with sub-Saharan Africans (Ethiopians and west Africans) also supported by Chr 7 Markers. The gene flow from Black Africa to Greece may have occurred in Pharaonic times or when Saharan people emigrated after the present hyperarid conditions were established (5000 years B.C.).
------------------ HLA genes in Macedonians and the sub-Saharan origin of the Greeks. Arnaiz-Villena A, Dimitroski K, Pacho A, Moscoso J, Gómez-Casado E, Silvera-Redondo C, Varela P, Blagoevska M, Zdravkovska V, Martínez-Laso J.
3) Greeks are found to have a substantial relatedness to sub-Saharan (Ethiopian) people, which separate them from other Mediterranean groups. Both Greeks and Ethiopians share quasi-specific DRB1 alleles, such as *0305, *0307, *0411, *0413, *0416, *0417, *0420, *1110, *1112, *1304 and *1310. Genetic distances are closer between Greeks and Ethiopian/sub-Saharan groups than to any other Mediterranean group and finally Greeks cluster with Ethiopians/sub-Saharans in both neighbour joining dendrograms and correspondence analyses. The time period when these relationships might have occurred was ancient but uncertain and might be related to the displacement of ***Egyptian-Ethiopian*** people living in pharaonic Egypt. Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
"may have"/ The point is you cannot tell me where it came from, how many peoiple were involved, or even who these people were MUCH LESS any historical impact they may or may not have had. Tie one of them to Sophocles. Show us the tread that led from these people to Plato and Aristotle. You have no history here and in fact 72 % of Greeks do not even have the marker. You are presenting me with some information but it cannot be used to build ANY history that will aloow us to make the kind of leaps some on this board want to make.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Simple point of fact that all the nonsense above does not address. Many Africans in Africa, including North Africa ARE black. The word MOOR is a term derived from MAURE and BOTH were used as a reference to the VERY DARK people who were among those who invaded Spain. It was also a term used to refer to the VERY dark populations of North West Africa, including Mauretania, which MEANS land of the blacks. The people who made up the invaders of Islamic Spain from Africa came from a wide swath of North Africa, from the Sahara, to Mauritania and into other parts of West Africa. Therefore, to claim that Moor was NOT a reference to such people and simply a term used to refer to ANY person of the Islamic world who invaded Spain IS A LIE. It is also a LIE to claim that the people who invaded Spain from Africa were simply from the COASTS of North Africa who have VERY LIGHT skin. WRONG. Many of these people are historically ANTI Islam and ANTI Arab. The Moors were some of the MOST FANATICAL Muslims out there. Again, this is another example of A LIE. Also, MOST of the invaders WERE NOT Arabs anyway. NO historian says this and NO archaeologist claims this. That is NONSENSE. A hand full of Arabs in North Africa does not make everyone Arab. MOST North Africans have more European blood BECAUSE of the history of European interaction in North Africa over the last 4000 years. And on top of that MANY ARABS ARE BLACK, as blacks ARE the aboriginal population of Arabia AND the Levant. So again, this is purely another example of people who want to go to GREAT LENGTHS to deny the role of BLACK PEOPLE in history by making up lies and distorting the FACTS to suit their own agendas. Even Moroccan historians will tell you point blank that there were MANY important figures from their history who WERE BLACK. And there is no CONFUSION or AMBIGUITY about what that means either.
And yes, the word Moor and its historical meaning as a reference to blacks has been distorted and diluted by the HISTORIC movements of Arabs into North Africa and Mauretania who have conquered the original Moors and made THEMSELVES the ruling elite. There was no such thing as a white Moor in the time period from 711 to 1492. It is a contradiction of terms, like saying white black. Such a term only came about AFTER this time as the descendants of the ACTUAL Moors were dispersed and conquered by various Arab factions. That is why Moor is no longer used in Morocco, which was most of its HISTORY FOUNDED by Moors. It is why the ruling elite of Mauritania today, who ARE FROM YEMEN, claim to be white Moors even though they have LITTLE African ancestry. All of this is the nonsense that allows people to pretend that the original inhabitants of North West Africa not black, when they were.
quote: Mauritania – Neither Arab nor African
By: Garba Diallo, Director for International Programmes, The International People's College, Elsinore, Denmark
"Make new friends, but always keep the old ones". Its 40 years of search for cultural identity has led Mauritania to seek alliances with black African countries, the ex-colonial power France, later the Arab world and now the US and Israel. Making new friends here means abandoning the old ones.
Thus, after turning its back on black Africa during the 1970s in an attempt to become an Arab country, Mauritania has now ended up losing both Africa and the Arab world. While the recent withdrawal from the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) has further distanced the country from black Africa, the new rapprochement with Israel has served a heavy blow to three decades of image making to turn the country into mono-ethnic Arab. In addition, Mauritania is in a noisy row with France over the arrest and indictment of a Mauritanian army officer on torture charges. As the country cannot survive without a mentor, Mauritania has found a new ally in the US. Though those who invented Mauritania claimed that the country would be a bridge between Africa and the Arab world, today the state has become neither Arab nor African. In fact, with the unresolved ethnic conflict, human rights abuses, a heinous practice of slavery and a de facto return to a one-party military regime, Mauritania has become an endangered state. Despite massive foreign aid amounting to 2 billion dollars since 1985, the country's foreign debts have accumulated to USD 1,000 per capita while 57 per cent of the people have fallen below the poverty line and 37 per cent are unemployed.
Departure from ECOWAS: the black phobia In view of the current regional and global integration, it is difficult to understand why the Mauritanian President, Colonel Sid Ahmed Ould Taya, decided to leave ECOWAS, especially at a time when Mauritania's relations with its traditional allies - the Arab world and France - are at their worst. Ould Taya's stated reason for leaving ECOWAS is the organisation's decision to establish a common currency by 2004, for which the regime is not ready to give up its own currency, the Ouguiya. However, the real problem is that Mauritania has no intention to integrate or have an open-border policy with black Africa. Mauritania has not paid its membership contribution to ECOWAS for the last 16 years, since Colonel Ould Taya seized power through a coup. Situated on the cultural divide between black Africa and Arab North Africa, Mauritania suffers from a serious identity crisis. The regime's approach to this crisis has been to deny its African identity and bend over toward the Arab World.
A meaningful West African integration will directly contradict Taya's ethnic cleansing policies: a campaign of terror by which tens of thousands of black citizens have been forcibly expelled and hundreds more have been tortured and killed. To cover up for the crimes, Taya granted a blanket amnesty to all members of the armed forces for crimes committed during the "period of exception" (1989-93). The amnesty was issued on 29 May, just before the 1993 International Human Rights Summit held in Vienna.
Ethnic makeup Covering over 1,000,000 km2, Mauritania's population is estimated at 2.5 million. They comprise some 40-45 per cent slaves and descendants of slaves, known as Haratine, black African of the Fulani, Soninke, Wolof and Bambara plus 25 per cent white Moors known as Beydanes. The white Moors are of Arab/Berber stock. The Haratine are all black and of African descent, and were taken into slavery by the white Moors, who still control them. In spite of their minority status, the white Moors dominate over 80 per cent of power positions in the country. Discussion of demographic and ethnic distribution is a national taboo. Therefore, results from the three population censuses (1977, 1988 and 1998) have never been published. Even the UN surrendered to these policies when in 1995 the Mauritanian regime managed to prevent the UNHCR from publishing the result of their census of the Mauritanian refugees in Senegal.
This definitely was not the case 900 years ago at the height of the Almoravid dynasty or Almohad dynasty. ALL of this has only come about in the last 300 years after the NUMBEROUS wars of Arabs versus Africans (REAL MOORS) in Mauretania. In fact the TRUE MOORS (indigenous blacks) were ENSLAVED by the encroaching Arabs and their descendants call themselves WHITE Moors. Calling white Moors from Mauretania REAL MOORS is to call white Europeans in America native Americans.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Talk to historians Doug, I do. They disagree with you. North Africa was not and was not full of blacks. There amy be more there since 1970 due to modern immigration patterns but not in ancient times. Africa is 90% negroid and most of them have lived south of the desert. You guys make fools pou of yourselves with these dopey ideas.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Anybody can claim to be a historian. The point is why don't you ACTUALLY CITE some scholars who support this view. I don't care about who you talked to. I only care about facts. You present none. Stop faking and actually provide some support for yourself. If you cant actually CITE a SCHOLAR who supports your point of view, then your position is NONSENSE and therefore INVALID.
YOU are not a historian and therefore YOUR VIEWS are simply YOUR OWN and not that of historians. Saying you talked to someone doesn't amount to anything and doesn't make your position more valid.
So why not just cite some scholarship and stop talking so much ABOUT it without providing any?
Your words are nothing but empty rhetoric devoid of meaning or context. What are you calling North Africa and what TIME PERIODS are you referring to? The history of blacks in ALL parts of Africa including North Africa goes back over 100,000 years. The history of whites ON THE PLANET only goes back 20,000 or so? NO historian contradicts this. WHITE SKIN does not originate in a DESERT and certainly not in a desert bordering on a TROPICAL regions like Africa. The original populations and PREDOMINANT populations of North Africa FOR MOST of its history going back to the beginning of human beings was BLACK African, as there WAS NOT OTHER type of human to begin with. Only RECENTLY in human history have WHITES become part of the human species and only MORE recently have whites come to predominate in PARTS of North Africa. Whites ARE NOT the original humans in ANY part of the world, yet alone North Africa. Whites ARE NOT the originator of human thinking, civilization or behavior. They are only RECENT adaptations to cold environments who survived BECAUSE of the fact that the BLACKS who populated the earth ALREADY had the capacity to think and organize themselves for survival. If the first humans DID NOT have the capacity to think and organize themselves, THERE WOULD BE NO HUMAN SPECIES as they would have perished. Natural selection means according to the laws of Nature not the ideas and folly of WHITE Europeans.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I do Doug. I have given you the names of books to read, even our most BASIC text books. History pays my bills every day of my life. My real concern here is that we have a number of people who have bought into a strw here of ideology as a substitute for scholarship.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: I do Doug. I have given you the names of books to read, even our most BASIC text books. History pays my bills every day of my life. My real concern here is that we have a number of people who have bought into a strw here of ideology as a substitute for scholarship.
You haven't given me anything and the thing you DID cite CONTRADICTED your point of view. SO READ YOUR OWN text books, because WHAT YOU SAY does not match them.
Please CITE a passage from a SCHOLAR who supports your point of view. If you are SO KNOWLEDGEABLE about current research then you should be able to provide something.
OBVIOUSLY you can't and relying on text books which are more often driven by POLITICAL versus FACTUAL agendas doesn't mean a whole lot. Cite some ACTUAL SCHOLARSHIP.
It should be so simple for someone who claims to know so much.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
thats just nonsense Doug. The two books I gave you to read dealt with every major issue we have discussed. They correct some of the basic misconceptions some of you have concerning our most elementary history. the problem is you have to actually read the books. The 10th grade text books I offered are easy and quick reading. These books are actual scholarship, would you like some more? If you guys studied history in the United States someone has a problem.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
No they didn't. They contradicted you on every point. YOU don't read the books and YOU don't know what you are talking about.
As posted earlier:
Moroccans from Fez trading:
Examples of what the MOORS of ancient times looked like from Morocco and North West Africa.
But of course there are lighter skinned populations there as well:
But this diversity extends throughout the Islamic world from North Africa into the Levant, Persia, Afghanistan, India and South Asia. ALL of them are descended from blacks who had the SAME features other than skin color. This is a historical and biological FACT.
Nobody said all inhabitants of Northern Africa are black. What is being said is that these populations are only a PART of the population of North Africa, closest to the coast who have been subject to foreign blood. And these types have only become more dominant over LARGE parts of Northern Africa in the last 2000 years. Prior to that the DOMINANT population going back over 30,000 years in North Africa was BLACK. And by North Africa I mean from Tunisia in the North all the say down to Niger. ALL of these regions have ALWAYS been populated by blacks and the LARGEST part of North Africa IS the Sahara and the Sahara has ALWAYS been populated by blacks. The ONLY ones who contradict this are the RACIST nut cases who feel a need to contradict the OBVIOUS because of their own NEED to claim a history based on skin color that IS NOT based on historical fact.
