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Were the Pre-Inca or Peruvian an African Peoples? - 4100 BC - 400 AD
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by Mike111: [QB] Marc – It’s clear that I’m depending more on conventional science as generated by White people then you are. And I do know how dangerous that can be (At Caral and other places, remains were found under the Pyramids and mounds, but now years later, still no Y-DNA results, that can only mean that they are once again, hiding information). But you can only use information that you have, so I try to make the best of it. Thus having no choice, I have to go along with the conventional chronology that says that the first Americans were Australiod’s at (40,000+), then came the Polynesians at (20,000+), then came the Mongolized people or Amerindians at (10,000+). You will notice that I do not mention the Olmec, that because I consider their arrival undetermined. But do I realize that even here, there are gaping holes. For instance, New Guinea was named New Guinea because the people there, so closely resembled the people of Guinea in West Africa. So to a White person, what constitutes a Polynesian? The Polynesian thing takes on even greater significance when considering Kennewick Man of Washington state. He is so far the oldest Human found in North America. White people say that genetically he resembles the Ainu of northern Japan, and Polynesians from the South Pacific. But what does that mean? As far as I know, the only people who could genetically bridge that gap are the Andaman Islanders. So are Andaman Islander type people what White people call Polynesians in the context of American settlement? If that is the case, then we can say with some certainty; that Polynesian settlement occurred not by water, but by land across the Bering Straits. This scenario does seem logical in that I don’t see why Polynesians arriving by Sea would have ventured so far north. [/QB][/QUOTE]
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