The Islamic world is a historic development of Africans, Mesopotamians (Persian and Levantine), Central and South Asians with many Arabs actually being a mixture of Eurasian and African to begin with given that it straddles Eurasia and Africa as well as being one of the ANCIENT routes of migrations OUT of Africa into Eurasia.
So you can claim all you references to historians all you want. That does not change the facts of history and those facts go AGAINST the nonsense historical garbage that tries to filter out blacks from any role in the great movements of culture and civilization throughout history in order to promote the NONSENSE of white supremacy.
Posted by osirion (Member # 7644) on :
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
It's entertaining to see two kemophobes at it with each other, but watch: Osirion, can you produce the etymology for "Moors", and what you understand from it.
Moor means Negro. To the Europeans, they were considered part of the Black race of people.
Ah, and yet, it was none other than you who wrote this:
By the way, what does the Moors being Black mean? - osirion.
In light of this, Osirion, what is one to make of your state of mind?
But Black is a relative description and you know thats where I am going with this. They may have called them Black but they may have been over exaggerating considering the numerous Arabs that help maintain cohesion. A lot of people back then were called Black that we wouldn't consider to be Black today.
This gets interesting. Notice that Osirion was made to tell us what Moors actually means, and then after a hiatus, comes back to give us his speculations on what it means. So, it is your understanding that presumably "non-blacks" were considered "Negroes" back in the day, but "today", they are not; why is that?
And oh, you guys may also now go back to arguing about what "Black" means.
Don't lump me in with Mr. Patriot. However, being of European upbringing I am very well aware of the difference in concepts of Black. Where I was brought up Black people of Africa and India were all considered one race of people. Many of us no longer consider Southern Indians to be Black but then many Afrocentrics do. So again, to simply call them Black doesn't necessarily mean the same as what is meant by Black.
So far this is where I am at on this subject.
Moors looked similar to Southern Morrocans today and a good example of that is Zacarias Moussaoui which some consider Black and others do not. Classical historians describe the North Africans in a way that clearly indicates that the Morrocans in the South were the common type of Berber that has been present outside of the coastal areas of North Africa for quite some time.
However, and this is a big HOWEVER. Arabs came to control the Moors in Spain. And Arabs became known as the Moors because they provided cohesion and leadership to them. So Moor started to mean Muslim rather than Negro. Just like the word Gay no longer means a happy person. Terminology changes but I agree the original meaning was Negro. I do not distinguish between Sub-Saharan Black and North African Black. Sub-Sahara is a European invention to make themselves feel more racially pure and has no reality to human diversity. What I don't like is that Afrocentric tend to run with a sliver of truth and ignore the whole picture. Arabs ruled the Moorish empire of Spain. The Caliph was an Arab with some Moorish ancestry.
Moors are East African derived and related to the Saharan people such as the Fulani, Taureg, Masai, Tutsi, etc. I tend to agree that Zacarias is Black and so are the Fulani and Taureg but then I don't like the term Black or White they are archaic terms. I prefer terms that indicate origin so Saharan African of Nilo-Saharan people. Bantu are Nilo-Saharan but mixed with other Africans. Not sure where Pygmy and Khosian adaptation occurs so I haven't come up with a good description of that.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug the facts of history are decided by historians, not by you. When I am having to deal with issues with you guys that we teach in the 10th grade it is a problem. Posting modern pictures to make a historical point is hardly acceptable data.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
It's entertaining to see two kemophobes at it with each other, but watch: Osirion, can you produce the etymology for "Moors", and what you understand from it.
Moor means Negro. To the Europeans, they were considered part of the Black race of people.
Ah, and yet, it was none other than you who wrote this:
By the way, what does the Moors being Black mean? - osirion.
In light of this, Osirion, what is one to make of your state of mind?
But Black is a relative description and you know thats where I am going with this. They may have called them Black but they may have been over exaggerating considering the numerous Arabs that help maintain cohesion. A lot of people back then were called Black that we wouldn't consider to be Black today.
This gets interesting. Notice that Osirion was made to tell us what Moors actually means, and then after a hiatus, comes back to give us his speculations on what it means. So, it is your understanding that presumably "non-blacks" were considered "Negroes" back in the day, but "today", they are not; why is that?
And oh, you guys may also now go back to arguing about what "Black" means.
Don't lump me in with Mr. Patriot. However, being of European upbringing I am very well aware of the difference in concepts of Black. Where I was brought up Black people of Africa and India were all considered one race of people. Many of us no longer consider Southern Indians to be Black but then many Afrocentrics do. So again, to simply call them Black doesn't necessarily mean the same as what is meant by Black.
So far this is where I am at on this subject.
Moors looked similar to Southern Morrocans today and a good example of that is Zacarias Moussaoui which some consider Black and others do not. Classical historians describe the North Africans in a way that clearly indicates that the Morrocans in the South were the common type of Berber that has been present outside of the coastal areas of North Africa for quite some time.
However, and this is a big HOWEVER. Arabs came to control the Moors in Spain. And Arabs became known as the Moors because they provided cohesion and leadership to them. So Moor started to mean Muslim rather than Negro. Just like the word Gay no longer means a happy person. Terminology changes but I agree the original meaning was Negro. I do not distinguish between Sub-Saharan Black and North African Black. Sub-Sahara is a European invention to make themselves feel more racially pure and has no reality to human diversity. What I don't like is that Afrocentric tend to run with a sliver of truth and ignore the whole picture. Arabs ruled the Moorish empire of Spain. The Caliph was an Arab with some Moorish ancestry.
Moors are East African derived and related to the Saharan people such as the Fulani, Taureg, Masai, Tutsi, etc. I tend to agree that Zacarias is Black and so are the Fulani and Taureg but then I don't like the term Black or White they are archaic terms. I prefer terms that indicate origin so Saharan African of Nilo-Saharan people. Bantu are Nilo-Saharan but mixed with other Africans. Not sure where Pygmy and Khosian adaptation occurs so I haven't come up with a good description of that.
Wrong. The Africans of North West Africa were called Maure FIRST by the Romans. And it is from Maure that the word MOOR derives. That has NOTHING to do with Arabs and everything to do with the fact that MANY of these people in that area were VERY DARK. There was no Morocco when the Romans inhabited Northern Africa and many of the populations were either nomadic or sedentary oasis dwellers who inhabited PRE roman sites throughout the Sahara and Sahel. Upon the arrival of the Arab armies (which also contained various black populations) there was a series of wars and conflicts between the invaders and the indigenous Africans. Because the area of the Sahara is sparsely populated the Arabs eventually won, even though the resistance put up by the Africans was fierce. The Africans who were among those resisting the invaders were from a broad cross section of African peoples who inhabited Northern Africa. Some were very light due to historic Eurasian migration, but many were still very dark. After this initial conquest, the Arab armies absorbed the locals and the locals were converted to Islam under a pretext of "equality" in Islam. The Arabs were still a minority and set up strategic cities along the coast to control the trade from within Africa, which was primarily dominated BY BLACK AFRICANS, in the interior. The key here was the gold from Ghana and other interior regions of Africa, which was a CLOSELY GUARDED SECRET and a source of wealth for BOTH the black African kingdoms that mined the gold and controlled the mines, as well as the black African traders to brought it north.
With the large amount of forces now nominally under the banner of Islam and a ruling minority Arab elite, their was tension simmering below the surface as the conquerors never intended for the new converts to be truly equal. Therefore, as a way of diverting this energy to other pursuits, the conquest of Spain was initiated. At the time and throughout much of the early period of Islamic Spain, AFRICANS were the backbone of the armies and Arabs made up the small but growing ruling elite. But this did nothing to end the simmering animosity between the conquered Africans and the conquerors. Almost immediately there began a series of internal conflicts that threatened to rip the cohesion of the Islamic dominions apart. It is against this background that the first Umayyad prince arrived in Spain and ushered in the initial flowering of Islamic Spanish civilization. But there were only A HANDFUL of Umayyads who arrived in Spain at this time, most of the ruling family of Umayyads were murdered in Syria. Therefore, it wasn't as if there suddenly was a overwhelming amount of ARABS in Spain. In fact, the MAJORITY of muslims in Spain were SPANISH Europeans. During this period of Umayyad leadership, there were various kings who were known for their intelligence and strong leadership. MANY of them were mixed with Africans and formed the ruling elite. But even then there remained tensions between the Africans and the Arabian/Levantine Muslims. The key here is that the Islamic world of the time was FULL of such ethnic conflicts, whether it was the Umayyads against the Abbasids, the Seljuk Turks against the Abbasids, the Mongols against the Seljuk Abbasids, the Northern Arabians against the Southern Arabians, the Abbasids against the Africans and so forth and so on. And all of this was because the way Islam was used as a means of maintaining the power of a ruling elite over conquered or converted "locals". So who ever held control as the caliph ruled the land and nobody wanted to be the conquered abid or simple slaves to the law of the ruling minority. Thus Al Andalus was subject to a series of internal conflicts and is this that caused the the numerical and technological superiority of the Islamic civilization in Spain to weaken and eventually be destroyed. This is true THROUGHOUT the history of Islamic Spain. It is the reason why they lost in France, the reason behind the creation of the Taifa petty kingdoms and the reason for various rebellions of Africans both in Andalus and elsewhere in North Africa.
This conflict continued on in North Africa even after the fall of Al Andalus. The major difference was that the black populations were greatly diminished and fractured from where they were 700 years prior at the onset of Islamic conquest. There were more wars, more conflict and more ethnic strife that further eroded the dominance of blacks in Morocco, even though much of Morocco and its golden age was under the helm of blacks from the South. Eventually Morocco completely severed its connections with the South, as a result of the sack of Timbuktu. This was followed by even more incursions of Arab tribes into North Africa and culminated in the conquest of Mauretania by Arabs after a series of wars with the native black African berber descendants of the Almoravids and Almohades. This put an end to the large scale black African rebellions against Arab rule and led to North Africa become more and increasingly identified with the "Arab" world, even though NO PART of Africa is in Arabia and NO population of North Africa has any Arabian ancestry from PRIOR to the Islamic conquest. It is THIS EFFORT to make North Africa part of the "Arab" world that has led to so many attempts to re write the history of North Africa and make it somehow not part of BLACK AFRICA. This is simply a stupid example of the propaganda of those who now dominate north Africa and want to MAINTAIN their domination over the area.
NONE of that changes the fact that Moor which is originally derived from Maure, is a reference to the ORIGINAL black inhabitants of North West Africa, prior to the arrival of Arabs and Europeans.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug the facts of history are decided by historians, not by you. When I am having to deal with issues with you guys that we teach in the 10th grade it is a problem. Posting modern pictures to make a historical point is hardly acceptable data.
But YOU aren't a historian so YOU can't claim to be the AUTHORITY over history. That is the fundamental POINT here. YOU try and pretend to be an authority BUT YOU AREN'T. You continually claim historians this and historians that but FAIL to produce ONE historian that supports your views. What you rely on is INNUENDO like "I talked to some historians and they all agree..." but never produce ANY citation or ANY quotes to support your claims. You HAVE no interest in examining the facts. FACTS are something that you are AFRAID of , which is why you rely on empty talk about 'historians' as the authority over something, whether the FACTS agree with them or not.
Save your spewing of historical revisionism and nonsense for someone else. If those pictures were of whites you would be all over it like flies on sh*t. NO up to date current scholar would claim that black Africans are RECENT arrivals to North Africa. That is simply STUPID. In fact MOST MODERN scholarship is saying the exact OPPOSITE, including that the Sahara was once lush and also a route for migrations OUT of Africa. But of course, why would you care about that? And yes I can CITE MANY such up to date studies that confirm this. You have cited NOTHING and continue to rely on empty rhetoric about who is the authority, WITHOUT ACTUALLY providing anything to discuss.
So your opinion on the topic is worthless, as you have provided NOTHING of value to the conversation other than to prove that some of those who claim to be "historians" are frauds of the first degree and historians in name only.
I would welcome a discussion with a historian or scholar in the field, but YOU are not one and YOU can't PRETEND to pass your NONSENSE off as historical fact, no matter how often you resort to the "but historians..." argument. Either defend your own points of view or STFU. Nobody questioned the role of historians in telling history. I am questioning YOU and YOUR understanding of history which I SEE as FLAWED and I can BACK MY opinions up with references.
You just talk.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
I do not know what you define as a histrian. I teach it every day and will be doing so at 8 in the morning. None of the things any of us teach our students will include this racist babble you preach. Every historian supports my views, read the books I asked you to read. take a course in historical methods and learn how to evaluate data. Every 10th grade history class and EVERY textbool we use considers greece the foundation of western civilization and none of them preach afrocentric nonsense.
I am not the one promoting bigoted racist history, you are doing that.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Every historian supports my views, read the books I asked you to read. take a course in historical methods and learn how to evaluate data. Every 10th grade history class and EVERY textbool we use considers greece the foundation of western civilization and none of them preach afrocentric nonsense.
I am not the one promoting bigoted racist history, you are doing that.
Please. Stop wasting my time. As proven earlier ancient Greece had NO PART in Western Europe and therefore IS NOT part of the history of "The West". Ancient Greeks NEVER went west of Greece in ANY substantial fashion and NEVER conquered Western Europe or DIRECTLY transmitted any knowledge there. Therefore, this is simply the descendents of those who were considered BARBARIANS in Western Europe associating themselves with a civilization NOT THEIR OWN and NOT NATIVE to Western Europe AND CERTAINLY NOT associated with the Western Hemisphere. What on earth do the ancient Greeks have to do with AMERICA? NOTHING. They had NO role in the development and population of the western hemisphere and certainly NOTHING to do with the culture of the Western Hemisphere for most of its history. Greeks NEVER colonized the Western hemisphere OR Western Europe. The focus of the Greeks was TO THE EAST and NO PART of their Empire WAS EVER in the west.
So you can cite all the text books you want. Western civilization is a MEANINGLESS TERM as it refers to something that HAS NO ANCIENT HISTORY. There was NO ANCIENT BOND of kindred ideas, culture and civilization between ancient Greece and "the West". The GREEKS never looked TO THE WEST as a source of their culture or identity and they CERTAINLY did not identify with the people to THE WEST as being LIKE THEM or civilized. So the PROBLEM is YOU and YOUR HISTORY BOOKS which spread such NONSENSE as fact. "The west" as a geopolitical concept is something that came about THOUSANDS of years after ancient Greece ceased to exist as a world empire and has NO direct relationship with the western world. The ONLY thing that "Western civilization" refers to is the DOMINATION of the world by WESTERN EUROPEANS beginning 500 years ago. Prior to that "Western civilization" had no meaning, because the MOST ADVANCED civilizations were STILL in the east, Africa and the Americas. Western civilization is NOT an unbroken chain of events that started in Europe and led to the birth of civilization. Civilization was an unbroken chain of events that started in Africa and the east and then spread to Europe. Terms like "Western civilization" are simply a way to try and OBFUSCATE this fact.
And a typical example of the NONSENSE you talk is the idea of "The West" being a bastion of democracy. "The West" was NOT DEMOCRATIC for MOST of its history, certainly NOT in Europe and certainly NOT in Greece either, as Greece was ruled by Byzantine Romans and then Ottomans for most of the last 2000 years. On top of that, the rest of Europe was primarily ruled by Monarchies, dictators and tyrants who caused MORE DEATH and DESTRUCTION than any of the previous tyrants combined.
So again, READ YOUR OWN history books and stop making up NON SENSE.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
you need to contact our textbook publishers doug and tell them they are incorrect and that you have the answers.
Posted by argyle104 (Member # 14634) on :
Doug wrote: -------------------------------- You haven't given me anything and the thing you DID cite CONTRADICTED your point of view. --------------------------------
LOL! TheAmericanPatriot is just like Djehuti.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
argyle, Doug knows I am right. We have to assume he is at least a high school graduate and at one point read these textbooks.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Hore, if you want to discuss Greek population origins, do so here! But this thread is not about Greece or Iran (btw Doug, those ancient black depictions of Iran are not Persians but indigenous Elamites)
As for the actual topic of this thread, Hore and you also Hibbah need to pay attention to the valid info being said.
Moor means black and was applied to black natives of North Africa NOT Arabs or other Muslims which were called Saracen. Before any of you go further making baseless claims how about actually addressing the valid points below!
The painting above is from Spain and guess who those black persons are.
The image above is the crest of the flag of Corsica known as the "Moore's Head". I wonder why...
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Please, Hore, Osirion, or Hibbah... feel free to address the above!
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: you need to contact our textbook publishers doug and tell them they are incorrect and that you have the answers.
I am correcting YOU silly. Stop hiding behind text books. And YOU are unable to address ANYTHING directly which shows how you HAVE NOTHING to offer in terms of DIRECT EVIDENCE for ANYTHING you spout out of your flapping lips. Stand up and defend yourself for a change and stop diverting the point to something else.
I called YOU a fake, phony fraud that wouldn't know history if it slapped you in the mouth. You WONT address specifics because YOU CANT and THAT is the point, not text books, not historians not ANYTHING ELSE. We came here to debate SPECIFICS. If you cannot provide SPECIFICS to defend YOUR OWN points of view, you aren't debating you are cheer leading. This isn't about cheer leading. And 10th grade text books certainly do not address ALL THE THINGS we are talking about. THEY CAN'T. Any FOOL knows that. But obviously since your comprehension is AT A 10th GRADE LEVEL, you can't understand that. And when I was in high school I learned that the Moors were black Africans. So AGAIN YOU FLUNK and you FLUNK 10th grade history SILLY.
Address that.
Posted by argyle104 (Member # 14634) on :
Doug wrote: ------------------- I am correcting YOU silly. -------------------
Guide damn what guy talks like that?
Hell, your name really does need to be she-male Jenkins.
bwaaaaaahahahahahahahahahahahahaaaaaaaaaarghahaha
Posted by meninarmer (Member # 12654) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: I do not know what you define as a histrian. I teach it every day and will be doing so at 8 in the morning. None of the things any of us teach our students will include this racist babble you preach. Every historian supports my views, read the books I asked you to read. take a course in historical methods and learn how to evaluate data. Every 10th grade history class and EVERY textbool we use considers greece the foundation of western civilization and none of them preach afrocentric nonsense.
I am not the one promoting bigoted racist history, you are doing that.
You use a 10th grade text, but previously you claimed to teach at the university level? Now, you claim to teach high school. Which is it, college, high school, or vocational?
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Doug, When a person is so ill eductated that they do not understand that Greece is the foundation of western civilization you cannot have a detailed conversation. That is exactly why I refered you to a 10th grade world history text. You do not even have a basic understanding orf western history. If we are going to have a conversation where do we start? Minoan negroids? That is like having a conversation about UFO's. The best place for you to start would be the Cahill book. I am not going to debate mumbo jumbo with you.
Posted by meninarmer (Member # 12654) on :
Interesting you did not reference a more advanced text to support your opinions, but a high school level text that you may know very well from years of teaching from it.
You said:
Every 10th grade history class and EVERY textbool WE use considers greece the foundation of western civilization and none of them preach afrocentric nonsense.
Sounds to me like your use of "WE" is to describe what you and all 10th grade teachers reference.
I possess a 1908 elementary school book that refers to Africans as "Piccaninnies" with big lips and bones through their noses. This was also accepted history in your world. Should we overlook the obvious racism and merely continue to use this to teach elementary? It sounds like the version you may have been taught from.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Doug, When a person is so ill eductated that they do not understand that Greece is the foundation of western civilization you cannot have a detailed conversation. That is exactly why I refered you to a 10th grade world history text. You do not even have a basic understanding orf western history. If we are going to have a conversation where do we start? Minoan negroids? That is like having a conversation about UFO's. The best place for you to start would be the Cahill book. I am not going to debate mumbo jumbo with you.
LOL! You are so funny. I wasn't even talking about Greece, but YOU brought it up.
But again, ancient Greece was a SOUTH EASTERN European civilization that HAD NO relationship to any other part of Europe except GREECE and Turkey. It was not WESTERN in any sense of the word. The Greeks became an empire as the result of competition for dominion with the PERSIANS who were the largest empire at the time leading up to Alexander. As a result of the "miraculous" defeat of the Persians, Alexander went on to conquer the rest of the Persian Empire, which WAS IN THE EAST. NONE of these lands were WESTERN and it is through this conquest that MANY elements of EASTERN civilization fused with Greek culture. But this is something that had been taking place ALL ALONG as much of Greek civilization is built on an Eastern Model to begin with, because civilization ORIGINATED in the areas conquered by Alexander, including Egypt, Mesopotamia, Persia and the Indus Valley. And this is in about 300 B.C. At this time Greece WAS NOT democratic, it was AN EMPIRE. And likewise at this time, there WAS NO CIVILIZATION anywhere else in Europe that was comparable to that of Greece, Egypt, Mesopotamia or Persia.
A few hundred years later Rome became dominant in Southern Europe and they eventually conquered Greece. The Romans adopted a lot from the Greeks but the WERE NOT democratic and did not WORSHIP Greek culture. The ROMANS extended their empire to the WEST of Europe into the lands of "the BARBARIANS" in the rest of Europe. The REST of Europe in and around 100 BC into 100 AD was NOT civilized or comparable to the areas of Rome, Greece, Egypt, Persia, Babylon or India. These are all EASTERN civilizations or South Eastern European civilizations born and bred in the East of Europe. There was no such thing as "WESTERN civilization" at this time as the civilized world was in THE EAST. ROME and GREECE are not Britain, Germany, Spain, Portugal or France. Therefore, "Western" civilization is MEANINGLESS in terms of describing THE ACTUAL FLOW of civilization in Europe, it was FROM THE EAST that civilization flowed into Europe NOT THE WEST and "Western" civilization did NOT EXIST at the time of the Greeks or Romans. In fact, the largest part of both the Roman AND Greek empire lay OUTSIDE of Europe. And this empire was called the HELLENISTIC Empire or Hellenistic civilization NOT WESTERN CIVILIZATION.
The point being that the term "Western Civilization" is a FAKE concept, based around people who had NO CONNECTION with ancient Greece. It was the people of Britain, Spain and Portugal that laid the basis of "Western" civilization, both in terms of being WESTERN European as well as by conquering the Western Hemisphere. But THEY HAD NO DIRECT CONTACT with or RELATIONSHIP to ancient Greek culture. They were barbarians and UNCIVILIZED during the time of the Greeks and therefore cannot CLAIM something they had nothing to do with.
The whole point of "western civilization" is to create A FAKE continuity of civilization from ancient Greece to Western Europe and then the Western Hemisphere as the epitome of culture, civilization and human rights and the ideals of human freedom. But EUROPE was NEVER a bastion of such ideals and the spread of Europeans to the Western Hemisphere and the creation of civilization in the Western Hemisphere was based on the ideals of CONQUEST, SUBJUGATION, RACISM and GENOCIDE, not DEMOCRACY and not HUMAN FREEDOM. Democracy was NOT the primary force of human interaction and governance FOR MOST of human histories and those countries that DO espouse it are THE BIGGEST VIOLATORS OF HUMAN RIGHTS ON THE PLANET. THAT is why this whole concept of "Western" civilization is a FRAUDULENT CONCEPT that has NOTHING to do with REALITY. Greece WAS NOT a democracy for MOST of its history and NEITHER was Europe. The only ones talking that BULLSH*T are those who have done the MOST to DESTROY human freedom, civilization and culture WORLD WIDE.
The history of Europe does not begin with the Greeks. And for MOST of the last 5000 years EUROPE was NOT civilized. THAT is why they focus SO MUCH on Greece and Rome, but those were the EXCEPTIONS in terms of European culture and civilization. The classical period of Greek history had NOTHING in common with the rest of Europe. Therefore, to claim classical GREEK history as the classical history of ALL of Europe IS A LIE. All of Europe was NOT like Greece at the time of the empire of Alexander, in fact MOST of it was not. That is the point you don't understand.
Civilizations spread based on conquest and domination and the ALL the religions of the world are based around the concept of death leading to new life as a CORE PRINCIPLE behind growth and development in the universe. It is the CORE COSMOLOGY behind Egyptian beliefs in Isis, Horus and Osiris, the Persian, Greek and Roman belief in Mithras and Dionysus, behind the concepts of the Hindus, behind the beliefs of the Mayans and the beliefs of the East Asians. It is also the idea behind the eucharist and eating the body and drinking the blood of Jesus Christ. That belief boils down to the following fundamental fact of nature: from death comes new life and by defeating and conquering ones foes you devour them and absorb their power or life force. But the key is that this energy is is everlasting and eternal and cannot be destroyed and permeates all aspects of creation. It is the most ancient and primordial concept of life itself that has been acknowledged since man has become conscious of himself on this planet. And it is something that is universal. Just like animals need to kill in order to live, survive and grow, so do nations and civilizations. So save your platitudes about Democracy and values for those 10th graders who don't know better.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
What can you say about a man who just simply refuses to educate himself? Nobody said the history of Europe began with Greece. Western Civilization began with Greece. I'm am weary of this argument with you. I always recommend the cahill book for my students who are interested in western history. You can read the book or not read it, that's up to you. it is an excellent discription of the birth of western civ in Greece.
Posted by meninarmer (Member # 12654) on :
Don't ask me how I knew, but I'd have bet good money against your being an English teacher.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
Patriot and Doug, if you want to discuss Greece's roots there is already a thread for that here!! This thread is about the whether or not the Moors were black!!
(Doug, perhaps the 'professor' has no valid answers for the points I raised about the topic so he's reduced to going off topic.)
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Djehuti's points are, as usal, products of his very vivid imagination.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ LOL Unfortunately for you professor, I did not "imagine" any of the info below.
The painting above is from Spain and guess who those black persons are.
The image above is the crest of the flag of Corsica known as the "Moore's Head". I wonder why...
Posted by Explorateur (Member # 14778) on :
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
quote:Originally posted by Explorateur:
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
But Black is a relative description and you know thats where I am going with this. They may have called them Black but they may have been over exaggerating considering the numerous Arabs that help maintain cohesion. A lot of people back then were called Black that we wouldn't consider to be Black today.
This gets interesting. Notice that Osirion was made to tell us what Moors actually means, and then after a hiatus, comes back to give us his speculations on what it means. So, it is your understanding that presumably "non-blacks" were considered "Negroes" back in the day, but "today", they are not; why is that?
And oh, you guys may also now go back to arguing about what "Black" means.
Don't lump me in with Mr. Patriot.
Lol, your posts lump you with AmericanPatriot, and hence, need not come from me.
quote:osirion writes:
However, being of European upbringing I am very well aware of the difference in concepts of Black. Where I was brought up Black people of Africa and India were all considered one race of people.
This is not only nonsensical, but an immaterial straw, as "Indians" were not the ones who conquered southwest Europe in the "Medieval" era, it was northwest Africans.
quote:osirion writes:
Many of us no longer consider Southern Indians to be Black but then many Afrocentrics do.
Who is "many of us", and why is it that you no longer consider Southern Indians to be black?
quote:osirion writes:
So again, to simply call them Black doesn't necessarily mean the same as what is meant by Black.
*What is meant by 'black', since you are saying 'black' no longer means black, lol?
*Is your interpretation of 'black' more relevant, or is it what the term "Moor" means?
^*Also, is your intrepretation of 'black' more relevant than what it meant to Medieval Moorish era Europeans?
quote:osirion writes:
However, and this is a big HOWEVER. Arabs came to control the Moors in Spain. And Arabs became known as the Moors because they provided cohesion and leadership to them. So Moor started to mean Muslim rather than Negro.
So, it is your understanding that the "Moors" were natives of Spain, or that they were settler populations there, whom the Arabs came in to rule? So, as far as you are concerned, no northwest African empire ever ruled Spain?
quote:osirion writes:
Just like the word Gay no longer means a happy person. Terminology changes but I agree the original meaning was Negro.
Well, we will find out: produce a primary text in Moorish Spain that suggests that the meaning of "Moor" as a reference to 'blacks' had changed then.
Note that Djehuti's post provides an example of what could clue you in on who were referred to as "Moors" and who were referred to as "Saracens", but I seriously doubt you took it home.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: What can you say about a man who just simply refuses to educate himself? Nobody said the history of Europe began with Greece. Western Civilization began with Greece. I'm am weary of this argument with you. I always recommend the cahill book for my students who are interested in western history. You can read the book or not read it, that's up to you. it is an excellent discription of the birth of western civ in Greece.
Like I said the term Western Civilization is meaningless. The Greeks did not call themselves WESTERN they called themselves Greek. The term WESTERN CIVILIZATION had no significant VALUE AT ALL to them. The only thing important to the ancient Greeks was GREEK culture and GREEK history, not some AMBIGUOUS PAN EUROPEAN IDENTITY as "WESTERN". The ancient Greeks DID NOT LOOK at the world like that. Such a concept was NOT part of their WORLD VIEW. It is ONLY THOSE who have come along THOUSANDS of years later who ARE NOT directly related to the culture and civilization of ancient Greece who defined the term WESTERN civilization. It is a meaningless term. Civilization is civilization and that means MATH, SCIENCE, ART, PHILOSOPY and so forth. ALL of those things existed long before the Greeks.
Yes, ancient GREEK civilization and more importantly the writings of the ancient Greeks were VERY important to the development of civilizations in Western Europe and the renaissance. But Ancient Greek culture is not "Western" it was GREEK, PERIOD and ancient Greek culture was PROFOUNDLY influenced by OTHER cultures and civilizations that existed LONG BEFORE it. Greece was PART of the development of modern civilization and an important part, because MUCH of their written work was a VERY important component of scholarship in the times SINCE the Greeks and leading to the renaissance. But that doesn't make it WESTERN that makes it GREEK. OTHER people were influenced by the Greeks FROM BEFORE the renaissance, people who were NOT even in Europe. In this regard, EUROPE was AGAIN LATE to the game. Greek knowledge, as well as the knowledge of many other ancient cultures was being passed down and studied by MANY PEOPLE who were DIRECTLY influenced by the Greek world. And it is THEIR ACHIEVEMENTS, such as the INDIAN mathematicians who developed ZERO as well as the NUMBER SYSTEM we used today who were AS IMPORTANT to the development of modern math as the ancient Greeks OR renaissance thinkers. So again, GREEK culture and GREEK thought was influential on EVERYONE. That doesn't make it WESTERN that makes it GREEK.
Posted by TheAmericanPatriot (Member # 15824) on :
Have you lost your mind Doug? How in the hell could the greeks know the future? They did not know that they were the foundation of western civilization. Greek civilization was greek at the time, obviously, but it became European. You are trying waaaay to hard on this.
You are going up against the greatest historical minds in the world with the position you are trying to take. Just type in Greece/Western Civilization into your search engine. Literally thousands of articles will come up. Libraries are packed with books on the subject.
Don't let these afrocentrics here lead you over a cliff and ruin your brain. There were never two civilizations more UNLIKE than Egypt and Greece.
Posted by Lord Sauron (Member # 6729) on :
^ Blissfully ignorant.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by TheAmericanPatriot: Have you lost your mind Doug? How in the hell could the greeks know the future? They did not know that they were the foundation of western civilization. Greek civilization was greek at the time, obviously, but it became European. You are trying waaaay to hard on this.
You are going up against the greatest historical minds in the world with the position you are trying to take. Just type in Greece/Western Civilization into your search engine. Literally thousands of articles will come up. Libraries are packed with books on the subject.
Don't let these afrocentrics here lead you over a cliff and ruin your brain. There were never two civilizations more UNLIKE than Egypt and Greece.
You are the one trying to hard. Greek civilization was Greek civilization. Period. Modern European civilization is modern European civilization. The two are not one and the same. Of course modern civilization owes a lot to the Greeks. But it also owes a lot to a lot of OTHER cultures and civilizations. The term western civilization is meaningless, because it doesn't really reflect ALL of the inputs that led to modern European civilization. And it does not START with Greece. It starts in the various cradles of civilization develops there moves to various other places including Greece, gets further expanded by a lot of other peoples and becomes a part of modern European civilization because of MANY INFLUENCES, including the Moors, which represents African, Asian, Persian and Indian traditions that ALL played a significant part in laying the foundations of modern European civilization. It isn't simply Greek and it isn't ISOLATED from the outside world.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ I don't why you guys keep bringing up Greece which has nothing to do with the topic of this thread which is Were the Moors Black!!
"And since their Spanish officers stimulated their fighting spirit by allowing them to do whatever they wished with the "red" civilian population, another drawing reveals an abandoned woman with two tiny newborn babies in her lap who possess Moorish features.
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
I remember my British Literature teacher from highschool reading an English translation of a passage from Spain where someone (I believe a member of the Spanish royal family, perhaps King Ferdinand himself) says something like we have almost wiped out the black stain of the Moores completely with our Spanish blood-- in other words whiten through intermarriage.
So how does Hore or other naysayers explain such a claim from the Spanish?..
Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
quote:Originally posted by Egmond Codfried:
[A Moor, a girl, to symbolise Blue Blood for the whitened sitter Madame the Kerouaille]
[Madame de Kerouaille, a French noble and mistress of King Charles II Stuart.]
When eurocentrist say 'Negro' or 'True Negroes' or SSA, they mean the type which is called 'The Moor' in European art. The type they depicted over and over again. As a Black Herald, Black Magi or a Black King. They even used him as a symbol for Blue Blood on portraits. He is pitch-black of skin, has frizzy hair, a flat nose, a broad face, thick lips, subnasal prognasty.
These types one finds among the royal portraits in the Louvre, Paris. Perhaps this type was the noble elite from Ancient Egypt, who practiced extreme intermarriage.
I cannot see how all Egyptians would look like Moors or 'Classical Africans' which is the term I prefer, as Egypt borders the Mediterranean and the Semitic world where we find the Mediterranean type.
Based on my research on European portraits (1500-1789) I believe that Egyptian portraits for public display were idealised in a way to not only show the rulers as young, beautiful and fierce; but also to give them a generic face so all ethnicities in Egypt could recognize themselves in his or her face.
^ Regardless of "true negro" looks or not. The word Moor simply means 'black', specifically black natives of North Africa and especially those of the Medieval Islamic period.
But here are more examples of Moors in European art:
Gee, all these depictions.. yet according to 'Americanpatriot', all these European artists are somehow mistaken. Posted by King_Scorpion (Member # 4818) on :
Bump
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Just keep in mind that people who talk about the "caucasoid" presence in North Africa constantly are purposely ignoring the even more ancient Africoid presence in the Mediterranean and Levant which is still part of the diversity there. All of which is to say that Levantine does not automatically imply white skinned.
Of course dances with canes sticks, knives, swords and whatever is so old in Africa and elsewhere it is ridiculous.
Posted by markellion (Member # 14131) on :
quote:Originally posted by osirion:
But Black is a relative description and you know thats where I am going with this. They may have called them Black but they may have been over exaggerating considering the numerous Arabs that help maintain cohesion. A lot of people back then were called Black that we wouldn't consider to be Black today.
The bold bellow are examples of someone being called white who would be considered black today
quote: There are many terms that describe complexions in the Arabic language that have different meanings from the same term today or that are no longer used. This is why many people who read descriptions using these terms don't understand the true meaning of the descriptions.
White أبيض
One of these misunderstood terms is the term "white" ابيض . Most people think that when the Arabs of the past described a person's complexion as "white", they meant the same light complexion that is meant today. This isn't true at all. When the Arabs described a person as "white", they actually meant a dark complexion. Ibn Mandour, the well-known Arab linguist who was born in the 13th century AD and the author of the famous book on the Arabic language Lisan Al Arab, quotes from another famous book on the Arabic language called Al Tahdheeb the following:
"When the Arabs say that a person is white, they mean that he has a pure, clean, faultless integrity...They don't mean that he has white skin, but they mean to speak well of his honor and the purity of his integrity. When they say that a person has a white face, they mean that his complexion is free from blotches and a blackness that is unattractive".
The author of Al Tahdheeb is Mas'ud ibn Umar Sa'ad Al Deen Al Taftaazaani, the well-known Arab linguist who lived during the same time as Ibn Mandour.
Shams Al Deen Mohamed ibn Ahmed ibn Othman Al Dhahabi, a well-known historian also of the 13th century, says in his famous book Siyar A'alaam Al Nubalaa, "When the Arabs say that a person is white, they mean that he is black with a light-brownish undertone". The Arabic definition of a white complexion is "al lown al hinti bi hilya sawdaa" اللون الحنطي بحلية سوداء . "Al lown" means complexion, "al hinti" means light brown, and "bi hilya sawdaa" means with a black appearance. It's a black complexion with a light-brownish undertone. The "hilya" of a person is what's apparent in his/her color or appearance. So a person with a "hilya" (appearance) "sawdaa" (black) has a black appearance. So a person called "white" ابيض by the Arabs of the past had a blackish complexion with a light-brown undertone.
So anyone who reads someone being described as "white" in an Arabic book of the past should understand that "white" means a dark complexion. It's very important that people bear this in mind.
Red أحمر
Since in the past the term "white" was used for a person whose complexion was like a "black" person today, one must wonder what it is that the Arabs of the past called people who were "white" in the sense that the word is used today. In the past, those who had complexions like those who are considered "white" today were called red. Tha'alab, the Arabic language scholar of the 9th century AD says, "The Arabs don't say that a man is white because of a white complexion. 'White' to the Arabs means that a person is pure, without any faults. If they meant that his complexion was 'white', they said 'red'".
Posted by e3b1c1 (Member # 16338) on :
great picture doug the syria sunni viligaer look like me i wonder if he is e3b3 like me it does exist in syria mainly on the coast great much apricate it ps. i mean the third picture under the picture of the iraninan visiting in syria e3b1c1
Posted by markellion (Member # 14131) on :
Would a better question be how many in Moorish Spain were Sudan?
The Moors actually seemed to look up to the Sudan the way Ibn Khaldun describes it Page 99 from Ibn Khaldun, Abu’l-Hasan is the king of Morocco
quote:Sultan Abu’l-Hasan was well known for his ostentatious ways and his presumption to vie with the mightiest monarchs and adopt their customs in exchanging gifts with their peers and counterparts and dispatching emissaries to distant kings and far frontiers. In his time the king of Mali was the greatest of the kings of the Sudan and the nearest to his kingdom in the Maghrib. Mali was 100 stages distant from the southern frontiers of his realms
from “Views from Arab scholars and Merchants”
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Sudan was a name for areas with blacks in Africa. Therefore West Africa was also considered as Sudan by some Muslim scholars. It has nothing to do with the modern country of Sudan in East Africa other than the name having the same derivation meaning "land of the blacks".
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Again for the tenth millionth time, the "Moors" is simply a term referring to the African population that made up the invading armies of Spain. This invasion unleashed a wave of migrations from throughout north and west Africa into Southern Europe and Spain. However, the culture and population of what became Moorish Spain and Southern Europe was not all African. Primarily most of the populations were European and many converted to Islam. There were also Arabians, Syrians, Persians and people from Baghdad. There were even people from across Asia in small numbers. The material culture of the Moorish empire was a combination of all these populations, from West African traditions, to Egyptian traditions, to Roman traditions, Greek traditions, Persian traditions, Chinese and Asian traditions, Indian traditions and so on. But the core of what is referred to as the "Moorish" element of this culture is the black African element that played a significant role, especially in terms of soldiers, but also as scholars and rulers.
But even though the term Moor refers to this initial African component, by the time the Moorish period ended many "Moors" were primarily mulattoes, as a result of the mixture of populations, especially those of Europe. The next few hundred years in Northern Africa only amplified this through movements of Turks, Arabians, Europeans and others into North Africa. And this is almost 1000 years after the initial invasions of Spain and a lot of things had changed. From then to now there were even more changes as populations expanded and migrations in and around north Africa continued, producing the types of populations you see in North Africa today.
And this shouldn't be shocking as much of the African diaspora in the Americas also has large numbers of such mulatto types as well and many people who today could pass for white have a lot of African ancestry, even though you wouldn't know it from looking at them. This includes populations from both the Anglo and Hispanic diaspora in the Americas. In fact it is the Hispanic African diaspora that has the most similarity to the populations of North Africa and Southern Europe, because of a similar combination of populations and cultures.
The primary difference between modern Northern Africa and ancient Northern Africa over 1500 years ago is that there were no barriers to Africans from the interior moving north and they did so quite often, as there were many black African populations from the interior clear up to the coasts of North Africa.
The Africans among the African component included many from the Sahel, Sahara and West Africa, who shared many common bonds of trade and culture from long before the arrival of Islam. And it is to the surviving cultures of West Africa that one should look at to see the best example of the remnants of some aspects of "Moorish" culture.
quote: Fit For A King
Horses are rare in some parts of Africa—in damp, tropical climates, they are often done in by disease. But the West African grasslands just south of the Sahara Desert are horse country. Around a thousand years ago, powerful empires arose in this region. Their rulers traveled on horseback and commanded large armies with thundering cavalry.
Though these empires have faded, West African leaders still keep horses as tokens of status and authority. On formal occasions, many rulers dress their horses in lavish trappings and display their wealth as they ride.
Again, this is over 1500 years of history covering an area almost 1 1/2 times the size of the U.S. It is impossible to understand all the cultural and physical aspects of the peoples in a simple term "moorish". And the further back you go the more sophisticated things get, especially in Western Africa.
Another key to note is where does this horse attire come from?
Also, if one wants to see more examples of such Moorish traditions from North And West Africa one can look at the International Festival of the Sahara in Tunisia which is a showcase for such things.
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: Sudan was a name for areas with blacks in Africa. Therefore West Africa was also considered as Sudan by some Muslim scholars. It has nothing to do with the modern country of Sudan in East Africa other than the name having the same derivation meaning "land of the blacks".
Correct, though in isolation it just means 'Black'. Bilad al-Sudan signifies the 'area' or land i e., 'Land of the Blacks'.
Posted by markellion (Member # 14131) on :
When people in America say something about "African" culture or "black"/"Negro" culture what they really mean is Sudan culture. Most people in the Maghrib don't consider themselves Sudan so when someone talks about black Moors they should really be asking about Sudan (plural) who were in Moorish Spain
Posted by markellion (Member # 14131) on :
Bellow is an example of the use of the word Sudan. From what I've read Sudan is used generically for Africans south of the Maghrib (West) but Sudan in the East are usually referred to by more specific names (becasue they are more well known by the Arabs) the most powerful being the Zanj, Ethiopians and Nubians and are all Sudan as those in the west.
I wanted to clear that up because in the book page 110 Shaban goes on to say the Zanj are equally as Negro as the Sudan. Edit: When he uses the word here the Sudan mercenaries could be a mixture of Zanj mercenaries and other ethnicities since Zanj are Sudan?
If any of this is wrong please tell me
"Islamic History a new Interpretation" by M. A. Shaban
quote:The sudden and conspicuous appearance of Sudan amongst the armies of Ibn Tulun in Egypt calls for an explanation. Some sources like us to believe that he bought as many as 40,000 Negro slaves and made soldiers out of them to build up an empire of his own. Buying such a number of slaves, let alone training them to be an effective fighting force in a completely unfamiliar territory, would certainly have required more time than the few years that preceded their appearance in Egypt and subsequently in Syria on the Byzantine borders in the early years of Ibn Tulun’s rule 868-884. Other sources more accurately inform us that he enlisted Sudan in his army.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The blacks of Moorish Spain came from Africa. It is that simple. Some came from North Africa and the Sahara, some came from West Africa and some from the Maghreb. Like I said, prior to Islam there were no barriers against Africans moving freely between Northern Africa and the interior or from East to West and they have been doing this for thousands of years.
You are talking about 1500 years of history and an area larger than the continental U.S. That covers a lot of people, cultures and movements that have taken place and cannot be fully understood by latching onto simple terms like Sudan. Especially because such terms lump together ethnic groups and identities that have real meaning and replaces them with something vague and superficial. Prior to Islam most of North West Africa was called Mauretania and the natives Maure and this covered the many indigenous blacks of these areas and also provided the basis and derivation for the term Moor. Sudan is an Arabic term but that term was never a pejorative term used by Europeans who saw black Africans in Europe. They called them Maure or Moors.
The generic terms found in old books does not help anything because they are so superficial. In this sense the term Sudan is meaningless considering that it only means "black African" and does not describe a particular ethnic group or place in Africa. Therefore the idea that Ibn Tulun had Sudanese soldiers in his army does nothing to actually define where in Africa these people came from as there are blacks all over Africa and many ethnic groups. Just as the term Moor does not really describe where the blacks who entered Spain actually came from. Suffice to say they came from various parts of North West Africa and the Sahara.
It is like saying that "the Whites" of Europe invaded the Americas. Which whites of Europe and from where? Conversely, when people talk about the whites in North Africa they also don't say when and where they came from. What Eurasians, when and from where did they originate? That kind of detail actually has more value historically and anthropological than vague descriptions of whole populations simply based on skin color. Just as the blacks who entered Spain came from specific ethnic groups and places in Africa, so too with those whites who entered Africa. In my mind, Greece and Eastern Europe are two specific places that had impacts at different times, along with other populations from other places at other times as well.
Posted by markellion (Member # 14131) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: prior to Islam there were no barriers against Africans moving freely between Northern Africa and the interior or from East to West and they have been doing this for thousands of years.
There were definitely no barriers during the Islamic era either in fact trade and migrations increased people going north south east west from everywhere to everywhere (although this was happening since forever)
T. Rex was asking about black Moors and going off of what the people at that place and time saw the world you can look at where Sudan is described. We already have an account 40,000 Sudan soldiers as shown above
The opposite of what Osirion said was true the American one drop rule would have us calling people black who didn't consider themselves as such. It would be inappropriate to call someone a black African who didn't consider themselves as such (consider themselves Sudan)
quote:Originally posted by osirion: A lot of people back then were called Black that we wouldn't consider to be Black today.
The very topic is black Moors and despite whatever any modern person defines that as I think the most appropriate thing would be to go by what the natives themselves thought. Based on Jahiz in his book on the boasts of the Sudan I think the Arabs got the entire concept from Sudan themselves
quote:And you mentioned that you would like me to write to you the boasts of the Sudan, so I have written what I recall of their boasts.
In this the Sudan he is quoting are giving their opinion on the word Sudan
quote:Hence, we are the only dark-skinned people. If the appellation dark-skinned applies to us, then we are the pure Sudan, and the Arabs only resemble us. Therefore we are the first people to whom he was missioned. Thus the appellation of the Arabs is predicated on ours, since we alone are designated dark-skinned, and they are not so designated unless they are part of us.
Some people over a thousand years ago were arguing over it its good fun if its not taken seriously I suppose. If anyone thinks the concept should be abandoned then why talk about anything like African history existing Africa is a continent. What the hell is an African American it is some people in America that want to identify as Negro or black or African. The western concept of Negro (not using as biological race) comes from Ethiopian and Sudan which came from the people they referred to
quote:Many other things are also told by them concerning their own antiquity and the colony which they sent out that became the Egyptians, but about this there is no special need of our writing anything.
Ibn Battuta Lived in Africa and he used the word Sudan. Now the majority of Africans didn't/don't even have such a concept but if certain people in the United States are going to keep using the concept and if there are people who keep calling themselves African American and identify themselves with African/black/Negro they should be courteous enough to respect how other people thought of the word. Anyone in the United States who calls themselves African (Sudan) American is an African American solely because they identify themselves as such.
quote:It goes thence to Yu.fi (Nufi), one of the greatest states in Negroland (Sudan), and the Sultan of which is among the most powerful princes of that quarter of the earth. No white man can reach that country, for sure death awaits him from the natives before he penetrates so far.
Posted by markellion (Member # 14131) on :
A great Muslim scholar called himself Ahmad Baba al-Sudani (Ahmad Baba the black man) it was a foreign concept but its also a foreign concept to the Americas that many use
quote:Descendent of Umar ibn Mohammed Aqit the Tuareg. He liked to be called Ahmed Baba, the black. At an early age, he dedicated time to learning until he surpassed peers and contemporaries. He was the matchless jurist, scholar and Imam of his time. His reputation spread all over Sub-Sahara Africa and North Africa. The jurists of Timbuktu sought his advice in matters pertaining to legal decisions. He was a storehouse of Islamic knowledge. He firmly stood on truth in face of the Amirs and Kings. He had a library of 1600 manuscripts that was plundered during the Moroccan invasion of Timbuktu. He was deported to Fez in 1593. He authored 60 books (more than Shakespeare had written) and was called “Standard of Standards” by the Moroccans. He was also the student of the eminent Black scholar Mohammed Bagayogo. He wrote excellent books on theology, grammar, history and jurisprudence.
Posted by markellion (Member # 14131) on :
Someone told me awhile ago (stranger over the internet) that many Egyptians (mostly in the south) today still consider themselves decedents of Nubia. Kemet of course meaning black
[Edit] I'm not confirming that to be true but its something to look into
I actually find that depressing that people were referring to themselves by color
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The point I am making is that using the term Sudan as if it is especially meaningful in Africa were MOST people are black is not really saying anything. It is like saying the black blacks. Simply put, the black Africans of Moorish Spain came from Africa. No other special qualifiers and foreign terms are needed to clarify this at all. That is unless people here feel that black Africans are only limited to certain parts of Africa, which they certainly are not especially more so 1500 years ago.
When talking of the actual groups involved in the Moorish conquest hardly ever will an Islamic scholar call them Sudani. Most often the peoples involved were called by their clan or family association. In fact there were other terms used within Moorish Spain to refer to the various ethnicities there during the Islamic era. Aswad is one example. Across the Islamic world various terms were used to signify blacks and it was not always Sudani. Abyssinian, Zanj and other terms were used to refer to black African people from various parts of Africa.
Simply put the blacks of Islamic Spain came from various parts of North and West Africa. No further clarification based on foreign terminology is needed.
Just as Ahmed Baba using the term Sudani is not significant considering almost ALL the people around him were also black (and also referred to themselves as Sudani in some cases).
But yes, Sudan is the strongest term for referencing "pure" or very dark black Africans of Africa, from medieval Islamic literature. However, that does not change the fact that black Africa has never been limited to the darkest Africans of the continent. Just like the African diaspora there are a range of black African features from very dark to medium and light and those who have primarily African ancestry as well as those who are also mixed due to non African ancestry. When you talk of Moorish Spain or Islamic North Africa especially one must keep this in mind as this time period is by definition one where various populations and cultures were interacting.
The simple point is that many of the communities around Africa have African ancestry and have communities that still have darker skin. This is only the historic legacy of the fact that Africa is where all humans originated and that these populations are all the result of ancient migrations out of Africa. The various ways different societies describe or identify skin colors is only a superficial reflection of identity that obscures this core fact.
Berbers from Tataouine in Southern Tunisia. Tataouine is possibly the basis of the planet named Tatooine in Star Wars as much of the scenes for the desert planet were filmed in Tunisia.
quote: Tatooine's namesake
The planet is not actually named in Star Wars Episode IV: A New Hope; according to Lucas he intended to name it Utapau but finally he named it retrospectively after the movie's desert location, Tataouine (French spelling) or Tataween (تطاوين) (Arabic spelling) in Tunisia. Tataouine was a French penal colony until 1938. Utapau however was given to a different planet, in Star Wars Episode III: Revenge of the Sith.
Much of what we call Medieval European culture is based on Persian, Syrian, Egyptian, Asian, Indian, African and other cultural elements, which is why it is unlike the preceding Roman period.
The Persians were a major factor as the last Persian empire did not end until the 7th century B.C. This empire was a constant threat and presence in Eastern Europe and Western Central Asia. It is from the Persians that many traditions of "knights" originate, as well as the style of castles seen in Europe as well as some of the more colorful traditions of dress and adornment. From Northern Africa also comes traditions of cavalry, dress and custom that hark back to the various cultures of the area. From West Africa came many additional cultural and material traditions from warriors to craftsmen to steel and other commodities. From Syria also came many cultural elements including housing styles, artistic styles and fashion and other elements. At this time these areas were much more advanced culturally than what we see today in many ways.
And there is also a lot of influence from India, especially in the way that many churches are covered in images of various saints and priests, which strongly echoes similar traditions found on Indian and South Asian temples.
This is a good find and makes up for the gibberish you posted just previous to it.
I do find, despite what your sources say, that es~Sudane literally means 'of Blacks' in a geographic sense. Yet and still it presupposes the blackness of its user since one would naturally assume that somebody from the Beled es Sudan (the Land of Blacks) would indeed be black.
quote:Originally posted by markellion: A great Muslim scholar called himself Ahmad Baba al-Sudani (Ahmad Baba the black man) it was a foreign concept but its also a foreign concept to the Americas that many use
quote: Descendent of Umar ibn Mohammed Aqit the Tuareg. He liked to be called Ahmed Baba, the black. At an early age, he dedicated time to learning until he surpassed peers and contemporaries. He was the matchless jurist, scholar and Imam of his time. His reputation spread all over Sub- Sahara Africa and North Africa. The jurists of Timbuktu sought his advice in matters pertaining to legal decisions. He was a storehouse of Islamic knowledge. He firmly stood on truth in face of the Amirs and Kings. He had a library of 1600 manuscripts that was plundered during the Moroccan invasion of Timbuktu. He was deported to Fez in 1593. He authored 60 books (more than Shakespeare had written) and was called “Standard of Standards” by the Moroccans. He was also the student of the eminent Black scholar Mohammed Bagayogo. He wrote excellent books on theology, grammar, history and jurisprudence.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
^^I've read elsewhere also that he was "Tuareg", which would be a slap in the face to those who assort all those of the Berber-speaking lineage to the 'Bidan'. Assuming of course that he liked to be identified as such according to his own preference. I remember some troll asking (in an attempt to marginalize West African achievement), where is our Black Shakespeare? Well, given the work of this majestic scholar I'd be inclined to say that Shakespeare was the White Ahmed Baba. Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
It is only a slap in the face if you presuppose that blacks as the primary population of Africa is contradicted or defined by a bunch of extra labels provided by foreigners. Sudan, Bidan and other sorts of "ethnonyms" only reinforce a fact that most Africans should already understand, which is that blacks were native to Africa since prior to the existence of such terms.
When you boil it down to the simplest common denominator, blacks have been part of Islam in Africa since it arrived there as they were and still are the primary population of Africa. However, as I said before, when looking at Arabic literature on the subject, you cannot always expect to find labels that are convenient to understanding the extent of the black populations among mixed ethnicities in Islamic North Africa and Spain. This is precisely because there were so many ways such scholars referred to such populations and it wasn't always clear who was black, as in dark ebony black, who was brown, who was light brown and who was white. Often such understandings cannot be expected to the level of understanding the composition of such features at an individual or percentage level in populations of mixed backgrounds. Therefore, clan and family associations become the pejorative association and identifier, followed by ethnic associations and then labels based on physical appearance. Not always in that order and not always inclusive.
As an example, how many references can you identify from Medieval Islamic works that describe in detail the physical attributes of groups like the Sanhaja or other Berber clans? Therefore, identification of the clan is often the most you will see, with other sorts of descriptions often being less important. The question is whether lacking such descriptions puts into doubt the fact that there were a large number of very black people among these groups. http://www.scribd.com/doc/8205879/Muqaddamah-Ibn-Khaldun
While Islamic scholars in North Africa were the forerunners of modern anthropological and historical writing in many ways, they were not as thorough and exhaustive on such ideas as identity and physical affiliation. Part of this is due to the fact that Islamic art often omitted the human form, which is a principal way that such characteristics are transmitted from ancient times to the next. And there texts were nowhere near as descriptive as the more modern "anthropological" works which often included extensive imagery to support the text.
Not to mention that the works of Kaldun have been bastardized in translation by various later sholars for various reasons:
quote: Many translations of Ibn Khaldun were translated during the colonial era in order to fit the colonial propaganda machine [54] The Negro land of the Arabs Examined and Explained was written in 1841 and gives excerpts of older translations that were not part of colonial propaganda
When the conquest of the West (by the Arabs) was completed, and merchants began to penetrate into the interior, they saw no nation of the Blacks so mighty as Ghanah, the dominions of which extended westward as far as the Ocean. The King's court was kept in the city of Ghanah, which, according to the author of the Book of Roger (El Idrisi), and the author of the Book of Roads and Realms (El Bekri), is divided into two parts, standing on both banks of the Nile, and ranks among the largest and most populous cities of the world. The people of Ghanah had for neighbours, on the east, a nation, which, according to historians, was called Susu; after which came another named Mali; and after that another known by the name of Kaukau ; although some people prefer a different orthography, and write this name Kagho. The last-named nation was followed by a people called Tekrur. The people of Ghanah declined in course of time, being overwhelmed or absorbed by the Molaththemun (or muffled people;that is, the Morabites), who, adjoining them on the north towards the Berber country, attacked them, and, taking possession of their territory, compelled them to embrace the Mohammedan religion. The people of Ghanah, being invaded at a later period by the Susu, a nation of Blacks in their neighbourhood, were exterminated, or mixed with other Black nations. [[55]]
Ibn Khaldun suggests a link between the decline of Ghana and rise of the Almoravids. however, there is little evidence of there actually being an Almoravid conquest of Ghana
Which means that in order to get a better understanding of what was originally written and what meanings are intended, you would need to be well versed in Arabic literature and able to read the originals directly.
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
Another but fuller recital of our scholar's name is Abu al-Abbas Ahmad ibn Ahmad al-Takruri Al-Massufi al-Tinbukti
Note that al~Takruri is tantamount to es~Sudani, in that both refer to countries inhabited by blacks.
See too, that he never forgets his ancestry -- al~Massufi.
Also that he resided at Timbuktu -- al~Tinbukti.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
One note on the Muqaddimah and its relationship to the history of North Africa and the Berbers. According to some scholars, it was intended to be a history of the Berber people themselves, which would have quite likely been the kind of detailed account some would love to have today. However, it gradually became a more general compendium on the rise and fall of various dynasties in north Africa, the nature of the rise and fall and what it takes to establish a dynasty and the backdrop of the cyclical nature of such dynasties. In this sense, it is much more of a description of HOW history is written from the perspective of the forces that shape the writing of history, which coincide with the forces that cause the cyclical nature of societies rising and falling to begin with. That makes it more of a reflection on the difficulty in accurately reconstructing a people or culture as things are constantly changing and cultures rise one day only to be completely obliterated the next.
In terms of physical anthropology, however, I doubt that such Islamic works would help with providing appropriate labels to describe the features of the Africans below, even though some are are simply black Africans to me, other scholars and observers may use different terminologies. But again, this is the difficulty in trying to reconstruct identity in places where things are changing so quickly along with so many different populations.
Many towers and defensive walls are still found throughout Spain from the Islamic period.
One feature of such defensive structures is the torre alberrana or exterior towers. These towers are credited with having been introduced by the Almohads in the 12th century:
Keep in mind that it was the influx of the Huns who were responsible for the Great Migrations of the Germanic tribes into Western Europe. And this is one of the major means of central Asian culture being spread into Europe, along with the Islamic invasions and later Mongol invasions. This is also when many actual Aryan (Persian) elements arrived as well.
One thing I have been looking into recently are the various musical traditions of Morocco. In looking at this I notice that there is a very strong African nature to much of this music in many of the indigenous musical styles. These traditions seem easy to trace back to the various interactions between African peoples across North West Africa. And the modern Chaabi of Morocco is very infused with modern synthesizers as well as traditional elements. I wouldn't doubt some similarities to Ethiopian pop and traditional as well.
And one aspect of the modern pop sound popular across Africa is the synthesizer, which is something seen prominently in 80s Ethiopian pop. Note the sax element that became popular between the 50s and 70s and has largely been replaced by the Synthesizer.
But again this reflects the fact that when talks of the "Islamic World" you are talking of a mixture of populations, from Caucasians (Caucasus Moutains) to Africans to Asians.
Posted by Sundjata (Member # 13096) on :
quote:Originally posted by alTakruri: Another but fuller recital of our scholar's name is Abu al-Abbas Ahmad ibn Ahmad al-Takruri Al-Massufi al-Tinbukti
Note that al~Takruri is tantamount to es~Sudani, in that both refer to countries inhabited by blacks.
See too, that he never forgets his ancestry -- al~Massufi.
Also that he resided at Timbuktu -- al~Tinbukti.
Thanx kin folk. I'm still trying to understand all of the relevant nisbas of that time. What exactly does "al-Massufi" signify, if you don't mind me asking?
Posted by alTakruri (Member # 10195) on :
That was his 'Tuareg' ethny. Well, actually his second generation Sanhadja kabila, which along with the Lemtuna and Djuddala formed Anbiya a confederacy spanning territory between the Senegal and the Wadi Dar'a (southern Morocco) -- the Massufa ranging from Tegdaoust to Teghaza particulary. The term derives from Mastuf, their eponymous ancestor.
quote:Originally posted by Sundjata: What exactly does "al-Massufi" signify, if you don't mind me asking?
Hey Doug,If you could,would you please post a repo of the Moors heads from J.A Rogers Book,Nature knows No Colour Line complete with family names,I no longer have the book in my position so i can't do it,and even if I did I wouldn't know how.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
I will see, but I know I don't have it.
Posted by ackee (Member # 16371) on :
OH Man, If you do you will be greatly rewarded as there are hundreds of Moors Heads with accompanying family names,pages after pages of this stuff,in vertually every major country in Europe some with family bio's Posted by Djehuti (Member # 6698) on :
^ Oh my! Look at all those European depiction of Moors as blacks even in caricature 'Sambo' forms. I'm sure 'Professor' Pat thinks these Medieval Europeans contemporary to and actual witnesses to the Moors are somehow mistaken. LOL Posted by ackee (Member # 16371) on :
Well DJ,the Moors in that book has been founders of European Families,some of them carry names like Blackman,blackson,morris,murryman,morrison,Brown, nigro,nigroson,mohr,mor,saracen,saraceni,musillman and so on.plus the book gives first hand account of what the Greeks and Romans had to say about such populations living in North Africa and Europe,very intreasting read indeed. Hey DJ I don't think that the Moors head was meant to be anything negative like sambo or such, because such heads was commissioned by the said Moors.
Posted by chjchj (Member # 18041) on :
ugg stiefel Europe,very intreasting read indeed. Hey DJ I don't uggthink that the Moors head was meant to be anything ugg boots negative like sambo or such, because such heads was commissioned by the said
Posted by dana marniche (Member # 13149) on :
quote:Originally posted by ackee: Well DJ,the Moors in that book has been founders of European Families,some of them carry names like Blackman,blackson,morris,murryman,morrison,Brown, nigro,nigroson,mohr,mor,saracen,saraceni,musillman and so on.plus the book gives first hand account of what the Greeks and Romans had to say about such populations living in North Africa and Europe,very intreasting read indeed. Hey DJ I don't think that the Moors head was meant to be anything negative like sambo or such, because such heads was commissioned by the said Moors.
I have that book - Brada lets not forget Moreno, Mora, Morisco, Morelli, Swartzmore.and Moorman. Will scan the photos and post this weekend if I can. I don't think there was a nigroson though.
According to Jack Forbes in Africans and Native Americans: The Language of Race and the Evolution of Red-Black Peoples, 1993:
"The term 'more' and its equivalents were widely used in late-medieval and early modern Europe. According to Siomonet in his study of the language spoken by the Mozarabes (Christian Spaniards under Muslim rule before 1492), mauro meant negro and corresponded to Catillian usage in which moro was applied to horses whose color was negro. The cooresponding more (French), maurus (Hispanic Latin), and moro (Valencian) were derived from Latin morus (negro) and ultimately from a Greek word meaning oscuro. Similarly, Mozarabic mauro was related to moro (Sapnish and Italian), mouro (Portuguese and Gallego), mor (Provencal), maure and more (French), meaning 'Moro; negro; hombre de color'..."
Contrary to what has been spread over the internet in recent years. In Spain Moro was a color term until the 16th century as Simonet proved. Simonet had already proved the word Moro as used by Spanish Christians (Mozarabs) was only a synonym for their word Negro.
Therefore Moor meant black among Spaniards, not Muslim and not Moroccan and not North African or Arab. It referred to black or Negro wherevere they were from and whatever religion they practiced. Has anyone yet proven "Negro" was not a synonym for "Moro". The answer - No.
Moro lived in Spain along with other kinds of Muslims and Middle Easterns but the word "Moorish" only refers in that time to one type of person - one who is "Negro". Period.
Posted by dana marniche (Member # 13149) on :
The Sahrarawis, Trarza and Hassaniyya are descendants of Maures (Berber and Arab-Yemenite people) who sometimes were mentioned even in colonial writings as dragging blue-eyed Christian slaves through the desert area. So the photos you have posted of Sahrawis are mainly of Berber-Arab people who have absorbed European blood and probably some sub-Saharan blood as well.
This woman and her family shows the mixture. The music is also undoubtedly very ancient as well.:
Of course most European writers have tried to make such people into Caucasians that have abosrbed African blood, but it was mainly the other way around.
Posted by dana marniche (Member # 13149) on :
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: ... This invasion unleashed a wave of migrations from throughout north and west Africa into Southern Europe and Spain. However, the culture and population of what became Moorish Spain and Southern Europe was not all African. Primarily most of the populations were European and many converted to Islam. There were also Arabians, Syrians, Persians and people from Baghdad. There were even people from across Asia in small numbers. The material culture of the Moorish empire was a combination of all these populations, from West African traditions, to Egyptian traditions, to Roman traditions, Greek traditions, Persian traditions, Chinese and Asian traditions, Indian traditions and so on. But the core of what is referred to as the "Moorish" element of this culture is the black African element that played a significant role, especially in terms of soldiers, but also as scholars and rulers.
But even though the term Moor refers to this initial African component, by the time the Moorish period ended many "Moors" were primarily mulattoes, as a result of the mixture of populations, especially those of Europe. The next few hundred years in Northern Africa only amplified this through movements of Turks, Arabians, Europeans and others into North Africa. And this is almost 1000 years after the initial invasions of Spain and a lot of things had changed. From then to now there were even more changes as populations expanded and migrations in and around north Africa continued, producing the types of populations you see in North Africa today.
And this shouldn't be shocking as much of the African diaspora in the Americas also has large numbers of such mulatto types as well and many people who today could pass for white have a lot of African ancestry, even though you wouldn't know it from looking at them. This includes populations from both the Anglo and Hispanic diaspora in the Americas. In fact it is the Hispanic African diaspora that has the most similarity to the populations of North Africa and Southern Europe, because of a similar combination of populations and cultures.
The primary difference between modern Northern Africa and ancient Northern Africa over 1500 years ago is that there were no barriers to Africans from the interior moving north and they did so quite often, as there were many black African populations from the interior clear up to the coasts of North Africa.
The Africans among the African component included many from the Sahel, Sahara and West Africa, who shared many common bonds of trade and culture from long before the arrival of Islam. And it is to the surviving cultures of West Africa that one should look at to see the best example of the remnants of some aspects of "Moorish" culture.
[QUOTE]
Again, this is over 1500 years of history covering an area almost 1 1/2 times the size of the U.S. It is impossible to understand all the cultural and physical aspects of the peoples in a simple term "moorish". And the further back you go the more sophisticated things get, especially in Western Africa.
I agree with much of what was said here except for a lack of reference to the Arabian component which probably made up the bulk of the early "Moors" or "black complexioned populations" in Spain - from the 8th until the 10th century.
The Arabian tribes that came to North Africa and settled in Chad and Sudan are the same tribes people that conquered North Africa and Spain. The people that moved against the French in Toulouse were Arabs of the Azd (led by al Ghafiqi from a well known Ghafiq a well known tribe of the Azd ) and other well-documented black skinned tribes, not Africans.
The Muslim Conquest and Settlement of Northern Africa and Spain shows that the Arabians in Spain were very numerous and belonged to the Quda'a, Qays, Rebi'a, Azd, Maddhij, Bakr bin Wa'il and other blacks. It was these Arabian clans or Moorish Arabs who colonized many of the areas that were known as Moorish. Many of the towns of Iberia are named by these men.
"Banu Ghafiq from Udthan (Ethan) bin Hazzan b. al Azd had at one time settled 35,000 strong in Egypt. Their principle settlements in Spain were in the region of Seville, Cordoba and to some extent Toledo, Elvira, Granada and Al Sharaf west of Seville and the place known as al Ghafiq. It was a Ghafiqi named Abdu’l Rahman who led the men of Andalusia in the battle against Charles Martel the Belgium born ruler the tribes of Franks at the Battle of Tours or Poitiers. Thus, the 17,000 Saracens Europeans fought and mentioned in their texts and their famous leader Abdu’l Rahman were of Azd stock."
This is just one of dozens of black or Arabian clans that colonized Spain.
Of course, Syrians, Kurds, Baghdadi's and Khorasanis/Central Asians entered Spain as well as they did North Africa, but the word "Moro" did not refer to them.
Posted by TruthAndRights (Member # 17346) on :
quote:Originally posted by ackee: Hey Doug,If you could,would you please post a repo of the Moors heads from J.A Rogers Book,Nature knows No Colour Line complete with family names,I no longer have the book in my position so i can't do it,and even if I did I wouldn't know how.
Greetings.
I have said book, but no way to scan the pages in to then upload and post....
pp 76, 78, 83-86, 88-91, 95-98, 100-107, are the pages you want...
I have his complete Sex and Race series, as well as As Nature Leads...
htp
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by dana marniche: The Sahrarawis, Trarza and Hassaniyya are descendants of Maures (Berber and Arab-Yemenite people) who sometimes were mentioned even in colonial writings as dragging blue-eyed Christian slaves through the desert area. So the photos you have posted of Sahrawis are mainly of Berber-Arab people who have absorbed European blood and probably some sub-Saharan blood as well.
This woman and her family shows the mixture. The music is also undoubtedly very ancient as well.:
Of course most European writers have tried to make such people into Caucasians that have abosrbed African blood, but it was mainly the other way around.
Keep in mind also that a lot of that Arab blood is relatively recent, as in after the expulsion of the Moors from Spain.
Anyway, more Mauritanian musicians (primarily African descent):
Oh and by the way, one group I distrust the most among the Mauritanian mulatto Arab usurpers in the Northwest of Africa is the Saharawi, who I view as nothing more than Arabs using a front story to obtain land in Africa as native "Africans", when they aren't. Yet they try and rep African culture and traditions that they have usurped as their own, while at the same time enslaving and oppressing the native Africans.
quote: One of the most controversial films shown at the recent Los Angeles Pan African Film Festival (PAFF) was "Stolen," which had its U.S. premier at the festival. The film tells the story of slavery in the Polisario-governed refugee camps in Algeria.
Polisario (Popular Front for the Liberation of Saguia el-Hamra and Río de Oro), the nationalist movement fighting for the independence of the Western Sahara from Morocco, has operated out of Tindouf, Algeria, since the 1970s. The refugee camps at Tindouf now house an estimated 100,000 refugees.
The filmmakers, Violeta Ayala and Daniel Fallshaw, initially planned a film about a family reunion involving a black Saharawi family that became separated when some of its members moved into the camps while others remained in the Moroccan-held territories of Western Sahara. While shooting the original story, the filmmakers stumbled upon evidence of slavery in the camps.
The resulting film is an exposé of slavery in Saharawi society featuring interviews with black Saharawis about life in servitude. The compelling, yet heartbreaking, stories unveil the racial and class divisions within an African society that is home to both blacks and Arabs.
The story of black Africans being enslaved by Arab Africans has been told by human rights organizations and journalists working in Sudan and Mauritania, but "Stolen" is the first documentary to deal with the issue in Saharawi society. The film also reveals that slavery is found not only in Polisario-controlled refugee camps but also in Moroccan-controlled Western Sahara.
The film details the experience of Fatim, a black Saharawi, and her family. Initially one assumes that Fatim is a servant. While the practice of hiring servants is common in many countries, the difference between working as a servant or a slave is often in the treatment and pay. In Fatim’s case, it becomes clear in the film that she and many other black Saharawis are considered slaves.
An important element of the film is the experience of the filmmakers themselves. While documentary filmmakers often do not themselves become part of the film, "Stolen" is different - it features attempts by authorities to confiscate their footage as well as their success in getting it out of North Africa.
Since "Stolen" has been released, the filmmakers say there have been intense efforts to discredit the film. During a discussion after it was shown at PAFF, festival organizers indicated that they had been contacted over their decision to show the film.
The cut shown at PAFF added footage from the European premiere, including interviews accusing the filmmakers of paying for or coercing black Saharawis to say that they were enslaved. Critics of the production also contend that it was both translated and edited in a way that shows a false image of Saharawi society.
At the very least, "Stolen" exposes a racial hierarchy within Saharawi society - a hierarchy that finds black Saharawis economically and politically oppressed. Individuals interviewed tell of black Saharawis forced to work for Arab Saharawi families. The film notes there are laws prohibiting slavery in the region, although the filmmakers show that local attitudes and customs often prevent enslaved individuals from trying to secure their freedom.
However, the filmmakers’ decision to film portions of conversations without the consent or knowledge of those being filmed does raise ethical questions. Including such scenes - which were not needed to tell the story - in the final cut showed a lack of good judgment.
Nevertheless, the interviews and footage constitute a strong story, as well as justification for more campaigning on the issue. The film elicits a strong emotional response from viewers and deals with serious racial, social and economic divisions in Africa and the controversy it has generated will likely bring attention not only to the film, but also to the issues it film highlights.
quote:Originally posted by Doug M: ... This invasion unleashed a wave of migrations from throughout north and west Africa into Southern Europe and Spain. However, the culture and population of what became Moorish Spain and Southern Europe was not all African. Primarily most of the populations were European and many converted to Islam. There were also Arabians, Syrians, Persians and people from Baghdad. There were even people from across Asia in small numbers. The material culture of the Moorish empire was a combination of all these populations, from West African traditions, to Egyptian traditions, to Roman traditions, Greek traditions, Persian traditions, Chinese and Asian traditions, Indian traditions and so on. But the core of what is referred to as the "Moorish" element of this culture is the black African element that played a significant role, especially in terms of soldiers, but also as scholars and rulers.
But even though the term Moor refers to this initial African component, by the time the Moorish period ended many "Moors" were primarily mulattoes, as a result of the mixture of populations, especially those of Europe. The next few hundred years in Northern Africa only amplified this through movements of Turks, Arabians, Europeans and others into North Africa. And this is almost 1000 years after the initial invasions of Spain and a lot of things had changed. From then to now there were even more changes as populations expanded and migrations in and around north Africa continued, producing the types of populations you see in North Africa today.
And this shouldn't be shocking as much of the African diaspora in the Americas also has large numbers of such mulatto types as well and many people who today could pass for white have a lot of African ancestry, even though you wouldn't know it from looking at them. This includes populations from both the Anglo and Hispanic diaspora in the Americas. In fact it is the Hispanic African diaspora that has the most similarity to the populations of North Africa and Southern Europe, because of a similar combination of populations and cultures.
The primary difference between modern Northern Africa and ancient Northern Africa over 1500 years ago is that there were no barriers to Africans from the interior moving north and they did so quite often, as there were many black African populations from the interior clear up to the coasts of North Africa.
The Africans among the African component included many from the Sahel, Sahara and West Africa, who shared many common bonds of trade and culture from long before the arrival of Islam. And it is to the surviving cultures of West Africa that one should look at to see the best example of the remnants of some aspects of "Moorish" culture.
[QUOTE]
Again, this is over 1500 years of history covering an area almost 1 1/2 times the size of the U.S. It is impossible to understand all the cultural and physical aspects of the peoples in a simple term "moorish". And the further back you go the more sophisticated things get, especially in Western Africa.
I agree with much of what was said here except for a lack of reference to the Arabian component which probably made up the bulk of the early "Moors" or "black complexioned populations" in Spain - from the 8th until the 10th century.
The Arabian tribes that came to North Africa and settled in Chad and Sudan are the same tribes people that conquered North Africa and Spain. The people that moved against the French in Toulouse were Arabs of the Azd (led by al Ghafiqi from a well known Ghafiq a well known tribe of the Azd ) and other well-documented black skinned tribes, not Africans.
The Muslim Conquest and Settlement of Northern Africa and Spain shows that the Arabians in Spain were very numerous and belonged to the Quda'a, Qays, Rebi'a, Azd, Maddhij, Bakr bin Wa'il and other blacks. It was these Arabian clans or Moorish Arabs who colonized many of the areas that were known as Moorish. Many of the towns of Iberia are named by these men.
"Banu Ghafiq from Udthan (Ethan) bin Hazzan b. al Azd had at one time settled 35,000 strong in Egypt. Their principle settlements in Spain were in the region of Seville, Cordoba and to some extent Toledo, Elvira, Granada and Al Sharaf west of Seville and the place known as al Ghafiq. It was a Ghafiqi named Abdu’l Rahman who led the men of Andalusia in the battle against Charles Martel the Belgium born ruler the tribes of Franks at the Battle of Tours or Poitiers. Thus, the 17,000 Saracens Europeans fought and mentioned in their texts and their famous leader Abdu’l Rahman were of Azd stock."
This is just one of dozens of black or Arabian clans that colonized Spain.
Of course, Syrians, Kurds, Baghdadi's and Khorasanis/Central Asians entered Spain as well as they did North Africa, but the word "Moro" did not refer to them.
You are absolutely correct. Many people think that Arab means white, when in reality that is a recent concept. Many Arabs in history from the land of Arabia were and are black. The white skin primarily comes from Asian (hence the origin of the term Asiatic) and European admixture, such as from the Turks, the Armenians, the Eastern Europeans and other populations who have become part of the "Arab world". Even many of the ancient Egyptian depictions of Asiatics shows this African/Asian blend of features.
Northwest Africa is a hodgepodge of Aboriginal African, European, Asian and Arab (all colors). I call it the land of the Obamanoids, meaning Africans of mixed descent, some of whom do resemble Obama. And this is from a history of interaction with various populations.
Islamic Spain and the golden Age of the Islamic world was the prototype for the "multicultural" Western World. It was the Muslims who controlled the trade routes from Africa and Europe to Asia, which provided the basis of the wealth of the time for the Muslims. From Africa, Arabia, South Asia into the Far East there was exchange and commerce between all different kinds of cultures and peoples that formed the backdrop of a multi-ethnic identity. And many of these people were indeed black, many coal black. The diverse Afro, Arab and European blend became the basis of Andalusian identity and from this came the concepts of the concepts of ethnic stratification seen most strongly in the Spanish and Portuguese colonies, not to mention many of these Spanish and Portuguese were mulattoes themselves in the first place. But anyway the colonization of the Americas and other parts of the world began the process of intermixing of European, Arab, Asian and Native American that is similar in many ways to the Islamic world 1000 years ago.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
Origin of the word Mulatto:
quote: The Spanish and Portuguese word muladi is derived from Arabic muwallad. The basic meaning of muwallad is a person of mixed ancestry, especially a descendant of an Arab and a non-Arab parent, who grew up among Arabs and was educated within the Arab–Islamic culture.
"Muladi" has been offered as one of the possible etymological origins of the still-current Spanish and Portuguese term "Mulato", denoting a person of mixed European and non-European ancestry. In the Basque language, the word mairuak (builders of semi-circular Arches) referred to Muladi merchants and travelers who built Mosques in the rural regions of Iberia.
The Sahrawis are supposed to be descendants ofthe Sulaym or Soleim group of Arabs described as "black as lava" and "extremely black" that mixed mainly with the early Berbers and then their European and then sub-Saharan African slaves. They are not descendants of Muslim people pushed from Spain, but of those that moved south into the Maghreb and were called Moors or Moorish Arabs by the Portuguese and other Europeans.
Interestingly - the Mauritanian woman on Oprahs show in the video claims woman have the power in families her culture. This is the position of women in early Arabian and Berber (Afro-Asiatic) societies the exact opposite among European and Eurasiatic-looking Arab and Berbers.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
quote:Originally posted by dana marniche: The Sahrawis are supposed to be descendants ofthe Sulaym or Soleim group of Arabs described as "black as lava" and "extremely black" that mixed mainly with the early Berbers and then their European and then sub-Saharan African slaves. They are not descendants of Muslim people pushed from Spain, but of those that moved south into the Maghreb and were called Moors or Moorish Arabs by the Portuguese and other Europeans.
Interestingly - the Mauritanian woman on Oprahs show in the video claims woman have the power in families her culture. This is the position of women in early Arabian and Berber (Afro-Asiatic) societies the exact opposite among European and Eurasiatic-looking Arab and Berbers.
This may be true but you also have to remember that there have been movements of Arabs since the fall of Islamic Spain, especially by those called the Beni Hassan who have decimated and intermarried with many of the people of the Western Sahara and "Moorish" Mauritania. It is this Arab element that forms the basis of the Arab elite in Saharawi society that is the basis of the ongoing slavery in Mauritania and within Saharawi society. As a matter of fact there are still movements of Arabs from Arabia into this area who integrate themselves as "natives" of the region.
Posted by dana marniche (Member # 13149) on :
The Bani Hassani i.e. Sahrawi are descendants of the BLACK and PURE Arabs KNOWN as SULAYM AND MAQIL and nearly BLACK Berbers who moved into the western Sahara and became known under the colonialist term Moorish Arabs . The latter who were noted as dragging their "Christian" green and blue eyed slaves through the desert. This black or original Arab/Berber element that combined with their European CHistian slaves now forms the basis of the Arab elite in Sahrawi society. Most of the Arabs moving from Arabia look not unlike like the natives of Sudan and southern Egypt and descend from the ORIGINAL ARAB populations. They are called Haweitat, Masruh and Hawazin and come from Jordan and Sinai.
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The term "Moor" has been used in different contexts over the past several centuries. In Europe especially in the last 3 centries it came to be used for modern Muslim North Africans in a generic way - just as "Turk" came to be used for any European turned Muslim.
A better or more relevant question for a new post would have been, was Simonet correct in his conclusions that Mozarabs in Spain used the word "Moro" as a synonym for word "Negro".
Apparently until the Moro were kicked out of Spain that is what the word meant - Negro the black . Hence the term is still used exclusively for black people today in certain South American countries.
The term Morocco of course comes from the Moors and not vice versa, but most of todays Moroccans of course are not representative of people who typified the Muslim Moors during their rule in Spain.
In that period the word Moor or Moro did not mean Moroccan, Muslim North African or tanned man. As scholars like Simonet have already shown it meant "Negro" - the Spanish term for "black" or black man (derived from Latin Nigri of course).
The word in Africa "Moor" is of course used for darker skinned and mulatto people in Morocco and the Western Sahara who are of Berber and Arab blood. However, it was mainly Berbers and Arabs before intermingling with European/Eurasiatic peoples that became the predominant black-skinned people of Spain and thus were called Moros. These groups were thus not originally of sub-Saharan or West African origin.
Muslim Spain of course was composed of the Moors and "Moorish Arabs" as well as various Middle Eastern and East European people who had turned Muslim.
That does not mean they were all called "Moors" or "Moro", i.e. "Negro" in Spain during the period of Moorish ascendancy.
Comedian Eddie Griffin - USA
Riff Berber of the Guelia in Morocco
Yes - the Moors were black during the period of their ascendancy in Spain - and apparently among Eddie Griffin's ancestors.lol!
The Guelaia apparently were divided into 5 tribes like the ancient Afro-Asiatics, and some prefix their names with Ait or Ad like Beja, south Arabians, Tuareg and other Afro-Asiatics. The tribes mentioned in this Guelaia area include the Beni Sicar and the Beni abu-Ifrur who may be the Berber tribe known as the "Haskura" a branch of the Masmuda occupying the coast of Morocco during the "Moorish ascendancy in Spain - and the Ifuren of the Zenata (Tuareg) pehaps the ancient Perorsi of "Mauritania".
See The Passing of the Shereefian Empire By E. Ashmead-Bartlet 1910.
From such depictions of the Riff Berbers we can see why early Syrians and Iranians simply refered to the Masmuda Berbers as "black Africans".
Posted by Doug M (Member # 7650) on :
The Tuareg received a lot of press and fame due to the French occupation of North Africa and the Sahara. One person most notable for admiring their culture (and trying to convert them) was Charles de Foucauld. He wrote many stories about them. And the French had much trouble with the Tuaregs and their chiefs.
Note too that many of the fine features (thin noses etc) can be found among the Saharan tuareg and are part of the feature set ancestral to those who occupied coastal North Africa and traces back to their roots in East Africa.